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revision > 5th deck > Flashcards

5th deck Flashcards

1
Q

products of krebs cycle

A

2 carbon
3 NADH
1 FADH
1 ATP

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2
Q

How much acetyl co A does each glucose molecule produce

A

2
(enough for 2 cycles)

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3
Q

How many molecules of ATP does the krebs cycle produce

A

2

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4
Q

how many carbons does testosterone have

A

19

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5
Q

glucocorticoid and progesterone receptor antagonist

A

mifepristone

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6
Q

boarders femoral triangle
lateral
medial
superior
floor

A

lateral - satorius
medial - add longus
superior - inguinal canal
floor illiopsoas and pectineus

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7
Q

When are twins made
DCDA

A

day 3

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8
Q

when are twins made
MCMA

A

day 8-13

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9
Q

MCMA twins - when

A

9-12 day

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10
Q

conjoined twins - when

A

> day 12

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11
Q

non ergot dopamine d2 antagonist - breast milk suppressor

A

Quinagolide

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12
Q

Prostaglandin E2 analogue

A

Dinoprostone - has CYCLOPENTONE GROUP
Proston

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13
Q

natural prostaglandin F2 alpha

A

dinoprost

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14
Q

Antimetabolite of folic acid

A

methotrexate

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15
Q

inhibits intracellular microtubule formation

A

vincristine

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16
Q

selective oestrogen receptor modulator x2

A

tamoxifen
clomiphene

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17
Q

gram positive coccus

A

streptococcus

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18
Q

gram neg anaerobic flagellated rod bacilli

A

Salmonella - enteribacteriacaea

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19
Q

gram negative - aerobic cocci, intracellular diplococci

A

n gonorrhoea

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20
Q

gram positive bacilli obligate anaerobe associated with coil

A

actinimyces

tx penicillin

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21
Q

1st pharyngeal arch
- muscles
- bone
- nerve
- artery

A

muscles - muscles of mastication
bone - mandible and maxilla
trigeminal nerve V2/V3
external carotid artery and maxillary artery

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22
Q

calculate specificity

A

TN/TN+FP

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23
Q

calculate Positive predictive value

A

TP / all positive (TP + FP)

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24
Q

calculate negative likelihood ratio

A

(1- sensitivity) divided by specificity

(1- TP/TP+FN) / TN/ TN+ FP

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25
Q

calculate negative predictive value

A

TN / (FN + TN)

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26
Q

Blocks T cell activation

A

Tacrolimus

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27
Q

Inhibits DHPS (dihydropteroatr synthase)
causes neonatal kernixterus

A

sulphonamides (sulphalazine)

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28
Q

inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

A

trimethoprim

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29
Q

synthetic prostaglandin F2 alpha

A

carboprost

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30
Q

MOA metronidazole

A

damages bacteria DNA

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31
Q

MOA cyclizine

A

H1 antagonist

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32
Q

prevent generation of cytotoxic generalised anti-inflammatory response

A

corticosteroids

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33
Q

MOA Ergotmetrine
contraindication

A

adrenergic and dopaminergic, 5 HT2 receptor agonist

contradiction - asthma HTN

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34
Q

gram neg pleomorphic coccobacili
anaerobic

A

Haemophilus

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35
Q

gram neg spirichaete aerophilic

A

syphilis - treponema pallidum

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36
Q

stats test - continuous normally distributed

A

students t test

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37
Q

stats test continuous NOT normally distributed
- paired
- unpaired

Dichotomous

A

paired - willcox

non-paired - mann whitney

dichotomous - chi squared

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38
Q

RNA virus single strand x8

A

Hep A C D E
Rubella
Zika
ebola
HIV

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39
Q

RNA virus - double stranded

A

Rotavirus

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40
Q

iodophors 7.5-10%

cover for Virus/funghi
cover TB
Endospores

use

A

excellent - gram positive/neg
good - virus/funghi
poor - endospores

can be a surgical scrub and used on mucus membranes

moderate impacted by organic matter

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41
Q

Chlorhexidine 2-4%

cover - gram, virus. tb, funghi, endospore

uses -

A

excellent - gram +/ virus
ok - gram neg
poor tb/funghi
no coverage - endospored

can by used surgical scrub and skin,
can be used on mucus membranes

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42
Q

Alcohol skin prep

cover - gram +/-, tb, virus, funghi, endospores
uses

A

Excellent - gram pos and neg, TB, virus. funghi

no cover endospores

DO NOT USE MUCUS MEMBRANES

ok for surgical and skin prep

43
Q

Iodine 3% prep

cover gram +/-ve, TB, virus, funghi, endospores.

uses

A

excellent gram pos and neg, TB and virus
good - funghi
fair - endospores

NOT SURGICAL SCRUB OR MUCUS MEMBRANE

44
Q

where are sulphonamides
- metabolised
- excreted
- complication

A

metabolised by liver
excreted renal
complication - neonatal knernicterus, Steven-Johnson Syndrome

45
Q

MOA - macrolides (erythromycin)

excretion

A

Inhibit bacterial protein synthesis
50s subunit

46
Q

MOA Aminoglycosides - Gentamycin, Tobramycin / streptomycin

complications

A

inhibit bacterial protein synthesis

oto/nephrotoxic

do not cross blood brain barrier

47
Q

MOA Glycopeptides - vancomycin / teicoplanjn

coverage

A

inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
gram pos only
not absorbed GI tract
tx for c.diff

ototoxic nephrotoxic redman syndrome

48
Q

Which bacteria typically cause toxic shock syndrome

A

staph aureus gram +ve

49
Q

Test results in a pregnant woman with tertiary syphilis

A

VDRL test negative and fluorescent treponemal antibody tests positive

50
Q

Test results in a pregnant woman with secondary syphilis

A

Secondary : VDRL and FTA-Abs (+ve)

51
Q

Glycopeptide antibiotics (vancomycin) are not absorped where

A

GI tract

MOA inhibi bacterial cell wall

52
Q

Tetracycline abx are effective against what

A

mycoplasma

53
Q

Which organism has a single flagellum?

A

cholera

54
Q

Hep D

A

transmitted maternal to fetal
only affects people with Hep B
single stranded RNA

55
Q

varicella zoster is

A

a terratogenic virus

56
Q

HPV is what type of virus

A

DNA

57
Q

16 weeks pregnant infectioned with chicken pox, what are the chances of developing congenital varicella syndrome

A

1%

58
Q

A non-terratogenic virus that is recognised to cause fetal anaemia

A

Parvovirus B19

also caues fetal hydrops

59
Q

Organism that causes hospital-acquired infections (x2)

A

Staphylococcus, aerobic, Gram +ve
Pseudomonas aerobic gram -ve

60
Q

The risk of vertical transmission of HIV in untreated non-breastfeeding women in Europe is

A

15-20%

61
Q

Side effects of TB drugs

Rifampicin

A

side effects - hypersensitivity, hepatitis, orange urine, sweat, saliva

62
Q

SE isoniazide

A

Neuropathy, hepatitis

63
Q

SE Ethambutol

A

optic neuritis, peripheral neuropathy

64
Q

Pytazinamide side effects

A

arthralgia, hepatitits

65
Q

Where is metronidazole exrected, what is it effective against

A

kidneys

anaerobes and protozoa

66
Q

Incubation parvovirus

A

4-14 days

67
Q

organism that causes early onset neonatal infection

A

AEROBIC gram +ve Streptococcus

68
Q

LYMPHOGRANULOMA VENEREUM cause

A

chlamydia

69
Q

MOA lamivudine

A

Nucleoside / nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor

70
Q

MOA nevirapine

A

non nuclear reverse transcriptase inhibitor

71
Q

MOA lopinavir

A

protease inhibitor

72
Q

MOA ritonavir

A

booster drug

73
Q

psuedomonas on maccokney agar colour

A

clear

74
Q

type of toxin responsible for staphlococcal food poisoning

A

enterotoxin

heat labile, targes intestines, cytotoxic,

75
Q

WHat structure on HIV enables it to enter host cells

A

glycoprotein

76
Q

Flu vaccine is what type of vaccine

A

killed vaccine

77
Q

The concentration of this metabolite is raised in the amniotic fluid of fetuses with congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

17 ALPHA hydroxyprogesterone

78
Q

Type I is an autosomal dominant disorder

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

79
Q

Type 1 osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Type I - autosomal dominant, associated with recurrent fractures, blue sclera, otosclerosis leading to conduction deafness. Normal life span

80
Q

Type 2 osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Type II - variable inheritance with a 3% recurrence risk - causes perinatal death with multiple fractures at birth

Genetic defect in collagen metabolism

81
Q

Congenital adernal hyperplasia may present with

A

neonatal vomiting and salt loss

Autosomal recessive
95% due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency
Incidence 1:17,000 (UK), 1:500 Yupik Eskimos

82
Q

A 34 year old woman attends the antenatal clinic at 10 weeks gestation. She suffered heavy bleeding following a tooth extraction 10 years ago. Her mother and maternal grand-father also have the same disorder.

What is the inheritance pattern

A

autosomal dominant

83
Q

A 34 year old woman attends the antenatal clinic at 10 weeks gestation. She is concerned about her 1 year old son having fractures caused by insignificant trauma. The child also has blue sclera

what is the inheritance pattern

A

autosomal dominant

84
Q

A 23 year old individual suffers haemolytic crises if they are treated with sulphonamides or have an infection. At other times the individual is completely health

what condition
what inheritance
what sex is the patient

A

G6PD deficiency
x linked recessive
male

85
Q

Becker Musclar dystrophy

inheritance
in absence of family hx what % mothers are carriers

A

X linked recessive

66% maternal carries if no FH

86
Q

what phase of mitosis do chromatids separate

A

anaphase

87
Q

Presence of HbS, but with a higher proportion of HbA than HbS

can be which conditions

A

Sickle cell traise HbAS or sickle alpha thalassaemia

88
Q

Presence of HbS and HbF, but no HbA:

can be which conditions

A

Sickle cell anemia (HbSS), sickle beta 0 -thalassemia (hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin [HPFH]), or sickle–HPFH

89
Q

Overall higher proportion of HbS than HbA and HbF

A

Sickle beta + -thalassemia (most likely)

90
Q

Presence of HbC, but with a higher proportion of HbA than HbC:

A

HbC trait (HbAC)

91
Q

Presence of HbC and HbF, but no HbA:

A

HbC disease (HbCC), HbC –beta 0 -thalassemia (HbC-HPFH)

92
Q

Presence of HbS and HbC:

A

HbSC disease

93
Q

Increased HbA 2:

A

Beta-thalassemia mino

94
Q

PKU

inheritance pattern

A

autosomal recessive

95
Q

how many telomers are there in metaphase of mitosis

A

92

96
Q

in What organ does the Urea cycle occurs

A

liver

97
Q

In a chromosome, the ratio of DNA to histones on a weight basis is

A

1:1

98
Q

when is a cell tetraploid

A

G2

99
Q

What one is not an essential amino acid

A

Arginine

100
Q

What are essential amino acids

A

Histidine, Leucine, Isoleucine,
Lysine, Methionine, Phenylalanine, Threonine, Tryptophan, Valine

101
Q

1 turn of the urea cycle consumes what

A

consumes 2 molecules of ammonia
consumes 1 molecule of carbon dioxide
creates 1 molecule of urea ((NH2)
2CO regenerates a molecule of ornithine for another turn

102
Q

Protein responsible for DNA coiling

A

Histone

103
Q
A

revision (14 decks)

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