13 Flashcards
1
Q
Which one of the above is appropriate treatment to prevent post-abortion infection?
A
Azithromycin orally on day of termination
2
Q
Which one of the above is an effective intervention to prevent post-abortion infection?
A
Screening for Chlamydia infection prior to abortion
3
Q
The risk of uterine perforation during insertion of an intrauterine contraceptive device is increased in
A
breast feeding
4
Q
One thousand women have started using combined hormonal contraceptive pill. With perfect use, how many unwanted pregnancies will there be in this group of women in one year?
A
1
5
Q
One hundred women have started using combined hormonal contraceptive pill. With typical use, how many unwanted pregnancies will there be in this group of women in one year?
A
9
6
Q
One hundred women are taking the desogestrel progestogen-only pill. How many unwanted pregnancies will occur over 1 year?
A
0.2
7
Q
The risk of venous thromb-embolism in a woman of reproductive age not using any contraception
A
4-5 per 10,000
8
Q
VTE risk post partum
A
300-400 per 10,000. or 10 -30 per 1,000
9
Q
What is the main mechanism of action of the desogestrel progestogen-only contraceptive pills?
A
inhibit ovulation
10
Q
The half-life of mifepristone
A
18 hours
HALF LIFE 20-30 hours..
11
Q
Which one is not a recognised side-effect of misoprostol?
A Nausea B Diarrhoea
C Rigors D Vomiting
E Gastric irritation
A
gastric irritation
12
Q
Misoprostol is used in the medical management of miscarriage and prevention of post-partum haemorrhage. Misoprostol
A Should be stored in the refrigerator
B Is not excreted into breast milk
C Is not absorbed if administered orally
D Is better absorbed by the vagina if moistened with water
E Is also used to prevent GI damage by NSAIDs
A
should be stored in the fridge
13
Q
Combined oral contraceptive pills are safe to use following evacuation of a complete hydatidiform mole at what stage?
A
Immediately after evacuation
14
Q
The Joel-cohen incision
A 2-3 cm above the pubic symphysis
B 3-8 cm above the pubic symphysis
C 8-10 cm below the umbilicus
D 2-3 cm below the pubic symphysis
E 2-3 cm below the level of the anterior superior iliac spines
A
2-3 cm below the level of the anterior superior iliac spines
15
Q
The Joel-Cohen incision
A Is placed lower on the abdomen than the Pfannestiel incision
B Predominantly utilizes sharp dissection using the scalpel or scissors
C Provides more rapid access to the abdominal cavity than the Pfannestiel incision D The incision is made to curve gently upwards at its lateral margins
E Requires transverse division of the rectus abdominis muscles
A
Provides more rapid access to the abdominal cavity than the Pfannestiel incision
16
Q
Following adequate iron therapy in women with iron deficiency anaemia, haemoglobin should be expected to increase by
A
20 g/L over 3-4 weeks
17
Q
Correct management oral combined pill
A
Missed pill 14th and 15th pill UPSI 12 hours ago.
No EC
condoms 7/7
no PT
18
Q
The following are recommended first line treatment(s) for vasomotor symptoms in menopausal women without a uterus
A Systemic oestrogens
B Systemic oestrogens, systemic progestogens
C Systemic oestrogens, isoflavones
D Systemic oestrogens, black cohosh, isoflavones
E Systemic oestrogens, systemic progestogens, isoflavones
A
Systemic oestrogens
19
Q
A partial molar pregnancy typically develops after
A
Fertilisation of an oocyte by 2 sperms
20
Q
A 36 year old woman is having episiotomy repair following forceps delivery. She used nitrous oxide for labour analgesia. The maximum dose of lignocaine (lidocaine) used for local anaesthesia should be
A
4mg/kg
21
Q
The plasma half life of oxytocin following intra-muscular injection
A
1 – 6 minutes
22
Q
Oxybutynin hydrochloride is a non-selective muscarinic receptor antagonist used to treat bladder overactivity. The following diseases are aggravated by use of oxybutynin except
A Hyperthyroidism
B Myasthenia gravis
C Congestive cardiac failure
D Hiatus hernia
E Diabetes mellitus
A
DM
23
Q
A healthy 34 year old woman develops a wound infection 5 days after emergency caesarean section. Which is the most appropriate antibiotic therapy?
A
fluclox
24
Q
Erythromycin
A Is a beta lactam antibiotic
B Is not effective against intra-cellular bacteria
C Is mainly excreted by the liver
D Is the antibiotic that is typically associated with red man syndrome
E Acts by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis
A
excreted by liver
25
Organism that causes hospital-acquired infections
Pseudomonas, aerobic Gram –ve
26
The incubation period of parvovirus B-19 infection
4-14
27
chlamydia is
An obligate intracellular gram negative bacterium
28
23 year old woman with a history of intravenous drug abuse has screening for hepatitis C infection. Results show hepatitis C IgG positive but PCR is negative. This implies
A Current acute infection
B Past infection which has been cleared
C Biological false negative PCR test
D Early infection
E Chronic hepatitis C infection
past infection cleared
29
The type of toxin produced by E coli
endotoxin
30
A new test for pre-eclampsiahas been developed. The sensitivity of the test is 0.9 and the specificity is 0.7. What is the positive predictive value of the test?
0.75
use /10 therefore
TP 9 FP 3
FN 1 TN 7
9/9+3 = 0.75
31
With respect to the utility of clinical tests, a highly sensitive test is useful in
A Predicting the disease
B Ruling out the disease
C Ruling in the disease
D Ruling in and ruling out the disease
E Calculating the risk of having the disease
Ruling out
32
In determining the utility of a clinical test, what is given by the equation: true positives / (true positives + false negatives)?
SENSITIVITY
33
What is the first step in wound healing by primary intention?
A Hemostasis B Inflammation
C Proliferation D Remodeling
E Wound contraction
haemostatis
34
Which one is the most common benign ovarian neoplasm in children and adolescents?
A Functional ovarian cysts
B Ovarian fibroma
C Dermoid cyst
D Juvenile granulosa cell tumour
E Dysgerminoma
Dermoid
35
Risk factor for hepatocellular carcinoma
A Asbestos
B Aflatoxin
C Arsenic
D Beta-napthalamine
E Nitrosamines
Aflatoxin
36
Chronic endometritis is characterized by
Lymphocytic and plasma cell infiltration of the endometrial glands and stroma
37
Ovarian theca-lutein cysts
A Are pre-malignant
B Are germ cell tumours
C Are associated with ovarian stimulation with gonadotrophins
D Are typically associated with endometrial hyperplasia
E Typically contain old blood
are associated with ovarian stumulation of gonadotrophins
38
During wound healing by primary intention
A There is an initial phase of vasodilatation followed by sustained vasoconstriction
B Lymphocytes appear at the margins of the incision within 24 hours
C By day 3, lymphocytes are replaced by neutrophils
D Re-epithelisation occurs within 24-48 hours
E Proliferation of epithelial cells is maximal on days 4-5
RE epithelisation by 24-48 hours
39
Non-dysjunction
A Occurs during meiosis but does not occur during mitosis
B Occurring during meiosis I results in the gamete receiving both homologues of the chromosome pair
C Occurring in meiosis II results in the gamete receiving both homologues of the chromosome pair
D Occurs during prophase
E Accounts for 1-3% of cases of Down’s syndrome
B Occurring during meiosis I results in the gamete receiving both homologues of the chromosome pair
40
Which one is not a typical feature of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
A Ambiguous genitalia in female neonate
B Ambiguous genitalia in male neonate
C Neonatal vomiting and shock
D Elevated urinary ketosteroids
E Normal life-span with appropriate treatment
Ambiguous genitalia in male neonate
41
Which structure is defective in thalassaemia?
globin
42
Rett syndrome is associated with learning difficulties. The mode of inheritance is
sporadic
43
A 21-year-old pregnant woman is found to have an Hb of 102 g/L on a routine blood test, with an MCV of 80fl. Serum electrophoresis reveals an Hb F of 5%, Hb A1 of 80%, Hb A2 of 15% and Hb S of 0%. Her ferritin levels are normal. The most likely diagnosis is:
beta thalassaemia minor
44
inferior epigastric is a branch of
external illiac artery
45
where is colles fascia
testicles/scrotum
46
Nerve supply to the rectus abdominis below the umbilicus
T10/11
47
The inferior vesical artery originates from
anterior division of Internal iliac artery
48
Completion of first meiosis division during oogenesis
pubery
49
The nerve supply to derivatives of the septum transversum is from
C3,4,5 keep thediaphragm alive
50
Peptides cross the placenta by
active transport
51
Which one is not a recognised phase of spermiogenesis?
A Golgi phase B First meiotic division
C Acrosome phase D Maturation phase
E Formation of tail
first meiotic division
52
Blood supply to the inferior aspect of the temporal lobe
A Middle cerebral artery
B Basilar artery
C Posterior communicating artery
D Posterior cerebral artery
E Anterior cerebral artery
Posterior cerebral artery
53
Is lined by columnar epithelium
A The lower half of the anal canal
B The endocervix
C The alveoli
D The fallopian tube
E The ureter
the endocervix
54
he proportion of betamethasone which is metabolised by placental 11-beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase during placental transfer
1-2%
55
Which cells or tissues express gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)?
Hypothalamus, pituitary gland, placenta, ovary, endometrium
56
Which one is not an eicosanoid?
A Prostaglandins B Prostacyclines
C Thromboxanes D Leukotrienes
E Arachidonic acid
Arachidonic acid
57
The most common cause of hyperprolactinaemia
A Drug-induced
B Hypothyroidism
C Pituitary adenoma
D Chronic renal failure
E Pituitary stalk interruption syndrome
Pituitary adenoma
58
Insulin-line growth factors
Have a negative feedback effect on growth hormone secretion
59
Which hormone has alpha and beta sub-units?
A Glucagon
B TSH
C GnRH
D Insulin
E Growth hormone
TSH
60
Which hormone is produced by the posterior pituitary gland?
A Leutenising hormone
B Oxytocin
C Prolactin
D Renin
E GnRH
oxytocin
61
In the adrenal gland, aldosterone is secreted by the
A Zona glomerulosa
B Zona fasciculata
C Zona reticularis
D Zona fasciculata and zona reticularis
E Adrenal medulla
zona GLOMERULOSA
62
Iodine accumulation in thyroid cells involves symport with
2 Na+
63
what % 1st trimester miscarriages have an abnormal karyotype
70%
64
following ectopic risk of recurrence is
18-22%
65
following surgical evacuation of complete molar pregnancy the risk of recurrence is
1/50
66
partial molar forms because
normal oocyte fertilised by 2 sperm
69xxy
67
following complete molar pregnancy the risk of choriocarcinoma is
5%
68
risk of molar pregnancy after 2 prev
1/7
69
what counter acts methotrexate induced myelosupresson
FOLINIC ACID - calcium dominate
70
methotrexate dose is based on what
surface area
71
how long to avoid conception after methotrexate
3 months
72
methotrexate can be given for PUL with chg level until
HCG 5000
73
25 F earl pregnancy spotting 5/40 US - empty uterus. hcg 400 —> 700
a) ectopic
b) viable intrauterine
c) miscarriage
d PUL
PUL
74
calculate odds ratio
AD / BC
75
incidence turners
1/2000 - 1/3000
76
structure lateral to internal iliac arteries
ureter
77
ovary originates from what
MESODERM
78
NERVE SUPPLY BELOW UMBILICUS
inferior hypo gastric nerve
79
sympathetic innervation bladder
hypogastric nerve T12-L2
80
why does pregnancy cause an increase in cortisol
cortisol increased due to unopposed esteogens
81
prolactin increase
20-50 fold
82
ligament arriving from lateral cervix a d attached to endopelvic fascia
CARDINAL (transverse cervical)
83
SMA level spine
L1
84
level IMA aorta
L3
85
blood supply transverse colon
MIDDLE COLIC (SMA)
86
axis ROC curve
sensitivity / (1-specificity)
87
alcohol group attached to which carbon atom of prostaglandin
c20
88
type of electrosurgery used in laparoscopy where pad is placed on patient
monopolae diathermy
89
hep b transmission route
blood, semen, fluids
90
hep a transmission
faecal oral
91
hep c transmission
blood to blood - IVDU
92
hep e transmission
faecal oral, contaminated water
93
CmV risk of congenital neonatal infection
10-15%
94
where is Ca125 expressed
amnion and fetal coelomic epithelia
95
PG with highest level pre-menstruation
carboprost PGF2a
96
Advantage of PGE 2 vs PGE 1 analogue
more effective cervical ripening
97
presentation MRKH
46XX
normal secondary sexual characteristics BUT blind ending womb. NO PERIODS.
underdeveloped womb or without a womb, cervix and upper vagina. T
he ovaries and external genitalia look the same as most girls
women and they develop breasts and pubic hair as they get older.
98
presentation CAH
CAH causes excess cortisol.
causes 46XX
AMBIGOUS GENITALS
inguinal hernia
Without these hormones, their body produces more androgens (sex hormones that are naturally higher in males). If the child is female, the raised androgen levels before birth can cause their genitals to look different, such as a larger clitoris and a vagina that is not open in the usual place.
99
presentation androgen insensitivity
46XY
where the body "ignores" androgens or is insensitive to them.
The genitals of a person with CAIS appear female.
A penis does not form or is underdeveloped. This means the child's genitals may develop as female, or are underdeveloped as male.
The child may have fully or partially undescended testicles. But there will be no womb or ovaries.
100
Treatment for central precocious puberty :
GNRH analgous
101
Where does leptin originate from
adipose tissue
102
Pt presents with hyperemesis, 8 wks amenorrhoea. T4 0.04 (↓), TSH 18 (N).
Interpretation :
normal
103
Pt with BMI 34. FPG 5.8, 2HPP 7.9. Dx :
GDM
104
onset IM oxytocin
5 mins
105
Direct activator of aldosterone
angiotensin 2
106
Calcitonin secreted by
THYROID GLAND (c cells parafollicular)
107
to perform intermittent auscultation during 1st stage of labour
carry out intermittent auscultation immediately after a palpated contraction for at least 1 minute, repeated at least once every 15 minutes,
108
sperm per mil
15 000 000
109
Pain score is what type of variable
ordinal
110
Measured blood loss type of variable
ordinal
111
Percentage of non-epithelial ovarian Ca
10%
112
Oxytocin cannot be given orally because
destroyed by gastric acid
113
Enzymes for glycolysis found in
cytoplasm
114
Origin of faiciparum ligament
ventral mesentry
115
urogenital sinus (lower 2/3 vagina) from what layer
endoderm
116
organelle where lipid is synthesized
R endoplasmic reticulim
117
118
Gartners duct from what
MESONEPHRIC DUCT
119
The upper 2/3 vagina originates from
PARAMESONEPHRIC DUCTS
120
testicular cells responsible for angrogen production
LEYDIG cells
121
benefit of misoprostol compared to dinosprostone (e2) for induction
does not need to be stored in the fridge
122
placental vasopressinase is metabolised where in the body
LIVED
123
Gestational diabetes INCIPIDUS resolved when
4-6 weeks post parfum
124
progesterone acts via
receptors in cytoplasm and nucleus
125
where in nephron regulars acid base balance
distal tubule and collecting duct
126
where is potassium absorbed in nephron
PCT loop henley collecting ducts
127
insensible losses fr 70 yo
15-20ml/kg/24hr
128
which molecules can be metabolised by glycolysis
GLUCOSE FRUCTOSE GALATOSE
129
% downs caused by robertsonian
3%
130
call exner bodies
GRANULOSA
131
what is NOT a germ cell tumour
A Dysgerminoma
B Granulosa cell tumour
C Endodermal sinus tumour
D Terratoma
E Choriocarcinoma
Granulosa
132
Ovarian corpus luteum cysts
A Are typically bilateral
B Usually contain old blood
C Are lined by leutenised granulosa and theca cells
D Are more common in peri-menopausal women
E Usually contain mucus
are lines by leutenised granulosa and theca cells
133
Dermoid cysts
A Account for 1-2% of ovarian neoplasms
B Account for 40-50% of ovarian neoplasms
C Are typically lined by stratified squamous epithelium
D Typically secrete alpha-fetoprotein
E Typically secrete CA-125
lined by stratifed squamouns epitherlium
134
An 18 year-old woman is found to have a largely solid ovarian neoplasm. Tumour markers were obtained and demonstrated a markedly elevated LDH value. The HCG and Alpha-Fetoprotein were negative. Which of the following tumours is the most likely histology for this neoplasm?
Dysgerminoma
135
What is the most likely histological subtype of ovarian cancer associated with endometriosis?
Clear cell adenocarcinoma
136
Perinatal mortality is define
A Stillbirths + deaths in first 28 days B Stillbirths + deaths in the first 7 days
C Miscarriages + stillbirths
D Miscarriages + stillbirths + deaths in first 7 days
E Stillbirths + deaths in first 6 weeks
B Stillbirths + deaths in the first 7 days
137
You are involved in the design of a clinical trial of misoprostol for induction of labour. The alpha is set at 0.05 and the beta is set at 0.2. The statistical power of the trial
A 95% B 80%
C 50% D 20%
E 5%
80%
138
A trial has been conducted to investigate the effect of tranexamic acid on blood loss following vaginal delivery. 1921 women were randomised to tranexamic acid and 1918 to placebo. Mean estimated blood loss +/- standard deviation was 220.3 +/- 280 ml in tranexamic acid and 236.9 +/- 291.6 ml in placebo. Which one is the most appropriate statistical test to analyse these data?
A Wilcoxon sign rank test B Chi squared test
C Independent t-test D Fisher’s exact test
E ANOVA test
independant test
139
Question 6 A trial has been conducted to investigate the effect of tranexamic acid on blood loss following vaginal delivery. 1921 women were randomised to tranexamic acid and 1918 to placebo. Arterial embolisation or surgery for PPH occurred in 3 women in tranexamic acid group and 5 women in placebo group. Which one is the most appropriate statistical test to analyse these data?
Fischer exact test
140
A study is undertaken to investigate the effect of birth weight on mode of delivery in primigravidae in spontaneous labour. 5400 women participated in the study of whom 2750 had a spontaneous vaginal birth, 1400 had a vaginal operative birth and 850 had an emergency caesarean section. The mean birth weights were 3420 +/- 325 g, 3573 +/- 397 g and 3697 +/- 421 g respectively. Which one is the most appropriate statistical test to analyse these data?
ANOVA
141
Which one of the following statements best describes a type I statistical (? error)?
incorrectly rejecting the null hypothesis
142
9 When does the odds ratio (OR) approximate the risk ratio (RR)?
when the primary outcome is RARE
143
Which disinfectant may be used to prepare the vagina prior to vaginal hysterectomy?
A Iodine (3%) solution B Povidone-iodine solution
C Isopropyl alcohol 70% D Chlorhexidine 2% + alcohol 70%
E Chlorhexidine 0.2%
A Iodine (3%) solution B Povidone-iodine solution
144
contraindication mirabegron
Severe HTN
145
MOA BOTOX
Block acetylcholine release
146
POPQ POINT MIDLINE ANTERIOR VAGINAL WALL 3cm prix to external urethral meatys
POINT Aa
147
Point Aa ON POPQ can be found where
-3 to + 3cm
148
Urge incontinence, normal us, failed bladder retraining- next step
PELVIC FLOOR EXERCISE
149
MIRABEGRON IS EXCRETED AND METABOLISED BY WHAT
hepatic enzymes and renal filtration
150
Which one of the above ovarian tumours secrete CA125?
A Endometroid tumour
B Choriocarcinoma
C Yolk sac tumour
D Dysgerminoma
E Granulosa stromal cell tumours
Endometriod
151
What percentage of all breast cancers are associated with BRCA mutations?
5-10%
152
The following are associated with raised CA-125 levels
A Ascites, smoking, liver cirrhosis
B Fibroids, smoking, endometriosis, hysterectomy
C Irritable bowel syndrome, ulcerative colitis, endometriosis, liver cirrhosis
D Caffeine intake, oophorectomy, peritonitis, ascites
E Pelvic inflammatory disease, endometriosis, pancreatitis, tuberculosis
Pelvic inflammatory disease, endometriosis, pancreatitis, tuberculosis
153
Women with DNA mismatch repair gene mutations are at increased risk of which type of ovarian malignancy?
clear cell adenocarcinomas or enodmetriod
154
A 32 year old woman has cervical smear showing low grade dyskaryosis. Testing for high-risk HPV is negative.
repeat smear 3 years
155
In addition to cancers of the breast and ovary, carriers of the BRCA mutation are at increased risk of cancers of the
colon pancreas melanoma
156
A 57 year old post-menopausal women presents with a single episode of vaginal bleeding 3 weeks earlier. Trans-vaginal ultrasound scan finds an endometrial thickness of 1.2 mm with no other abnormalities.
A Reassure and discharge
B Out-patient endometrial biopsy
C Out-patient hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy
D Topical oestrogen cream
E Repeat trans-vaginal scan in 6 months
reassure and discharge
157
Which one is not associated with an increased risk of endometrial hyperplasia?
A Peri-menopausal state
B Granulosa cell tumours
C Use of aromatase inhibitors
D Raised BMI
E Polycystic ovary syndrome
aromatase inhibitors
158
With respect to the investigation of suspected endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma
A Hysteroscopy is more accurate in excluding than in detecting endometrial disease
B Hysteroscopy has a higher accuracy for endometrial hyperplasia than for endometrial carcinoma
C CT scanning is more accurate in detecting endometrial hyperplasia than trans-vaginal ultrasound scanning
D Diffusion-weighted MRI is more accurate than trans-vaginal ultrasound scanning in detecting endometrial hyperplasia
E The role of ultrasound scanning in pre-menopausal women should be restricted to the detection of structural abnormalities
E The role of ultrasound scanning in pre-menopausal women should be restricted to the detection of structural abnormalities
159
Chloasma is thought to be caused by
oestrogens
160
A healthy 25 year old woman attends the antenatal clinic at 41+6 weeks of gestation. She has indicated that she would decline induction of labour if her pregnancy progresses beyond 42 weeks. What will you tell her is her risk of suffering a stillbirth?
1/1000
161
Downs syndrome associated with
A Decreased maternal beta HCG in the first trimester
B Increased maternal PAPP-A in the first trimester
C Decreased maternal serum AFP in the second trimester
D Raised maternal serum unconjugated oestriol in the second trimester
E Decreased maternal serum inhibin-A in the second trimester
Decreased maternal AFP in 2nd trimester
162
In pregnant women with severe nausea and vomiting, which iv fluid should not be administered?
5% dex
163
Which one is the most useful test in the diagnosis of haemolytic anaemia?
A Serum haptoglobin
B Blood film
C Bone marrow biopsy
D Serum lactate dehydrogenase
E Reticulocyte count
Blood film
163
The most appropriate screening test for iron deficiency anaemia
A Serum iron
B Total iron binding capacity
C Haematocrit
D Serum ferritin
E Erythrocyte mean cell volume
Serum Ferritin
164
Hyperemesis gravidarum is caused by
A Abnormally high plasma hCG concentrations B Hypersensitivity to hCG
C Hypersensitivity to PlGF
D Hypersensitivity to GDF15
E Hypersensitivity to sFLT-1
Hypersensitivity to the vomiting hormone growth differentiation factor-15 (GDF15)
165
A 23 year old woman and her 27 year old husband have been referred for genetic counselling. The woman’s father has haemophilia A but she has no history of bleeding disorder. Her husband is known to have haemophilia A.
50% affected 25% carrier 25% normal
SHE IS A CARRIER!!!!
Carrier x affected
166
The Lower range for normal Hb in second trimester
Hb 105
Hb <110g/l in first trimester, <105g/l in second and third trimesters and <100g/l in postpartum period
167
A healthy 32 year old woman presents with severe nausea and vomiting at 6 weeks gestation. No other cause has been identified. Treatment with intravenous cyclizine has been ineffective.
IV prochlorperazine
168
A 25 year old woman has been involved in a road traffic accident at 27 weeks gestation. There was some trauma to the abdomen with mild abdominal tenderness. Fetal heart rate is normal. She is known to be Rhesus negative
anti D + kleihaurer
Use of anti-D for sensitising events ahould not affect routine anti-D prophylaxis
169
A 34 year old woman develops listeriosis at 6 weeks gestation. Which one of the above statements is correct?
A The infection is sensitive to ampicillin
B The most likely source of the infection is sexual intercourse with a partner who is a carrier
C The risk of miscarriage is not increased
D The fetus is at increased risk of congenital anomalies
E Termination of pregnancy should be recommended
sensitive to ampicillin/amoxicillin
170
A 33-year-old woman is admitted with surgical wound infection after emergency caesarean section for suspected fetal compromise. Culture of the wound demonstrates methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). She has no known allergies. Which is the most appropriate treatment?
VANC
171
The SARS-CoV-2 virus infects cells by binding to
Angiotensin converting enzyme 2
172
An asymptomatic 23 year old woman has a mid-stream sample of urine sent for microbiology at booking. Group B streptococcus is identified. When should antibiotics be offered?
at diagnosis and in labour
