5th deck Flashcards
1
Q
products of krebs cycle
A
2 carbon
3 NADH
1 FADH
1 ATP
2
Q
How much acetyl co A does each glucose molecule produce
A
2
(enough for 2 cycles)
3
Q
How many molecules of ATP does the krebs cycle produce
A
2
4
Q
how many carbons does testosterone have
A
19
5
Q
glucocorticoid and progesterone receptor antagonist
A
mifepristone
6
Q
boarders femoral triangle
lateral
medial
superior
floor
A
lateral - satorius
medial - add longus
superior - inguinal canal
floor illiopsoas and pectineus
7
Q
When are twins made
DCDA
A
day 3
8
Q
when are twins made
MCMA
A
day 8-13
9
Q
MCMA twins - when
A
9-12 day
10
Q
conjoined twins - when
A
> day 12
11
Q
non ergot dopamine d2 antagonist - breast milk suppressor
A
Quinagolide
12
Q
Prostaglandin E2 analogue
A
Dinoprostone - has CYCLOPENTONE GROUP
Proston
13
Q
natural prostaglandin F2 alpha
A
dinoprost
14
Q
Antimetabolite of folic acid
A
methotrexate
15
Q
inhibits intracellular microtubule formation
A
vincristine
16
Q
selective oestrogen receptor modulator x2
A
tamoxifen
clomiphene
17
Q
gram positive coccus
A
streptococcus
18
Q
gram neg anaerobic flagellated rod bacilli
A
Salmonella - enteribacteriacaea
19
Q
gram negative - aerobic cocci, intracellular diplococci
A
n gonorrhoea
20
Q
gram positive bacilli obligate anaerobe associated with coil
A
actinimyces
tx penicillin
21
Q
1st pharyngeal arch
- muscles
- bone
- nerve
- artery
A
muscles - muscles of mastication
bone - mandible and maxilla
trigeminal nerve V2/V3
external carotid artery and maxillary artery
22
Q
calculate specificity
A
TN/TN+FP
23
Q
calculate Positive predictive value
A
TP / all positive (TP + FP)
24
Q
calculate negative likelihood ratio
A
(1- sensitivity) divided by specificity
(1- TP/TP+FN) / TN/ TN+ FP
25
calculate negative predictive value
TN / (FN + TN)
26
Blocks T cell activation
Tacrolimus
27
Inhibits DHPS (dihydropteroatr synthase)
causes neonatal kernixterus
sulphonamides (sulphalazine)
28
inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
trimethoprim
29
synthetic prostaglandin F2 alpha
carboprost
30
MOA metronidazole
damages bacteria DNA
31
MOA cyclizine
H1 antagonist
32
prevent generation of cytotoxic generalised anti-inflammatory response
corticosteroids
33
MOA Ergotmetrine
contraindication
adrenergic and dopaminergic, 5 HT2 receptor agonist
contradiction - asthma HTN
34
gram neg pleomorphic coccobacili
anaerobic
Haemophilus
35
gram neg spirichaete aerophilic
syphilis - treponema pallidum
36
stats test - continuous normally distributed
students t test
37
stats test continuous NOT normally distributed
- paired
- unpaired
Dichotomous
paired - willcox
non-paired - mann whitney
dichotomous - chi squared
38
RNA virus single strand x8
Hep A C D E
Rubella
Zika
ebola
HIV
39
RNA virus - double stranded
Rotavirus
40
iodophors 7.5-10%
cover for Virus/funghi
cover TB
Endospores
use
excellent - gram positive/neg
good - virus/funghi
poor - endospores
can be a surgical scrub and used on mucus membranes
moderate impacted by organic matter
41
Chlorhexidine 2-4%
cover - gram, virus. tb, funghi, endospore
uses -
excellent - gram +/ virus
ok - gram neg
poor tb/funghi
no coverage - endospored
can by used surgical scrub and skin,
can be used on mucus membranes
42
Alcohol skin prep
cover - gram +/-, tb, virus, funghi, endospores
uses
Excellent - gram pos and neg, TB, virus. funghi
no cover endospores
DO NOT USE MUCUS MEMBRANES
ok for surgical and skin prep
43
Iodine 3% prep
cover gram +/-ve, TB, virus, funghi, endospores.
uses
excellent gram pos and neg, TB and virus
good - funghi
fair - endospores
NOT SURGICAL SCRUB OR MUCUS MEMBRANE
44
where are sulphonamides
- metabolised
- excreted
- complication
metabolised by liver
excreted renal
complication - neonatal knernicterus, Steven-Johnson Syndrome
45
MOA - macrolides (erythromycin)
excretion
Inhibit bacterial protein synthesis
50s subunit
46
MOA Aminoglycosides - Gentamycin, Tobramycin / streptomycin
complications
inhibit bacterial protein synthesis
oto/nephrotoxic
do not cross blood brain barrier
47
MOA Glycopeptides - vancomycin / teicoplanjn
coverage
inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
gram pos only
not absorbed GI tract
tx for c.diff
ototoxic nephrotoxic redman syndrome
48
Which bacteria typically cause toxic shock syndrome
staph aureus gram +ve
49
Test results in a pregnant woman with tertiary syphilis
VDRL test negative and fluorescent treponemal antibody tests positive
50
Test results in a pregnant woman with secondary syphilis
Secondary : VDRL and FTA-Abs (+ve)
51
Glycopeptide antibiotics (vancomycin) are not absorped where
GI tract
MOA inhibi bacterial cell wall
52
Tetracycline abx are effective against what
mycoplasma
53
Which organism has a single flagellum?
cholera
54
Hep D
transmitted maternal to fetal
only affects people with Hep B
single stranded RNA
55
varicella zoster is
a terratogenic virus
56
HPV is what type of virus
DNA
57
16 weeks pregnant infectioned with chicken pox, what are the chances of developing congenital varicella syndrome
1%
58
A non-terratogenic virus that is recognised to cause fetal anaemia
Parvovirus B19
also caues fetal hydrops
59
Organism that causes hospital-acquired infections (x2)
Staphylococcus, aerobic, Gram +ve
Pseudomonas aerobic gram -ve
60
The risk of vertical transmission of HIV in untreated non-breastfeeding women in Europe is
15-20%
61
Side effects of TB drugs
Rifampicin
side effects - hypersensitivity, hepatitis, orange urine, sweat, saliva
62
SE isoniazide
Neuropathy, hepatitis
63
SE Ethambutol
optic neuritis, peripheral neuropathy
64
Pytazinamide side effects
arthralgia, hepatitits
65
Where is metronidazole exrected, what is it effective against
kidneys
anaerobes and protozoa
66
Incubation parvovirus
4-14 days
67
organism that causes early onset neonatal infection
AEROBIC gram +ve Streptococcus
68
LYMPHOGRANULOMA VENEREUM cause
chlamydia
69
MOA lamivudine
Nucleoside / nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor
70
MOA nevirapine
non nuclear reverse transcriptase inhibitor
71
MOA lopinavir
protease inhibitor
72
MOA ritonavir
booster drug
73
psuedomonas on maccokney agar colour
clear
74
type of toxin responsible for staphlococcal food poisoning
enterotoxin
heat labile, targes intestines, cytotoxic,
75
WHat structure on HIV enables it to enter host cells
glycoprotein
76
Flu vaccine is what type of vaccine
killed vaccine
77
The concentration of this metabolite is raised in the amniotic fluid of fetuses with congenital adrenal hyperplasia
17 ALPHA hydroxyprogesterone
78
Type I is an autosomal dominant disorder
osteogenesis imperfecta
79
Type 1 osteogenesis imperfecta
Type I - autosomal dominant, associated with recurrent fractures, blue sclera, otosclerosis leading to conduction deafness. Normal life span
80
Type 2 osteogenesis imperfecta
Type II - variable inheritance with a 3% recurrence risk - causes perinatal death with multiple fractures at birth
Genetic defect in collagen metabolism
81
Congenital adernal hyperplasia may present with
neonatal vomiting and salt loss
Autosomal recessive
95% due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency
Incidence 1:17,000 (UK), 1:500 Yupik Eskimos
82
A 34 year old woman attends the antenatal clinic at 10 weeks gestation. She suffered heavy bleeding following a tooth extraction 10 years ago. Her mother and maternal grand-father also have the same disorder.
What is the inheritance pattern
autosomal dominant
83
A 34 year old woman attends the antenatal clinic at 10 weeks gestation. She is concerned about her 1 year old son having fractures caused by insignificant trauma. The child also has blue sclera
what is the inheritance pattern
autosomal dominant
84
A 23 year old individual suffers haemolytic crises if they are treated with sulphonamides or have an infection. At other times the individual is completely health
what condition
what inheritance
what sex is the patient
G6PD deficiency
x linked recessive
male
85
Becker Musclar dystrophy
inheritance
in absence of family hx what % mothers are carriers
X linked recessive
66% maternal carries if no FH
86
what phase of mitosis do chromatids separate
anaphase
87
Presence of HbS, but with a higher proportion of HbA than HbS
can be which conditions
Sickle cell traise HbAS or sickle alpha thalassaemia
88
Presence of HbS and HbF, but no HbA:
can be which conditions
Sickle cell anemia (HbSS), sickle beta 0 -thalassemia (hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin [HPFH]), or sickle–HPFH
89
Overall higher proportion of HbS than HbA and HbF
Sickle beta + -thalassemia (most likely)
90
Presence of HbC, but with a higher proportion of HbA than HbC:
HbC trait (HbAC)
91
Presence of HbC and HbF, but no HbA:
HbC disease (HbCC), HbC –beta 0 -thalassemia (HbC-HPFH)
92
Presence of HbS and HbC:
HbSC disease
93
Increased HbA 2:
Beta-thalassemia mino
94
PKU
inheritance pattern
autosomal recessive
95
how many telomers are there in metaphase of mitosis
92
96
in What organ does the Urea cycle occurs
liver
97
In a chromosome, the ratio of DNA to histones on a weight basis is
1:1
98
when is a cell tetraploid
G2
99
What one is not an essential amino acid
Arginine
100
What are essential amino acids
Histidine, Leucine, Isoleucine,
Lysine, Methionine, Phenylalanine, Threonine, Tryptophan, Valine
101
1 turn of the urea cycle consumes what
consumes 2 molecules of ammonia
consumes 1 molecule of carbon dioxide
creates 1 molecule of urea ((NH2)
2CO regenerates a molecule of ornithine for another turn
102
Protein responsible for DNA coiling
Histone
103
