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last minute panic Flashcards

1
Q

Pituitary cells producing growth hormone

A Somatotroph, acidophil B Somatotroph, basophil
C Lactotroph, acidophil
D Lactotroph, basophil
E Corticotroph, acidophil

A

Somatotroph, acidophil

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2
Q

Which one is not a recognized inhibitor of thyroid stimulating hormone production?

A Thyroxine
B Growth hormone
C Cortisol
D Prolactin
E Dopamine

A

Prolactin

remember that hypothyroidism is a cause of raised prolactin

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3
Q

Growth hormone release is stimulated by

A Trauma and haemorrhage only
B Trauma, haemorrhage and exercise only
C Trauma, haemorrhage, exercise and pain only
D Trauma, haemorrhage, exercise, pain and cold
E Exercise, pain and cold only

A

Trauma, haemorrhage, exercise, pain, cold

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4
Q

Increases urinary excretion of phosphate

A Calcitonin
B Oestradiol
C Oxytocin
D Parathyroid hormone
E Prolactin

A

parathyroid hormone

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5
Q

In pregnancy, red blood cell concentration of 2,3 diphosphoglycerate increases by what

A increased in 10%
B increased by 30%
C increased by 80%
D decreased by 10%
E decreased by 30%

A

increased 30%

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5
Q

Change in colloid osmotic pressure during pregnancy compared to pre-pregnancy

A 10% increase
B 25% increase
C 10% decrease
D 25% decrease
E 50% decrease

A

10% decrease

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5
Q

A 23 year old woman attends the antenatal clinic with her 27 year old partner. He has a neuromuscular disorder characterised by distal muscle weakness. He is also sub-fertile and the pregnancy was conceived by IVF. He has frontal balding.

A Autosomal recessive
B X-linked recessive
C Autosomal dominant
D X-linked dominant
E Not inherited

A

Mytonic dystrophy AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT

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6
Q

Which one is not characteristic of Von Willebrand disease?

A Can be autosomal dominant
B Can be autosomal recessive
C Males affected but females can only be carriers D Associated with a quantitative defect in von Willebrand factor
E Associated with a qualitative defect in von Willebrand factor

A

Males affected but females can only be carriers

VWF is AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT

can be a qualitiative or quantitative defect in vWF

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7
Q

A 21-year-old pregnant woman is found to have an Hb of 102 g/L on a routine blood test, with an MCV of 80fl. Serum electrophoresis reveals an Hb F of 5%, Hb A1 of 80%, Hb A2 of 15% and Hb S of 0%. Her ferritin levels are normal. The most likely diagnosis is:

A Sickle cell trait
B Sickle cell disease
C Beta thalassaemia minor D Alpha thalassaemia
E Beta thalassaemia major

A

Betal thalassaemia minor

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8
Q

Which vulval disorder is classified into classical, hypertrophic and erosive sub-types?

A Lichen sclerosus
B Lichen planus
C Paget’s disease of the vulva
D Vulval intra-epithelial neoplasia
E Vulval adenosis

A

lichen planus

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9
Q

Lichen planus

A Is associated with antibodies to extracellular matrix protein-1
B Is associated with anti-basement membrane antibodies
C Does not affect the mucous membranes
D Typically presents with white porcelain-like skin
E Is usually caused by a fungal infection

A

is associated with anti-basement membrane antibodies

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10
Q

Which type of electrosurgical circuit is safest in theatres?

A Grounded
B Patient attached to pad
C Isolation
D Patient in parallel
E Patient in series

A

A Grounded

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11
Q

Monopolar diathermy cause coagulation effect with sparkling to stop bleeding from vessels by which of the following processes?

Desiccation	 B	Vaporisation C	Fulguration	 D	Endothelial activation E	Precipitation of calcium ions
A

FLuguration

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12
Q

The pudendal cleft is the area between

A The labia majora and the labia minora
B The buttocks
C The two labia majora
D The labia majora and the thigh
E The urethra and the vagina

A

labia majora

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13
Q

Lie(s) at the superior border of the ovarian fossa

A External iliac artery and vein
B Obturator nerve
C Internal iliac artery and vein
D Sacral plexus
E Femoral nerve

A

A External iliac artery and vein

The ovarian fossa is boardered
superiorly by Extertnal iliac
Inferirorly by ureter and internal iliac
and obturator crosses the floor

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14
Q

Which nerve DIRECTLY supplied the external anal sphincter?

A Pudendal nerve
B Superior anal nerve
C Inferior anal nerve
D Obturator nerve
E Deep perineal nerve

A

Inferior rectal nerve

branch of the internal pudendal

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15
Q

In which anatomical space is the external uretheral sphincter located

A Superficial perineal pouch B Deep perineal pouch
C Ischiorectal fossa
D Superficial inguinal space
E Deep inguinal space

A

Deep perineal pouch

1) The sphincter urethrae and the deep transverse perineal muscle
2) Part of the vagina
3) Part of the urethra
4) Internal pudendal vessels
5) Dorsal nerve of the clitoris

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16
Q

Which cells secrete parathyroid hormone?

A Oxyntic cells
B Follicular cells
C Chief cells
D Interstitial cells
E Medullary cells

A

chief cells

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17
Q

Parathyroid hormone is produced by

A The parafollicular cells of the parathyroid gland
B The parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland
C The oxyntic cells of the parathyroid gland
D The chief cells of the parathyroid gland
E The acidophil cells of the parathyroid gland

A

the chief cells of the parathyroid

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18
Q

Which hormone is produced by the posterior pituitary gland?

A Leutenising hormone
B Oxytocin
C Prolactin
D Renin
E GnRH

A

OXYTOCIN

19
Q

A 19-year-old woman gives birth to her first child and continues to breast feed for 12 months. Which of the following cellular processes that occurred in the breast during pregnancy allowed her to nurse the infant for this period of time?

A Stromal hypertrophy
B Epithelial dysplasia
C Ductal dilation
D Lobular hyperplasia
E Stromal aplasia

A

LOBULR HYPERPLASIA

20
Q

The ligamentum arteriosum arises from which structure?

A Ductus arteriosus
B 4th pharyngeal arch
C 6th Pharyngeal arch
D Sinus venousus
E Ductus venosus

A

DUCTUS ARTERIOSUS

AND 6TH AORTIC ARCH

21
Q

The synthesis of DNA from RNA occurs in

A

RNA viruses only

22
Q

A condition where the uterus is bulky and endometrial glands are in myometrium

A Leiomyoma
B Endometriosis
C Choriocarcinoma
D Adenomyosis
E Endometriod carcinoma

A

Andenomyosis

23
Q

Which one is NOT a recognized risk factor for endometrial cancer?

A Tamoxifen therapy
B Early menarche
C Late menopause
D Use of ovulation induction drugs
E Sequential combined hormone replacement therapy

A

use of ovulation induction drugs

24
Q

A histological diagnosis of endometriosis is made by the identification of

A Endometrial epithelial cells from biopsy of non-uterine tissue
B Endometrial stromal cells from biopsy of non-uterine tissue
C Endometrial stromal and epithelial cells from biopsy of non-uterine tissue
D Haemosiderin-laden macrophages
E Ferritin-laden macrophages

A

haemosiderin laden macrophages

25
Q

A diagnosis of adenomyosis is typically made

A Following histological examination of endometrial currettings
B Following trans-vaginal ultrasound scan
C At diagnostic laparoscopy D Following histological examination of peritoneal biopsies
E By MRI scanning

A

by MRI

26
Q

The average age at diagnosis of uterine leiomyosarcoma is

A

51

27
Q

An amniotic fluid embolism (AFE) is a rare, lethal syndrome that is commonly associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Anticoagulation therapy is the most important strategy to inhibit excessive activation of the coagulation cascade in patients with AFE and DIC. We report a case of AFE complicated by DIC successfully treated with rivaroxaban. What is the level of evidence?

A

level 3

28
Q

Which one is not a recognised mechanism of action of antibiotics?

A

inhibition of mitochondrial function

29
Q

Iodophores used for surgical disinfection

A Are aqueous solutions of iodine
B Have no activity against endospores
C Have no activity against Mycobacterium tuberculosis D Have no activity against fungi
E Activity is unaffected by organic matter

A

have no action endospores.

30
Q

The mechanism of action of trimethoprim

A Inhibits bacterial RNA synthesis
B Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis
C Inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis
D Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis
E Inhibits peptide bond formation

A

inhibits DNA

31
Q

25 year old woman with secondary infertility presents for further investigations. She has a history of 2 previous Chlamydia infections. Which one of the above tests for tubal patency would be most suitable?

A Ultrasound scan B Hysterosalpingogram (HSG)
C Open laparatomy
D Laparoscopy and dye hydrotubation
E Hysteroscopy

A

lap and dye as you can treat

32
Q

A 25 year old man with his 35 year old wife attend because they have been trying unsuccessfully for a pregnancy for 5 years. Which one of the above investigations is matched to the correct clinical indicator

A Hystero-salpingogram – indicator of tubal function
B FSH on day 3 of a 28 day cycle – indication of ovulation
C Serum testosterone – indicator of chromosomal anomaly
D Progesterone level on day 21 of a 28 day cycle – indicator of ovulation
E Oestrogen level on day 21 of a 28 day cycle – indicator of ovulation

A

Progesterone on day 21 of 28

progesterone is used for biological indicator of ovulation

33
Q

According to FIGO, infrequent menstruation refers to menstrual cycles lasting longer than

A

38 days

34
Q

Anti-Mullerian hormone is

A an anti-androgen
B produced by granulosa cells during reproductive life
C related to beta-HCG
D a decapeptide
E produced by the corpus luteum

A

produced by granulosa cells during reproductive life

35
Q

A 17 year old woman presents with a history of primary amenorrhoea and bilateral inguinal hernias in childhood. She has normal breast development but scant pubic and axillary hair. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Turner syndrome
B Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
C Androgen insensitivity syndrome
D Kallman syndrome
E Mayer-Rokitanski syndrome

A

Androgen insenstivity syndrome

INGUINAL HERNIAS, normal breasts, scant pubic/axillary hair.

36
Q

Ovarian reserve is a term that is used to determine the capacity of the ovary to provide egg cells that are capable of fertilization. Determination of ovarian reserve is important in the treatment of infertility. At what point in the menstrual cycle should total antral follicular count be determined?

A

day 3

37
Q

Ovarian reserve is a term that is used to determine the capacity of the ovary to provide egg cells that are capable of fertilization. Determination of ovarian reserve is important in the treatment of infertility. At what point in the menstrual cycle should serum anti-Mullerian hormone levels be measured?

A Day 2-5 B Day 5-7
C Day 8-12 D Day 21
E At any point

A

E At any point

38
Q

Pubertal development is dependent on the hormonal environment. Which one is the earliest evidence of puberty in girls?

A

Tanner stage 2 breast development

39
Q

Which one of the above infections is linked to appropriate treatment?

A Bacterial vaginosis – fluconazole
B Chlamydia in a woman who is 10 weeks pregnant – doxycycline
C Genital herpes – oral aciclovir
D Syphilis in a woman with penicillin allergy – erythromycin
E Acute pelvic inflammatory disease - doxycycline

A

Genital herpes ACICLOVIR

40
Q

he sensitivity of microscopy in diagnosing endocervical infection with Neisseria gonorrhoea when compared with culture

A 10% B 15-20%
C 30-50% D 70-80%
E 90-98%

A

30-50%

41
Q

The most appropriate treatment for gonorrhea during pregnancy

A Cefalexine or azithromycin
B Azithromycin or ceftriaxone
C Ampicillin plus metronidazole
D Spectinomycin or cephalexin
E Ciprofloxacin or azithromycin

A

Azitthroymicin + cefriaxone

42
Q

Which one of the above IS a recognised complication of medical termination of pregnancy?

A Increased risk of infertility
B Increased risk of ectopic pregnancy
C Retained products of conception
D 10% failure rate
E Increased risk of breast cancer

A

RPOC

43
Q

One thousand women have started using combined hormonal contraceptive pill. With perfect use, how many unwanted pregnancies will there be in this group of women in one year?

A

3

44
Q

Combined hormonal contraceptives are contraindicated (UKMEC 3 or 4) in women with

A SLE
B Anti-phospholipid antibodies
C Asymptomatic gall stones
D Inflammatory bowel disease
E Diabetes mellitus

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome

45
Q

Following vasectomy, semen analysis to confirm sterility should be undertaken after

A

12 weeks

46
Q

ombined oral contraceptive pills are safe to use following evacuation of a complete hydatidiform mole at what stage?

A Once HCG levels are falling
B Once HCG is undetectable
C After 6 weeks
D Once vaginal bleeding has stopped
E Immediately after evacuation

RTFQ

A

Immediately after evac

revision (14 decks)

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