4th deck Flashcards

1
Q

A 34 year old woman developed deep vein thrombosis at 25 weeks gestation. Initial blood tests are all normal the therapy with low molecular weight heparin is initiated. The platelet count should be checked after

A

7 days

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1
Q

The mean diameter of particles contained in surgical smoke

A

0.1 – 5.0 micrometres

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2
Q

The percentage of women in the general population who have anti-phospholipid antibodies

A

Anti-phospholipid antibodies are present in 15% of women with recurrent miscarriage (<2% general population) and are associated with adverse pregnancy outcome

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3
Q

A healthy 29 year old woman presents at 30 weeks of gestation with itching in her palms, feet and abdomen. Her skin appears normal and there are no other symptoms. BP = 123/62 mmHg and urine analysis is normal. FBC is normal. ALT = 72 IU, bile acids = 32 microM. One week later, ALT = 90 IU, Bile acids = 45 micromol/L. BP, urine analysis and all other blood tests are normal.
When to do next….

A

Bile acids 19–39 micromol/L: weekly testing as they approach 38 weeks’ gestation in order to inform timing of birth

Bile acid 40–99 micromol/L, especially approaching 35 weeks’ gestation: weekly testing should be considered, as timing of birth may be influenced if levels rise to 100 micromol/L or more

Bile acid 100 micromol/L or more: further routine testing of bile acids might not impact on decision making and therefore may not be routinely required

Background risk of stillbirth from 28 weeks = 0.29%
Mild ICP: peak bile acids 19–39 micromol/L and no other risk factors, risk of stillbirth is similar to the background risk. Consider options of planned birth by 40 weeks’ gestation or ongoing antenatal care according to national guidance.

Moderate ICP: peak bile acids 40–99 micromol/L and no other risk factors, the known risk of stillbirth is similar to the background risk until 38–39 weeks’ gestation. Consider planned birth at 38–39 weeks’ gestation.

Severe ICP: peak bile acids 100 micromol/L or more, risk of stillbirth is higher than the background risk (3.44% (2.05–5.37%)). Consider planned birth at 35–36 weeks’ gestation

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4
Q

A 32 year old woman develops primary cytomegalovirus infection in the third trimester. What is the risk of the fetus being infected?

A

40-70%

Risk of transmission for primary infection is 30 to 40% in the first and second trimesters, and 40 to 70% in the third trimester

The risk of transmission following non-primary infection is much lower (3%)
The risk of complications to the fetus is greatest if a primary infection occurs during the first trimeste

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5
Q

TSH receptor antibodies are typically found in patients with

A

Graves disease

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6
Q

When should the prophylactic dose of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) be administered post caesarean section?

A

4 hours post spinal

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7
Q

22 year old woman presents at 20 weeks gestation with a history of fever and rigors. She returned from India 10 days ago. Investigations identify plasmodium falciparum malaria. Which one is the most appropriate treatment?

A

IV artesunate

Complicated P. falciparum malaria – iv artesunate. iv quinine is second line agent
Uncomplicated P. falciparum malaria - iv quinine and clindamycin

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8
Q

ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) presentation and electrolyte

A

OHSS is characterized by hypovolaemia and hypo-osmolality, hyponatraemia,

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9
Q

A 64-year-old woman undergoes a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for endometrial carcinoma. This procedure will be placed in which of the following wound classifications?

A

Clean contaminated surgical wound

Clean wounds with a higher risk of infection such as those involving the gastrointestinal, respiratory or genitourinary tracts, as long as the surgery is uncomplicated

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10
Q

Which drug is a direct thrombin inhibitor?

A

Dabigatran

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11
Q

A 23 year old woman presents with symptoms suggestive of pulmonary embolism at 32 weeks gestation. Definitive diagnosis should be based on

A

Lung perfusion scan

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12
Q

A low-risk 23 year old woman presents in spontaneous labour at 39 weeks gestation. CTG is commenced because of epidural analgesia. At 8 cm dilatation, there is a deceleration (to 80 / min) which has lasted for 3 minutes. The preceding CTG was normal and there is good variability within the deceleration. What is the probability of the fetal heart rate recovering by 6 minutes?

A

90%

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13
Q

In the pelvic organ prolapse quantification (POPQ) system, if the woman has no prolapse, point Ba is located at

A

Point Ba.
A point that represents the most distal position of any part of the upper anterior vaginal wall from the vaginal cuff or anterior vaginal fornix to Point Aa.

By definition, Point Ba is at -8 cm in the absence of prolapse and would have a positive value equal to the position of the cuff in women with total post-hysterectomy vaginal eversion.

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14
Q

During the management of major post-partum haemorrhage, platelets should be transfused if the platelet count falls below

A

50 x 10g / L

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15
Q

In immunocompetent individuals, the infectious period of chickenpox is

A

24 hours before rash until 5 days after rash

In immunocompetent individuals, the infectious period should be taken as being from 24 hours prior to rash onset to 5 days after rash. For immunosuppressed individuals, the infectious period should be taken from 24 hours prior to rash onset until all lesions have crusted over.

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16
Q

Mechanism of action of Indomethacin

A

Cyclo-oxygenase inhibitor

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17
Q

Which one is not a recognized risk factor for OHSS?

A

Use of GnRH antagonists for controlled ovarian hyperstimulation

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18
Q

Which one of the following congenital infections is most characteristically associated with fetal hydrop

A

parvovirus b19

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19
Q

Ovarian reserve is a term that is used to determine the capacity of the ovary to provide egg cells that are capable of fertilization. Determination of ovarian reserve is important in the treatment of infertility. At what point in the menstrual cycle should serum FSH levels be measured

A

2-5

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20
Q

Donovan bodies are associated with

A

Granuloma inguinale

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21
Q

half life ergometrine

A

30-120mins

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22
Q

A 69 year old patient is seen in the gynaecology clinic. She has a 2.5 cm squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva with stream depth of 1.5mm confined to the perineum with no nodal involvement. What FIGO stage is this cancer

A

1B Lesions > 2 cm in size or with stromal invasion > 1 mm confined to the vulva or perineum

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23
Q

Which of the following hormones are required for alveolar morphogenesis during pregnancy

A

Progesterone, Prolactin and hPL.

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24
Q

With regard to the role of the placenta in preventing immune rejection. Which of the following HLA (Human Leukocyte Antigen) genes are not expressed by cells of the trophoblast?

A

Human trophoblast cells do not express the two main polymorphic classical class Ia antigens HLA-A and B

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25
Q

Tamoxifen is

A

Selective Estragen Receptor Modulator (SERM)

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26
Q
A
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27
Q

moa misoprostol

A

synthetic prostaglandin E1

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28
Q

what chemical is prostaglandin produced from

A

arachidonic acid

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29
Q

What pathway is prostaglandin production

A

COX

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30
Q

GnRH is released by which organ

A

Liver

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31
Q

Origin of the ligamentum falciparum

A

ventral mesentry

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32
Q

Ductus Arteriosus connects which structures

A

Pulmonary artery and aorta

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33
Q

MOA Clindamycin

A

inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis at the level of the 50S ribosome.

lincosamide

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34
Q

MOA Metronidazole

A

binds deoxyribonucleic acid and electron-transport proteins of organisms, blocking nucleic acid synthesis

35
Q

Metoclopramide can cause what SE

A

Extrapyramidal

36
Q

What is normal sperm morphology

A

4%

37
Q

recurrent rate of tubal ectopic

A

15-20%

38
Q

Treatment Gonorrhoea

A

Ceftriaxone + azithromycin

39
Q

trichomonas vaginalis - how does it look

A

4 anterior flagella, 1 post flagella

40
Q

Robertsonian translocation occur in which syndrome (acrocentric chromosomes)

A

downs and patau
chromosomes 13,14,15,21,22

40
Q

Risk of developing T2DM if you have GDM

A

50%

40
Q

What gene mutation is most common in Lynch syndrome?

A

MSH2 , 38 percent,

41
Q

Prev DVT in pregnancy management

A

LMWH during pregnancy

42
Q

power of electrocautery SI unit

A

watt

42
Q

pseudomonas on Mac conkey

A

yellow

43
Q

CTPA and breast dose

A

20 Gy

44
Q

G2p1, LMP 6wk ..back , by TVS gestational
Mean sac by scan 23 mm , no fetal pole visualize,

A

unknown viability

45
Q

mx vulvovaginal atrophy

A

DHEA / Estrogen

46
Q

Chalamydia cause congenital infection

A

ophthalmia neonatorum

47
Q

origin allantois

A

The human allantois is a caudal out-pouching of the yolk sac

The allantois has an inner layer of endoderm, usually a simple epithelium, and an outer layer of mesoderm.

48
Q

epithelium ovary

A

simple cuboidal cells

49
Q

lymphatic drainage scrotum

A

superficial inguinal nodes

50
Q

most common cause of the female urethral caruncle?

A

low oestrogen

51
Q

precursor of Serotonin?

A

Tryptophan

52
Q

Haemophilus ducreyi causes what

A

chancroid

53
Q
A
54
Q

Which of the conditions are contraindication of the use of oxybutynin?

A

narrow angle glaucoma
urinary retention,
gastric retention and other severe decreased gastrointestinal motility conditions

55
Q

neoplasm of the female genital tract occurring in an 18-year-old girl whose mother was treated with diethylstilbestrol during the pregnancy is likely to be

A

clear cell adenocarcinoma

56
Q

what type of cancer is linked to lichen planus?

A

vulval ca - squamous cell

57
Q

What is the nerve root of ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerve?

A

L1

58
Q

Pregnancy related nausea and vomiting uses PUQE index. What is the Maximum score?

A

15

59
Q

Most common protozoan causes zoonotic infection(cerebral calcification, retinitis)

A

toxoplasmosis

60
Q

The vitamin causing pellagra….

A

B3. niacin

61
Q

Gest age which type of variable data

A

INTERVAL

62
Q

Ext pudendal art is branch of

A

femoral

63
Q

Hepatic art is branch of

A

celiac art

64
Q

shelf life of whole blood

A

35days

65
Q

Which of the following forms the lateral wall of the ischio-rectal fossa?

A

the medial aspect of the obturator fascia, the ischial tuberosity, and the obturator internus muscle

66
Q

Heamatopiotic function start at which gest age

A

6-7weeks

67
Q

sheehan syndrome what is damaged

A

occurs when the anterior pituitary gland is damaged due to significant blood loss

68
Q

Remifentanil is an ideal controlled analgesia for management of labour pain because

A

It is rapidly metabolized by tissue estrases

69
Q

Aldosterone promotes water retention via which of the following mechanisms?

A

Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid steroid hormone produced in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex. Aldosterone should be thought of as a renal sodium (Na) regulator.

It stimulates retention of water via the following
Upregulates Na/K pumps in the DCT and Collecting ducts of the kidney nephrons resulting in Na reabsorption in exchange for potassium ionloss (water follows sodium via osmotic gradient)
Upregulates epithelial

70
Q

what type of virus is Zika?

A

single-stranded positive-sense RNA virus

71
Q

What is the prevalence of HIV in the UK obstetric population

A

2 per 1000 live birth

72
Q

2010 FIGO classification of endometrial carcinoma grade 2

A

Cervical stromal invasion

73
Q

29 year old women wants to speak to you regarding infections in pregnancy. Her two year old son has sensorineural deafness as a result of infection in her previous pregnancy. She tells you he was born with a ‘blueberry muffin’ rash. What was the most likely infection?

A

rubella

74
Q

A 35 year old lady is seen in clinic for IVF counselling. She reports having bloody watery diarrhoea for the past 5 days and a fever up to 39oC. A day or two earlier she had takeaway chicken that tasted ‘funny’. Which gram negative rod is likely to be responsible?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

spiral shaped

75
Q

Galactopoiesis is maintained by which hormone?

A

prolactin

76
Q

In women over 45 years of age miscarriage rate is

A

93%

77
Q

From which germ layer does the kidney develop

A

intermediate mesoderm

78
Q

Obesity causes a drop in what

A

low SHBG means more free testosterone and more testosterone can lead to Hirsutism.

79
Q

At what stage of fetal development does fetal haemoglobin (HbF) replace embryonic haemoglobin (HbE) as the primary form of haemoglobin?

A

10-12 weeks

80
Q
A
81
Q

MRI unit of magnetic field strength

A

tesla

82
Q

maximum diameter of yolk sack on TV Us

A

6mm

83
Q

incidence of placenta accrete

A

1.7 per 10000