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13 Flashcards

1
Q

Which one of the above is appropriate treatment to prevent post-abortion infection?

A

Azithromycin orally on day of termination

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2
Q

Which one of the above is an effective intervention to prevent post-abortion infection?

A

Screening for Chlamydia infection prior to abortion

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3
Q

The risk of uterine perforation during insertion of an intrauterine contraceptive device is increased in

A

breast feeding

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4
Q

One thousand women have started using combined hormonal contraceptive pill. With perfect use, how many unwanted pregnancies will there be in this group of women in one year?

A

1

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5
Q

One hundred women have started using combined hormonal contraceptive pill. With typical use, how many unwanted pregnancies will there be in this group of women in one year?

A

9

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6
Q

One hundred women are taking the desogestrel progestogen-only pill. How many unwanted pregnancies will occur over 1 year?

A

0.2

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7
Q

The risk of venous thromb-embolism in a woman of reproductive age not using any contraception

A

4-5 per 10,000

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8
Q

VTE risk post partum

A

300-400 per 10,000. or 10 -30 per 1,000

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9
Q

What is the main mechanism of action of the desogestrel progestogen-only contraceptive pills?

A

inhibit ovulation

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10
Q

The half-life of mifepristone

A

18 hours

HALF LIFE 20-30 hours..

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11
Q

Which one is not a recognised side-effect of misoprostol?

A Nausea B Diarrhoea
C Rigors D Vomiting
E Gastric irritation

A

gastric irritation

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12
Q

Misoprostol is used in the medical management of miscarriage and prevention of post-partum haemorrhage. Misoprostol

A Should be stored in the refrigerator
B Is not excreted into breast milk
C Is not absorbed if administered orally
D Is better absorbed by the vagina if moistened with water
E Is also used to prevent GI damage by NSAIDs

A

should be stored in the fridge

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13
Q

Combined oral contraceptive pills are safe to use following evacuation of a complete hydatidiform mole at what stage?

A

Immediately after evacuation

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14
Q

The Joel-cohen incision

A 2-3 cm above the pubic symphysis
B 3-8 cm above the pubic symphysis
C 8-10 cm below the umbilicus
D 2-3 cm below the pubic symphysis
E 2-3 cm below the level of the anterior superior iliac spines

A

2-3 cm below the level of the anterior superior iliac spines

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15
Q

The Joel-Cohen incision

A Is placed lower on the abdomen than the Pfannestiel incision
B Predominantly utilizes sharp dissection using the scalpel or scissors
C Provides more rapid access to the abdominal cavity than the Pfannestiel incision D The incision is made to curve gently upwards at its lateral margins
E Requires transverse division of the rectus abdominis muscles

A

Provides more rapid access to the abdominal cavity than the Pfannestiel incision

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16
Q

Following adequate iron therapy in women with iron deficiency anaemia, haemoglobin should be expected to increase by

A

20 g/L over 3-4 weeks

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17
Q

Correct management oral combined pill

A

Missed pill 14th and 15th pill UPSI 12 hours ago.
No EC
condoms 7/7
no PT

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18
Q

The following are recommended first line treatment(s) for vasomotor symptoms in menopausal women without a uterus

A Systemic oestrogens
B Systemic oestrogens, systemic progestogens
C Systemic oestrogens, isoflavones
D Systemic oestrogens, black cohosh, isoflavones
E Systemic oestrogens, systemic progestogens, isoflavones

A

Systemic oestrogens

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19
Q

A partial molar pregnancy typically develops after

A

Fertilisation of an oocyte by 2 sperms

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20
Q

A 36 year old woman is having episiotomy repair following forceps delivery. She used nitrous oxide for labour analgesia. The maximum dose of lignocaine (lidocaine) used for local anaesthesia should be

A

4mg/kg

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21
Q

The plasma half life of oxytocin following intra-muscular injection

A

1 – 6 minutes

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22
Q

Oxybutynin hydrochloride is a non-selective muscarinic receptor antagonist used to treat bladder overactivity. The following diseases are aggravated by use of oxybutynin except

A Hyperthyroidism
B Myasthenia gravis
C Congestive cardiac failure
D Hiatus hernia
E Diabetes mellitus

A

DM

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23
Q

A healthy 34 year old woman develops a wound infection 5 days after emergency caesarean section. Which is the most appropriate antibiotic therapy?

A

fluclox

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24
Q

Erythromycin

A Is a beta lactam antibiotic
B Is not effective against intra-cellular bacteria
C Is mainly excreted by the liver
D Is the antibiotic that is typically associated with red man syndrome
E Acts by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis

A

excreted by liver

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25
Q

Organism that causes hospital-acquired infections

A

Pseudomonas, aerobic Gram –ve

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26
Q

The incubation period of parvovirus B-19 infection

A

4-14

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27
Q

chlamydia is

A

An obligate intracellular gram negative bacterium

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28
Q

23 year old woman with a history of intravenous drug abuse has screening for hepatitis C infection. Results show hepatitis C IgG positive but PCR is negative. This implies

A Current acute infection
B Past infection which has been cleared
C Biological false negative PCR test
D Early infection
E Chronic hepatitis C infection

A

past infection cleared

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29
Q

The type of toxin produced by E coli

A

endotoxin

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30
Q

A new test for pre-eclampsiahas been developed. The sensitivity of the test is 0.9 and the specificity is 0.7. What is the positive predictive value of the test?

A

0.75

use /10 therefore

TP 9 FP 3
FN 1 TN 7

9/9+3 = 0.75

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31
Q

With respect to the utility of clinical tests, a highly sensitive test is useful in

A Predicting the disease
B Ruling out the disease
C Ruling in the disease
D Ruling in and ruling out the disease
E Calculating the risk of having the disease

A

Ruling out

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32
Q

In determining the utility of a clinical test, what is given by the equation: true positives / (true positives + false negatives)?

A

SENSITIVITY

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33
Q

What is the first step in wound healing by primary intention?

A Hemostasis B Inflammation
C Proliferation D Remodeling
E Wound contraction

A

haemostatis

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34
Q

Which one is the most common benign ovarian neoplasm in children and adolescents?

A Functional ovarian cysts
B Ovarian fibroma
C Dermoid cyst
D Juvenile granulosa cell tumour
E Dysgerminoma

A

Dermoid

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35
Q

Risk factor for hepatocellular carcinoma

A Asbestos
B Aflatoxin
C Arsenic
D Beta-napthalamine
E Nitrosamines

A

Aflatoxin

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36
Q

Chronic endometritis is characterized by

A

Lymphocytic and plasma cell infiltration of the endometrial glands and stroma

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37
Q

Ovarian theca-lutein cysts

A Are pre-malignant
B Are germ cell tumours
C Are associated with ovarian stimulation with gonadotrophins
D Are typically associated with endometrial hyperplasia
E Typically contain old blood

A

are associated with ovarian stumulation of gonadotrophins

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38
Q

During wound healing by primary intention

A There is an initial phase of vasodilatation followed by sustained vasoconstriction
B Lymphocytes appear at the margins of the incision within 24 hours
C By day 3, lymphocytes are replaced by neutrophils
D Re-epithelisation occurs within 24-48 hours
E Proliferation of epithelial cells is maximal on days 4-5

A

RE epithelisation by 24-48 hours

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39
Q

Non-dysjunction

A Occurs during meiosis but does not occur during mitosis
B Occurring during meiosis I results in the gamete receiving both homologues of the chromosome pair
C Occurring in meiosis II results in the gamete receiving both homologues of the chromosome pair
D Occurs during prophase
E Accounts for 1-3% of cases of Down’s syndrome

A

B Occurring during meiosis I results in the gamete receiving both homologues of the chromosome pair

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40
Q

Which one is not a typical feature of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A Ambiguous genitalia in female neonate
B Ambiguous genitalia in male neonate
C Neonatal vomiting and shock
D Elevated urinary ketosteroids
E Normal life-span with appropriate treatment

A

Ambiguous genitalia in male neonate

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41
Q

Which structure is defective in thalassaemia?

A

globin

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42
Q

Rett syndrome is associated with learning difficulties. The mode of inheritance is

A

sporadic

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43
Q

A 21-year-old pregnant woman is found to have an Hb of 102 g/L on a routine blood test, with an MCV of 80fl. Serum electrophoresis reveals an Hb F of 5%, Hb A1 of 80%, Hb A2 of 15% and Hb S of 0%. Her ferritin levels are normal. The most likely diagnosis is:

A

beta thalassaemia minor

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44
Q

inferior epigastric is a branch of

A

external illiac artery

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45
Q

where is colles fascia

A

testicles/scrotum

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46
Q

Nerve supply to the rectus abdominis below the umbilicus

A

T10/11

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47
Q

The inferior vesical artery originates from

A

anterior division of Internal iliac artery

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48
Q

Completion of first meiosis division during oogenesis

A

pubery

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49
Q

The nerve supply to derivatives of the septum transversum is from

A

C3,4,5 keep thediaphragm alive

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50
Q

Peptides cross the placenta by

A

active transport

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51
Q

Which one is not a recognised phase of spermiogenesis?

A Golgi phase B First meiotic division
C Acrosome phase D Maturation phase
E Formation of tail

A

first meiotic division

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52
Q

Blood supply to the inferior aspect of the temporal lobe

A Middle cerebral artery
B Basilar artery
C Posterior communicating artery
D Posterior cerebral artery
E Anterior cerebral artery

A

Posterior cerebral artery

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53
Q

Is lined by columnar epithelium

A The lower half of the anal canal
B The endocervix
C The alveoli
D The fallopian tube
E The ureter

A

the endocervix

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54
Q

he proportion of betamethasone which is metabolised by placental 11-beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase during placental transfer

A

1-2%

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55
Q

Which cells or tissues express gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)?

A

Hypothalamus, pituitary gland, placenta, ovary, endometrium

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56
Q

Which one is not an eicosanoid?

A Prostaglandins B Prostacyclines
C Thromboxanes D Leukotrienes
E Arachidonic acid

A

Arachidonic acid

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57
Q

The most common cause of hyperprolactinaemia

A Drug-induced
B Hypothyroidism
C Pituitary adenoma
D Chronic renal failure
E Pituitary stalk interruption syndrome

A

Pituitary adenoma

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58
Q

Insulin-line growth factors

A

Have a negative feedback effect on growth hormone secretion

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59
Q

Which hormone has alpha and beta sub-units?

A Glucagon
B TSH
C GnRH
D Insulin
E Growth hormone

A

TSH

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60
Q

Which hormone is produced by the posterior pituitary gland?

A Leutenising hormone
B Oxytocin
C Prolactin
D Renin
E GnRH

A

oxytocin

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61
Q

In the adrenal gland, aldosterone is secreted by the

A Zona glomerulosa
B Zona fasciculata
C Zona reticularis
D Zona fasciculata and zona reticularis
E Adrenal medulla

A

zona GLOMERULOSA

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62
Q

Iodine accumulation in thyroid cells involves symport with

A

2 Na+

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63
Q

what % 1st trimester miscarriages have an abnormal karyotype

A

70%

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64
Q

following ectopic risk of recurrence is

A

18-22%

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65
Q

following surgical evacuation of complete molar pregnancy the risk of recurrence is

A

1/50

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66
Q

partial molar forms because

A

normal oocyte fertilised by 2 sperm
69xxy

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67
Q

following complete molar pregnancy the risk of choriocarcinoma is

A

5%

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68
Q

risk of molar pregnancy after 2 prev

A

1/7

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69
Q

what counter acts methotrexate induced myelosupresson

A

FOLINIC ACID - calcium dominate

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70
Q

methotrexate dose is based on what

A

surface area

71
Q

how long to avoid conception after methotrexate

A

3 months

72
Q

methotrexate can be given for PUL with chg level until

A

HCG 5000

73
Q

25 F earl pregnancy spotting 5/40 US - empty uterus. hcg 400 —> 700

a) ectopic
b) viable intrauterine
c) miscarriage
d PUL

A

PUL

74
Q

calculate odds ratio

A

AD / BC

75
Q

incidence turners

A

1/2000 - 1/3000

76
Q

structure lateral to internal iliac arteries

A

ureter

77
Q

ovary originates from what

A

MESODERM

78
Q

NERVE SUPPLY BELOW UMBILICUS

A

inferior hypo gastric nerve

79
Q

sympathetic innervation bladder

A

hypogastric nerve T12-L2

80
Q

why does pregnancy cause an increase in cortisol

A

cortisol increased due to unopposed esteogens

81
Q

prolactin increase

A

20-50 fold

82
Q

ligament arriving from lateral cervix a d attached to endopelvic fascia

A

CARDINAL (transverse cervical)

83
Q

SMA level spine

A

L1

84
Q

level IMA aorta

A

L3

85
Q

blood supply transverse colon

A

MIDDLE COLIC (SMA)

86
Q

axis ROC curve

A

sensitivity / (1-specificity)

87
Q

alcohol group attached to which carbon atom of prostaglandin

A

c20

88
Q

type of electrosurgery used in laparoscopy where pad is placed on patient

A

monopolae diathermy

89
Q

hep b transmission route

A

blood, semen, fluids

90
Q

hep a transmission

A

faecal oral

91
Q

hep c transmission

A

blood to blood - IVDU

92
Q

hep e transmission

A

faecal oral, contaminated water

93
Q

CmV risk of congenital neonatal infection

A

10-15%

94
Q

where is Ca125 expressed

A

amnion and fetal coelomic epithelia

95
Q

PG with highest level pre-menstruation

A

carboprost PGF2a

96
Q

Advantage of PGE 2 vs PGE 1 analogue

A

more effective cervical ripening

97
Q

presentation MRKH

A

46XX
normal secondary sexual characteristics BUT blind ending womb. NO PERIODS.

underdeveloped womb or without a womb, cervix and upper vagina. T
he ovaries and external genitalia look the same as most girls
women and they develop breasts and pubic hair as they get older.

98
Q

presentation CAH

A

CAH causes excess cortisol.
causes 46XX
AMBIGOUS GENITALS
inguinal hernia

Without these hormones, their body produces more androgens (sex hormones that are naturally higher in males). If the child is female, the raised androgen levels before birth can cause their genitals to look different, such as a larger clitoris and a vagina that is not open in the usual place.

99
Q

presentation androgen insensitivity

A

46XY
where the body “ignores” androgens or is insensitive to them.
The genitals of a person with CAIS appear female.

A penis does not form or is underdeveloped. This means the child’s genitals may develop as female, or are underdeveloped as male.

The child may have fully or partially undescended testicles. But there will be no womb or ovaries.

100
Q

Treatment for central precocious puberty :

A

GNRH analgous

101
Q

Where does leptin originate from

A

adipose tissue

102
Q

Pt presents with hyperemesis, 8 wks amenorrhoea. T4 0.04 (↓), TSH 18 (N).
Interpretation :

A

normal

103
Q

Pt with BMI 34. FPG 5.8, 2HPP 7.9. Dx :

A

GDM

104
Q

onset IM oxytocin

A

5 mins

105
Q

Direct activator of aldosterone

A

angiotensin 2

106
Q

Calcitonin secreted by

A

THYROID GLAND (c cells parafollicular)

107
Q

to perform intermittent auscultation during 1st stage of labour

A

carry out intermittent auscultation immediately after a palpated contraction for at least 1 minute, repeated at least once every 15 minutes,

108
Q

sperm per mil

A

15 000 000

109
Q

Pain score is what type of variable

A

ordinal

110
Q

Measured blood loss type of variable

A

ordinal

111
Q

Percentage of non-epithelial ovarian Ca

A

10%

112
Q

Oxytocin cannot be given orally because

A

destroyed by gastric acid

113
Q

Enzymes for glycolysis found in

A

cytoplasm

114
Q

Origin of faiciparum ligament

A

ventral mesentry

115
Q

urogenital sinus (lower 2/3 vagina) from what layer

A

endoderm

116
Q

organelle where lipid is synthesized

A

R endoplasmic reticulim

117
Q
A
118
Q

Gartners duct from what

A

MESONEPHRIC DUCT

119
Q

The upper 2/3 vagina originates from

A

PARAMESONEPHRIC DUCTS

120
Q

testicular cells responsible for angrogen production

A

LEYDIG cells

121
Q

benefit of misoprostol compared to dinosprostone (e2) for induction

A

does not need to be stored in the fridge

122
Q

placental vasopressinase is metabolised where in the body

A

LIVED

123
Q

Gestational diabetes INCIPIDUS resolved when

A

4-6 weeks post parfum

124
Q

progesterone acts via

A

receptors in cytoplasm and nucleus

125
Q

where in nephron regulars acid base balance

A

distal tubule and collecting duct

126
Q

where is potassium absorbed in nephron

A

PCT loop henley collecting ducts

127
Q

insensible losses fr 70 yo

A

15-20ml/kg/24hr

128
Q

which molecules can be metabolised by glycolysis

A

GLUCOSE FRUCTOSE GALATOSE

129
Q

% downs caused by robertsonian

A

3%

130
Q

call exner bodies

A

GRANULOSA

131
Q

what is NOT a germ cell tumour

A Dysgerminoma
B Granulosa cell tumour
C Endodermal sinus tumour
D Terratoma
E Choriocarcinoma

A

Granulosa

132
Q

Ovarian corpus luteum cysts

A Are typically bilateral
B Usually contain old blood
C Are lined by leutenised granulosa and theca cells
D Are more common in peri-menopausal women
E Usually contain mucus

A

are lines by leutenised granulosa and theca cells

133
Q

Dermoid cysts

A Account for 1-2% of ovarian neoplasms
B Account for 40-50% of ovarian neoplasms
C Are typically lined by stratified squamous epithelium
D Typically secrete alpha-fetoprotein
E Typically secrete CA-125

A

lined by stratifed squamouns epitherlium

134
Q

An 18 year-old woman is found to have a largely solid ovarian neoplasm. Tumour markers were obtained and demonstrated a markedly elevated LDH value. The HCG and Alpha-Fetoprotein were negative. Which of the following tumours is the most likely histology for this neoplasm?

A

Dysgerminoma

135
Q

What is the most likely histological subtype of ovarian cancer associated with endometriosis?

A

Clear cell adenocarcinoma

136
Q

Perinatal mortality is define

A Stillbirths + deaths in first 28 days B Stillbirths + deaths in the first 7 days
C Miscarriages + stillbirths
D Miscarriages + stillbirths + deaths in first 7 days
E Stillbirths + deaths in first 6 weeks

A

B Stillbirths + deaths in the first 7 days

137
Q

You are involved in the design of a clinical trial of misoprostol for induction of labour. The alpha is set at 0.05 and the beta is set at 0.2. The statistical power of the trial

A 95% B 80%
C 50% D 20%
E 5%

A

80%

138
Q

A trial has been conducted to investigate the effect of tranexamic acid on blood loss following vaginal delivery. 1921 women were randomised to tranexamic acid and 1918 to placebo. Mean estimated blood loss +/- standard deviation was 220.3 +/- 280 ml in tranexamic acid and 236.9 +/- 291.6 ml in placebo. Which one is the most appropriate statistical test to analyse these data?

A Wilcoxon sign rank test B Chi squared test
C Independent t-test D Fisher’s exact test
E ANOVA test

A

independant test

139
Q

Question 6 A trial has been conducted to investigate the effect of tranexamic acid on blood loss following vaginal delivery. 1921 women were randomised to tranexamic acid and 1918 to placebo. Arterial embolisation or surgery for PPH occurred in 3 women in tranexamic acid group and 5 women in placebo group. Which one is the most appropriate statistical test to analyse these data?

A

Fischer exact test

140
Q

A study is undertaken to investigate the effect of birth weight on mode of delivery in primigravidae in spontaneous labour. 5400 women participated in the study of whom 2750 had a spontaneous vaginal birth, 1400 had a vaginal operative birth and 850 had an emergency caesarean section. The mean birth weights were 3420 +/- 325 g, 3573 +/- 397 g and 3697 +/- 421 g respectively. Which one is the most appropriate statistical test to analyse these data?

A

ANOVA

141
Q

Which one of the following statements best describes a type I statistical (? error)?

A

incorrectly rejecting the null hypothesis

142
Q

9 When does the odds ratio (OR) approximate the risk ratio (RR)?

A

when the primary outcome is RARE

143
Q

Which disinfectant may be used to prepare the vagina prior to vaginal hysterectomy?

A Iodine (3%) solution B Povidone-iodine solution
C Isopropyl alcohol 70% D Chlorhexidine 2% + alcohol 70%
E Chlorhexidine 0.2%

A

A Iodine (3%) solution B Povidone-iodine solution

144
Q

contraindication mirabegron

A

Severe HTN

145
Q

MOA BOTOX

A

Block acetylcholine release

146
Q

POPQ POINT MIDLINE ANTERIOR VAGINAL WALL 3cm prix to external urethral meatys

A

POINT Aa

147
Q

Point Aa ON POPQ can be found where

A

-3 to + 3cm

148
Q

Urge incontinence, normal us, failed bladder retraining- next step

A

PELVIC FLOOR EXERCISE

149
Q

MIRABEGRON IS EXCRETED AND METABOLISED BY WHAT

A

hepatic enzymes and renal filtration

150
Q

Which one of the above ovarian tumours secrete CA125?

A Endometroid tumour
B Choriocarcinoma
C Yolk sac tumour
D Dysgerminoma
E Granulosa stromal cell tumours

A

Endometriod

151
Q

What percentage of all breast cancers are associated with BRCA mutations?

A

5-10%

152
Q

The following are associated with raised CA-125 levels

A Ascites, smoking, liver cirrhosis
B Fibroids, smoking, endometriosis, hysterectomy
C Irritable bowel syndrome, ulcerative colitis, endometriosis, liver cirrhosis
D Caffeine intake, oophorectomy, peritonitis, ascites
E Pelvic inflammatory disease, endometriosis, pancreatitis, tuberculosis

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease, endometriosis, pancreatitis, tuberculosis

153
Q

Women with DNA mismatch repair gene mutations are at increased risk of which type of ovarian malignancy?

A

clear cell adenocarcinomas or enodmetriod

154
Q

A 32 year old woman has cervical smear showing low grade dyskaryosis. Testing for high-risk HPV is negative.

A

repeat smear 3 years

155
Q

In addition to cancers of the breast and ovary, carriers of the BRCA mutation are at increased risk of cancers of the

A

colon pancreas melanoma

156
Q

A 57 year old post-menopausal women presents with a single episode of vaginal bleeding 3 weeks earlier. Trans-vaginal ultrasound scan finds an endometrial thickness of 1.2 mm with no other abnormalities.

A Reassure and discharge
B Out-patient endometrial biopsy
C Out-patient hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy
D Topical oestrogen cream
E Repeat trans-vaginal scan in 6 months

A

reassure and discharge

157
Q

Which one is not associated with an increased risk of endometrial hyperplasia?

A Peri-menopausal state
B Granulosa cell tumours
C Use of aromatase inhibitors
D Raised BMI
E Polycystic ovary syndrome

A

aromatase inhibitors

158
Q

With respect to the investigation of suspected endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma

A Hysteroscopy is more accurate in excluding than in detecting endometrial disease
B Hysteroscopy has a higher accuracy for endometrial hyperplasia than for endometrial carcinoma
C CT scanning is more accurate in detecting endometrial hyperplasia than trans-vaginal ultrasound scanning
D Diffusion-weighted MRI is more accurate than trans-vaginal ultrasound scanning in detecting endometrial hyperplasia
E The role of ultrasound scanning in pre-menopausal women should be restricted to the detection of structural abnormalities

A

E The role of ultrasound scanning in pre-menopausal women should be restricted to the detection of structural abnormalities

159
Q

Chloasma is thought to be caused by

A

oestrogens

160
Q

A healthy 25 year old woman attends the antenatal clinic at 41+6 weeks of gestation. She has indicated that she would decline induction of labour if her pregnancy progresses beyond 42 weeks. What will you tell her is her risk of suffering a stillbirth?

A

1/1000

161
Q

Downs syndrome associated with

A Decreased maternal beta HCG in the first trimester
B Increased maternal PAPP-A in the first trimester
C Decreased maternal serum AFP in the second trimester
D Raised maternal serum unconjugated oestriol in the second trimester
E Decreased maternal serum inhibin-A in the second trimester

A

Decreased maternal AFP in 2nd trimester

162
Q

In pregnant women with severe nausea and vomiting, which iv fluid should not be administered?

A

5% dex

163
Q

Which one is the most useful test in the diagnosis of haemolytic anaemia?

A Serum haptoglobin
B Blood film
C Bone marrow biopsy
D Serum lactate dehydrogenase
E Reticulocyte count

A

Blood film

163
Q

The most appropriate screening test for iron deficiency anaemia

A Serum iron
B Total iron binding capacity
C Haematocrit
D Serum ferritin
E Erythrocyte mean cell volume

A

Serum Ferritin

164
Q

Hyperemesis gravidarum is caused by

A Abnormally high plasma hCG concentrations B Hypersensitivity to hCG
C Hypersensitivity to PlGF
D Hypersensitivity to GDF15
E Hypersensitivity to sFLT-1

A

Hypersensitivity to the vomiting hormone growth differentiation factor-15 (GDF15)

165
Q

A 23 year old woman and her 27 year old husband have been referred for genetic counselling. The woman’s father has haemophilia A but she has no history of bleeding disorder. Her husband is known to have haemophilia A.

A

50% affected 25% carrier 25% normal

SHE IS A CARRIER!!!!

Carrier x affected

166
Q

The Lower range for normal Hb in second trimester

A

Hb 105

Hb <110g/l in first trimester, <105g/l in second and third trimesters and <100g/l in postpartum period

167
Q

A healthy 32 year old woman presents with severe nausea and vomiting at 6 weeks gestation. No other cause has been identified. Treatment with intravenous cyclizine has been ineffective.

A

IV prochlorperazine

168
Q

A 25 year old woman has been involved in a road traffic accident at 27 weeks gestation. There was some trauma to the abdomen with mild abdominal tenderness. Fetal heart rate is normal. She is known to be Rhesus negative

A

anti D + kleihaurer

Use of anti-D for sensitising events ahould not affect routine anti-D prophylaxis

169
Q

A 34 year old woman develops listeriosis at 6 weeks gestation. Which one of the above statements is correct?

A The infection is sensitive to ampicillin
B The most likely source of the infection is sexual intercourse with a partner who is a carrier
C The risk of miscarriage is not increased
D The fetus is at increased risk of congenital anomalies
E Termination of pregnancy should be recommended

A

sensitive to ampicillin/amoxicillin

170
Q

A 33-year-old woman is admitted with surgical wound infection after emergency caesarean section for suspected fetal compromise. Culture of the wound demonstrates methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). She has no known allergies. Which is the most appropriate treatment?

A

VANC

171
Q

The SARS-CoV-2 virus infects cells by binding to

A

Angiotensin converting enzyme 2

172
Q

An asymptomatic 23 year old woman has a mid-stream sample of urine sent for microbiology at booking. Group B streptococcus is identified. When should antibiotics be offered?

A

at diagnosis and in labour

revision (14 decks)

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