Quiz 1 - Practice questions Flashcards

1
Q

Why should the registered nurse practicing nursing at the bedside be concerned about research for the delivery of quality nursing care?

A. Research provides the nurse with knowledge needed to make sound clinical decisions.

B. One study can change nursing practice dramatically.

C. The Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations requires all nurses to be consumers of research.

D. Traditional nursing care is no longer appropriate for twenty-first century nursing.

A

A. Clinical decisions should be based on knowledge about patient outcomes, not just tradition. Practice should never change on the basis of just one study. The Joint Commission regulates health care settings, not the practice of nursing. Much of “traditional” practice has been found to lead to positive patient outcomes

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2
Q

Why should the average consumer of health care be concerned about nursing research?

A. Research provides evidence that nursing care makes a difference.

B. The nursing profession needs to define its place in the health care system.

C. Accrediting agencies must determine how best to use the technology needed to provide nursing care.

D. Nurses must justify the cost of their services for reimbursement purposes.

A

A. Nursing is accountable to consumers when they can demonstrate the safety and effectiveness of nursing care. Options B and C focus on the nursing profession, not the consumer, and therefore do not answer the question. Nursing research builds knowledge about effective nursing interventions, as well as the cost-effectiveness of nursing care.

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3
Q

The nurse in an intensive care unit is engaged in nursing practice that is evidence based. The nurse recognizes which sequence of steps that will culminate in evidence-based practice?

A. Evaluate, act, appraise and assess, gather, and ask

B. Appraise and assess, act, ask, gather, and evaluate

C. Ask, gather, assess and appraise, act, and evaluate

D. Gather, ask, evaluate, act, appraise and assess

A

C. The correct sequence of steps involved in the process of evidence-based practice consists of ask, gather, assess and appraise, act, and evaluate.

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4
Q

To be important to nursing practice, nursing theory must be supported by what?

A. Educational environment

B. Nursing research

C. Patient outcomes

D. Expansive body of science

A

B. Although nursing research cannot prove or disprove a theory, it can support the theory. Nursing theory arises from clinical practice and has been developed by both practitioners and educators. Because theory cannot be tested directly, patient outcomes cannot directly support theory. Theory is part of an expansive body of science.

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5
Q

A nurse researcher is searching for the purpose of a study in a research report. Where is the most likely place to find the purpose in the report?

A. At the end of the research design section

B. At the end of the literature review section

C. At the end of the sampling section

D. At the end of the conclusion section

A

B. The purpose of a study is usually located at the end of the researcher’s introduction or at the end of the literature review or conceptual framework section. The purpose of a study is usually not located in the research design section, sampling section, or conclusion section.

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6
Q

The best way to determine that a research study met ethical standards is by locating information showing what?

A. The reliability and validity of each measure were discussed.

B. The data analysis procedures are thoroughly discussed.

C. The study was approved by an institutional review board.

D. The sampling techniques used were discussed.

A

C. Approval of the study by an institutional review board ensures that the study met ethical standards. Although discussion of the reliability and validity of instruments, the procedures used for data analysis, and the sampling techniques used is important, it does not indicate that the study met ethical standards.

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7
Q

The nurse researcher wants to summarize several studies that focus on early detection of ovarian cancer. The nurse intends to use specific statistical methods that will allow conclusions to be drawn by the focus area. In this case, the best systematic review to choose would be what?

A. Meta-analysis

B. Integrative review

C. Meta-synthesis

D. Meta-summary

A

A. A meta-analysis summarizes a number of studies focused on a topic using a specific statistical methodology to synthesize the findings in order to draw conclusions about the area of focus. An integrative review is a focused review and synthesis of either research or theoretical literature on a particular area that follows specific steps of literature integration and synthesis without statistical analysis and can include both quantitative and qualitative articles. A meta-synthesis is the synthesis of a number of qualitative research studies on a focused topic using specific qualitative methodology. A meta-summary is the synthesis of a number of qualitative research studies on a focused topic using specific qualitative methodology.

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8
Q

How does a researcher critically read for preliminary understanding?

A. Through copious note taking

B. Through skimming

C. Through repeated reading sessions

D. Through reading aloud

A

B. Preliminary understanding is gained through skimming the material. Preliminary understanding is not gained through copious note taking, repeated reading sessions, or reading aloud.

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9
Q

For which research question would qualitative methods be most appropriate?

A. Which pain medications decrease the need for sleep medication in elderly patients?

B. What is the meaning of health for migrant farm-worker women?

C. Under what conditions does a decubitus ulcer heal most quickly?

D. How does frequency of medication administration affect the degree of pain experienced following knee replacement surgery?

A

B. Option B seeks to explore a phenomenon (health) for a specific population. Option A seeks to understand a cause-and-effect interaction between the use of pain medication and the need for sleep medication, making it a quantitative study. Option C seeks to discover a cause-and-effect interaction between treatment and speed of healing, making it a quantitative study. Option D seeks to discover a cause-and-effect interaction between medication administration and the degree of pain experienced, making it a quantitative study.

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10
Q

The nurse is attempting to locate the legal-ethical issues of a qualitative research study. The best place for the nurse to look for this in the study is where?

A. Discussion section

B. Procedure section

C. Design section

D. Sample section

A

B. The legal-ethical issues of a study are usually included in the procedure section of the report.

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11
Q

The best strategy for a nurse researcher to use in order to read a research study critically is to do what?

A. Read the study through once very thoroughly B. Use a research text to clarify unfamiliar terms C. Underline the study’s findings

D. Use the abstract to select the parts of the study needing closer perusal

A

B. A research text is an excellent resource for clarifying unfamiliar terms. Multiple readings are necessary for a critical understanding of the study. Although underlining critical components of the study may be useful, the study’s findings are easily located in one section of the report. The abstract can provide only a general overview. The entire report should be scanned before closer scrutiny of specific parts.

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12
Q

For a nurse to use research appropriately, he or she must do what?

A. Examine a research study and follow the researcher’s recommendations.

B. Read many studies in the same content area and follow the recommendations of the studies with similar findings.

C. Explore the strength of the evidence available.

D. Replicate studies in their own settings to make sure recommendations are contextually appropriate.

A

C. It is important to determine all evidence available and the strength of the evidence before changing practice. Practice decisions should never be made on the basis of one study alone. Studies in the same content area may not represent the best knowledge in the area. Nurses do not need to replicate studies before making practice decisions.

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13
Q

A nurse reads a research article and asks other graduate students to study the same article using the same criteria. The nurse is most likely using which stage of the critical reading process?

A. Preliminary understanding

B. Comprehensive understanding

C. Analysis understanding

D. Synthesis understanding

A

C. Analysis understanding occurs when the nurse asks fellow students to analyze the same study using the same criteria and compares results. Preliminary understanding includes strategies such as listing key variables and highlighting new terms. Comprehensive understanding includes identifying the main theme of the article. Synthesis understanding includes summarizing each research step in your own words using critiquing criteria.

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14
Q

What can a nurse researcher determine by reading the abstract, introduction, major headings, and conclusions of a study?

A. Relevance of the study to nursing practice

B. Appropriateness of methods used

C. Need for further study

D. Study’s main theme

A

D. The main theme of the study can usually be determined by reading these major parts of the report. The relevance of the study can be found in the introduction and background of the report. The methods should flow from the scientific background and research question. The need for further study is identified by the body of evidence available in the area and the findings of the study.

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15
Q

How can a nurse researcher achieve a comprehensive understanding of any research report?

A. Skim the entire report for a general overview.

B. Study the abstract to learn the main components of the study.

C. Seek assistance for unclear content.

D. Review the conclusion to link the content with the research question.

A

C. To understand a study comprehensively, it is important to clarify all areas of content that are not clear. Skimming the report leads to an overall understanding only. The abstract can provide only an overview of the study. All parts of the research process need to be understood.

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16
Q

What is an accurate description of a critique?

A. It requires some knowledge of the subject matter.

B. It is the process of creating standards used to judge an article.

C. It is an executive summary of a study.

D. It is conducted for the purpose of explaining the link between theory and application.

A

A. A critique requires knowledge of the subject matter and knowledge of how to read an article critically. A critique requires the use of previously set critiquing criteria and standards. An executive summary is a detailed summary of a large amount of data. A critique is conducted for the purpose of objectively evaluating all aspects of a research report.

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17
Q

What must a nurse researcher do before beginning to analyze a study?

A. Synthesize the material

B. Comprehensively understand the study

C. Apply recommendations to practice

D. Read other similar studies

A

B. Comprehensive understanding is necessary to analyze and synthesize the material. Synthesis of the material cannot occur until after the study is analyzed. Application of the material should not occur until after the study is analyzed and synthesized. It is not necessary to read other studies to analyze a new study.

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18
Q

What is the most accurate term for making patient-care decisions on the basis of research findings?

A. Critical reflection

B. Evidence-based practice

C. Applied research

D. Research implications

A

B. Evidence-based practice means making patient-care decisions on the basis of available evidence. Critical reflection is the process of thinking critically. Applied research tests the practical limits of descriptive theories but does not examine the efficacy of actions taken by practitioners. Research implications are the future actions suggested by the study findings.

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19
Q

When does the strength of the scientific evidence available influence changes in nursing practice?

A. Studies in the area have used quantitative methodology.

B. All studies in the content area show similar results.

C. Each study uses small, highly controlled samples of subjects.

D. Selective bias is built into the research design.

A

B. Replicating studies and obtaining similar findings increase the validity of the findings. Qualitative studies can provide evidence that changes practice. Although controlling confounding variables improves the reliability of data, generalizability can be enhanced by the use of larger, more representative samples. Bias decreases the strength of the evidence

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20
Q

An experimental study in which subjects were randomly selected is an example of what level of study?

A. Level II

B. Level IV

C. Level VI

D. Level VII

A

A. Experimental studies yield Level II data. Nonexperimental studies yield Level IV data. A single descriptive or qualitative study yields Level VI data. The opinions of authorities or experts yield Level VII data.

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21
Q

Which phrase would be found in a report of a qualitative study?

A. “The hypothesis of this study is ______.”

B. “Perceived pain was measured using the Abbott pain scale.”

C. “The control group received no instruction.”

D. “Subjects were asked to relate their perceptions of pain.”

A

D. Data collected were perceptions of pain, not numeric data. A study with a hypothesis is a quantitative study. A study that collects numeric data is a quantitative study. A study with a control group is a quantitative study.

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22
Q

Which phrase would be found in a report of a quantitative study?

A. “A convenience sample was chosen.”

B. “The phenomenon studied was _____.”

C. “Data were analyzed and interpreted.”

D. “Researchers sought to explore the meaning of the hospital experience.”

A

A. When a sample of convenience is chosen, the study is a quantitative study. Qualitative studies explore phenomena. Data collected in qualitative studies are “interpreted.” Qualitative studies explore the meaning of human experience.

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23
Q

Which study title indicates use of qualitative methodology?

A. Comparison of Nursing Assessment Techniques in Hospitals and Home Care Settings

B. The Relationship between Numbers of Errors Made and Educational Preparation

C. The Effectiveness of Patient Teaching Pre- and Postoperatively

D. The Experience of Mother-Child Bonding in Inner-City Populations

A

D. Qualitative studies explore the meaning of human experience. Quantitative studies seek differences among variables. Quantitative studies collect numeric variables and test relationships. Quantitative studies seek to explain cause-and-effect interactions.

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24
Q

The nurse is critically reading a research study and writes cues, the relationships of concepts, and questions on a photocopy version of the study. This would most likely be included in which step of the critical reading process?

A. Preliminary understanding

B. Comprehensive understanding

C. Analysis understanding

D. Synthesis understanding

A

C. Analysis understanding consists of writing cues, the relationships of concepts, and questions on a photocopy version of the study. Preliminary understanding consists of listing key variables and highlighting new terms. Comprehensive understanding consists of identifying the main idea or theme of the article. Synthesis understanding consists of summarizing the report, including strengths and weaknesses, in the nurse’s own words.

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25
Q

The nurse researcher is critically reading a research study and states the main idea of the article in his or her own words. This would most likely be included in which step of the critical reading process?

A. Preliminary understanding

B. Comprehensive understanding

C. Analysis understanding

D. Synthesis understanding

A

B. Comprehensive understanding consists of identifying the main idea or theme of the article. Preliminary understanding consists of listing key variables and highlighting new terms. Analysis understanding consists of writing cues, the relationships of concepts, and questions on a photocopy version of the study. Synthesis understanding consists of summarizing the report, including strengths and weaknesses, in your own words.

26
Q

Which research process steps may be noted in an article’s abstract? (Select all that apply.)

A. Identifying the methods

B. Research question study purpose

C. Literature review

D. Results

E. Conclusion

F. Legal-ethical issues

G. Data collection procedure

A

A., B., D. Identifying the methods, the research question study purpose, and the results may be noted in the abstract.

27
Q

Which hypothesis is indicative of an experimental research design? (Select all that apply.)

A. Frequent irrigation of Foley catheters will be positively related to urinary tract infections.

B. The incidence of urinary tract infections will be greater in patients whose Foley catheters are irrigated frequently than in those whose Foley catheters are irrigated less frequently.

C. Frequent irrigation of Foley catheters is associated with urinary tract infections.

D. The incidence of urinary tract infections will not differ between patients with or without Foley catheters.

A

B., D. These hypotheses reflect associative relationship statements and are not experimental.

28
Q

The criteria used to judge the soundness of a stated research question include what? (Select all that apply.)

A. A relationship between two or more variables

B. An operational definition of each variable

C. The nature of the population being tested

D. The possibility of empirical testing

A

A., C., D.

The research question must seek to discover a relationship between two or more variables. The research question must include the nature of the population being tested. The research question must include the possibility of empirical testing. Operational definitions are not included in the research question.

29
Q

The criteria used to determine testability of a hypothesis include what? (Select all that apply.)

A. Use of quantifiable words such as greater than or less than

B. A hypothesis stated in such a way that it can be clearly supported or not supported

C. The use of value-laden words in a hypothesis

D. Data collection efforts that prove the validity of the hypothesis

A

A., B. Quantifiable words increase the testability of a hypothesis. The more clearly the hypothesis is stated, the easier it will be to accept or reject it on the basis of study findings. Hypotheses should not have value-laden words. Data collection processes are not part of the criterion used to evaluate the testability of hypotheses.

30
Q

The nurse participating in a research project recognizes that the advantages to using directional hypotheses include what? (Select all that apply.)

A. The indication of the use of a theory base to derive the hypothesis

B. The provision of a specific theoretical frame of reference

C. Assurance that findings will be generalizable

D. The indication of a nonbiased selection of subjects

A

A., B. The use of a theoretical framework to derive a hypothesis adds to an existing body of knowledge and lets the reader know that the phenomena under investigation have been critically considered. The use of a theoretical framework to derive a hypothesis lets the reader know that the phenomena under investigation have been critically evaluated. It is the selection of subjects that makes study findings generalizable, not the type of hypothesis used. The type of hypothesis used does not ensure a nonbiased selection of subjects.

31
Q

The nurse researcher is writing a clinical question. What do elements of such a question include? (Select all that apply.)

A. Population

B. Intervention

C. Outcome

D. Evaluation

A

A., B., C. “Population” is the first element of a clinical question. “Intervention” is the second element of a clinical question. “Outcome” is the third element of a clinical question. “Evaluation” is not considered one of the elements of a clinical question.

32
Q

Which statement about hypotheses is most accurate?

A. Hypotheses represent the main idea to be studied and are the foundations of research studies.

B. Hypotheses help frame a test of the validity of a theory.

C. Hypotheses provide the means to test nursing theory.

D. A hypothesis can also be called a problem statement.

A

B. Although theories cannot be tested directly, hypotheses provide a bridge between theory and the real world. It is the research question that represents the main idea to be studied. Theories cannot be tested directly. The research question is also called the problem statement.

33
Q

A nurse wants to study the effectiveness of meditation for people with anxiety disorder. Which variable would be most relevant to explore in the literature on the topic?

A. Use of meditation during childbirth

B. Meditation techniques found to be effective

C. Pain management for people with anxiety disorders

D. Outcomes of meditation when used by elderly populations

A

B. To design this study, the nurse should know meditation techniques found to be effective. Use of meditation during childbirth is irrelevant to this study. Although pain management would probably be a confounding variable, “pain management for people with anxiety disorders” is not the best answer. Unless the study population consists of elderly individuals, outcomes of meditation when used by elderly populations would not be relevant

34
Q

Which is a characteristic of an independent variable?

A. It is the variable that is predicted to change.

B. It varies with a change in the dependent variable.

C. It is manipulated by the researcher.

D. It can be identified only by changes in the dependent variable

A

C. The independent variable is manipulated by the researcher and has a presumed effect on the dependent variable. It is the dependent variable that is predicted to change. The independent variable is manipulated by the researcher and is identified at the beginning of the study.

35
Q

Which statement is most accurate regarding hypotheses?

A. Hypotheses operationally define the dependent variables.

B. Hypotheses are statements about the relationships among variables.

C. Hypotheses describe the effect of the dependent variable on the independent variable.

D. Hypotheses must include a definition of the treatment or intervention used.

A

B. Hypotheses are statements about the relationships between two or more variables that suggest an answer to the research question. Hypotheses are not concerned with operationally defining the variables involved in the study. The independent variable is not affected or changed by the dependent variable.

36
Q

A research question can be converted into a declarative statement that predicts an expected outcome through the use of what?

A. Hypothesis

B. Variable

C. Theory

D. Operational definition

A

A. A hypothesis converts a research question into a statement that predicts an outcome. A variable is a defined concept of concern in a study. A theory is a set of concepts that present a systematic view of phenomena. An operational definition is the measurement used to observe or measure a variable.

37
Q

What is a characteristic of a hypothesis?

A. It flows from interpretation of the data collected.

B. It operationally defines the variable to be studied.

C. It eliminates the need to designate a dependent variable.

D. It implies a causative or associative relationship.

A

D. A hypothesis implies a causative or associative relationship. A hypothesis guides the research design and collection of data. Operational definitions are not included in the hypothesis. The hypothesis indicates the dependent variable.

38
Q

During the research process, a hypothesis should be developed by the researcher at what point?

A. Before development of the research question

B. After development of the research question

C. After a research design is determined

D. Before any statistical analysis

A

B. The hypothesis must be developed after the research question is developed. The hypothesis must be developed before the research design is determined. The hypothesis must be developed much earlier in the process than before statistical analysis.

39
Q

Which research hypothesis is most testable?

A. There is a relationship between meditation and anxiety disorders.

B. Patients with anxiety disorders who learn meditation techniques have less anxiety than those who do not.

C. Teaching one meditation technique to patients with anxiety disorders will be better than teaching multiple techniques.

D. The ability to meditate causes lower anxiety in patients with anxiety disorder than those who do not meditate.

A

D. “The ability to meditate causes lower anxiety in patients with anxiety disorder than those who do not meditate” is a hypothesis that meets the criteria of testability. “There is a relationship between meditation and anxiety disorders” is not a predictive statement about the relationships between the variables. The “meditation techniques” variable must be specifically defined so that it is observable or measurable. “Better than” is a value-laden phrase that is not objective.

40
Q

What is a characteristic of a directional hypothesis?

A. It specifies the expected relationship between dependent and independent variables.

B. It describes causality of the dependent variable on the independent variable.

C. It is one of several hypotheses arising from a complex research question.

D. It is more objective and impartial than nondirectional hypotheses.

A

A. A directional hypothesis predicts the nature of the relationship between variables. The dependent variable is acted on by the independent variable. Hypotheses arising from a complex research question may or may not be directional. Nondirectional hypotheses tend to be more objective and impartial because the researcher is not biased toward a particular outcome.

41
Q

What is a characteristic of a statistical hypothesis?

A. It is a null hypothesis.

B. It predicts a positive relationship among variables.

C. It is a complex hypothesis.

D. It describes data-analysis methods.

A

A. Statistical hypotheses, called null hypotheses, state that there is no relationship between the independent and dependent variables. Statistical hypotheses are no more complex than other types of hypotheses. Hypotheses do not describe data-analysis methods.

42
Q

When should the nurse researcher reject the null hypothesis?

A. When there is no association among variables

B. When there is evidence of significance

C. When the independent and dependent variables are related

D. When the research hypothesis is rejected

A

C. Because the null hypothesis states that there is no relationship between the independent and dependent variables, it is rejected if they are related. The null hypothesis is accepted if there is no association among variables. The null hypothesis is accepted if there are significant differences in outcomes. If a study has both a research hypothesis and a null hypothesis, the null hypothesis is rejected when the research hypothesis is accepted.

43
Q

The nurse researcher is participating in a quasi-experimental study. Which level is characteristic of the strength of the evidence provided by the results of such a study?

A. Level I

B. Level II

C. Level III

D. Level IV

A

C. Evidence provided by quasi-experimental studies is level III. Level I evidence is obtained from a systematic review of all randomized, controlled trials. Level II evidence is obtained from at least one well-designed randomized, controlled trial. Level IV evidence is obtained from nonexperimental studies.

44
Q

The nurse researcher writes the research question, “What was it like to be diagnosed with breast cancer?” This is considered to be which type of research question?

A. Comparative quantitative

B. Grounded theory qualitative

C. Correlational quantitative

D. Experimental quantitative

A

B. This research question is formatted according to the grounded theory qualitative format. This research question does not have a relationship between a dependent and an independent variable that would be characteristic of a comparative quantitative research question. This research question does not have a relationship between a dependent and an independent variable that would be characteristic of a correlational quantitative research question. This research question does not have a relationship between a dependent and an independent variable that would be characteristic of an experimental quantitative research question.

45
Q

What is the purpose of including a summary of the theoretical and scientific background of a study in a research report

A. To operationalize the variables used in the study

B. To differentiate the purpose of the study and the research question

C. To inform the reader about how the research question was developed

D. To allow the reader to determine the testability of the hypothesis

A

C. The research question should flow from the theoretical and scientific background. The variables are not operationalized in the theoretical or scientific background of the study. The purpose of the study and research questions should flow from the theoretical and scientific background of the study. The testability of the hypothesis cannot be determined by the theoretical and scientific background of the study.

46
Q

The nurse develops the following hypothesis: Elderly women receive less aggressive treatment for breast cancer than do younger women. Which variable would be considered the dependent variable?

A. Degree of treatment received

B. Age of the patient

C. Type of cancer being treated

D. Use of inpatient treatment

A

A. The degree of treatment received is considered the dependent variable. The age of the patient would be the independent variable. The type of cancer being treated would be an extraneous variable in this case. The use of inpatient treatment would be an extraneous variable in this case.

47
Q

What are advantages to using directional hypotheses? (Select all that apply.)

A. The indication of the use of a theory base to derive the hypothesis

B. The provision of a specific theoretical frame of reference

C. Ensuring that findings will be generalizable

D. The indication of a nonbiased selection of subjects

A

A., B. The use of a theoretical framework to derive a hypothesis adds to an existing body of knowledge and lets the reader know that the phenomena under investigation have been critically examined. The use of a theoretical framework to derive a hypothesis lets the reader know that the phenomena under investigation have been critically examined. It is the selection of subjects that makes study findings generalizable, not the type of hypothesis used. The type of hypothesis used does not ensure a nonbiased selection of subjects.

48
Q

Which statements are true about convenience sampling? (Select all that apply.)

A. Convenience sampling is the most commonly used method of sampling.

B. Convenience sampling is the strongest nonprobability sampling strategy.

C. Research consumers should be skeptical about the external validity of the finding.

D. Convenience sampling provides level III evidence.

A

A., C. The easiest and most commonly used method of sampling is convenience sampling. Convenience sampling is the weakest form of sampling strategy with regard to strength of evidence and generalizability and is at highest risk for problems with external validity. The risk of bias is higher than with any other type of sampling. Convenience sampling produces level VI evidence.

49
Q

The generalizability of study findings can be enhanced by what? (Select all that apply.)

A. Few threats to validity

B. Small sample size

C. Random selection of subjects

D. A representative sample

A

A., C., D. The fewer the threats to validity, the more likely the findings can be generalized to the larger population. Random selection of subjects enhances the generalizability of study findings. A sample that is representative of the larger population enhances the generalizability of study findings. The larger the sample size, the more generalizable the findings.

50
Q

Tests that are used to estimate the stability of an instrument include what? (Select all that apply.)

A. Test-retest reliability

B. Kuder-Richardson (KR-20) coefficient

C. Parallel reliability

D. Cronbach’s alpha

A

A., C. Test-retest measures the stability of an instrument. Parallel reliability measures the stability of an instrument. The KR-20 coefficient measures the homogeneity of an instrument. Cronbach’s alpha measures the homogeneity of an instrument.

51
Q

Which statements are true about nonexperimental designs? (Select all that apply.)

A. In nonexperimental studies, the independent variable is manipulated.

B. Nonexperimental designs are used to test relationships among variables.

C. Nonexperimental designs can be used to construct a picture of a phenomenon at one point in time.

D. In nonexperimental studies, subjects are randomly selected.

A

B., C. Nonexperimental designs are used in studies in which the researcher wants to test relationships among variables. Nonexperimental designs are used in studies in which the researcher wants to construct a picture of a phenomenon. The independent variable is not manipulated in nonexperimental research. Randomization is a characteristic of experimental designs.

52
Q

What is true of an independent variable?

A. It is the variable that is predicted to change.

B. It varies with a change in the dependent variable.

C. It is manipulated by the researcher.

D. It can only be identified by changes in the dependent variable.

A

c. The independent variable is manipulated by the researcher and has a presumed effect on the dependent variable. It is the dependent variable that is predicted to change. The independent variable is presumed to change the dependent variable. The independent variable is manipulated by the researcher and is identified at the beginning of the study.

53
Q

What is true of an operational definition?

A. It specifies how a concept will be measured.

B. It conveys the general meaning of a concept.

C. It is the most abstract definition of a concept.

D. It is a dictionary definition.

A

A. An operational definition specifies how the concept will be measured and what instruments will be used to capture the concept. It is the conceptual definition that conveys the general meaning of the concept. An operational definition is on the lowest step of the ladder of abstraction. It is the conceptual definition that is the dictionary definition.

54
Q

Which is an example of a primary source?

A. A published commentary on the findings of another study

B. A doctoral dissertation that critiques all research in the area of attention deficit disorder

C. A textbook of medical-surgical nursing

D. A journal article about a study that used large, previously unpublished databases generated by the U.S. census

A

D. This is a report of an original study and is, therefore, the primary source of the study. A commentary is not the original source of the work. The dissertation is a review of studies and not the primary source of those studies. A textbook is not an original source of information.

55
Q

The nurse researcher finds that subjects drop out of the study before completion of data collection. What is this known as?

A. History

B. Maturation

C. Selection bias

D. Mortality

A

D. Mortality is the loss of subjects before completion of a study. History refers to events that occur outside the experimental setting. Maturation refers to development processes within subjects over time. Selection bias occurs if precautions are not used to gain a representative sample.

56
Q

External validity is considered to be what?

A. The use of expert opinion to judge the accuracy of an instrument

B. The degree to which findings of a study can be generalized to other populations

C. The degree to which it can be inferred that the experimental treatment resulted in the observed effects

D. The degree to which an instrument is said to measure a theoretical construct or trait

A

B. External validity is concerned with generalization of study findings to other populations. Face validity is the use of expert opinion to judge the accuracy of an instrument. Internal validity is the degree to which it can be inferred that the experimental treatment resulted in the observed effects. Construct validity is the degree to which an instrument is said to measure a theoretical construct or trait.

57
Q

What level of evidence do experimental studies provide?

A. II

B. IV

C. VI

D. VII

A

A. Experimental studies provide level II evidence.

58
Q

What occurs in the classic or true experimental design?

A. Subjects are randomly assigned to one of two groups, each group receives treatment or intervention, and then the dependent variable is measured.

B. Subjects are randomly assigned to one of two groups, each group receives a pretest and then treatment or intervention, and each group receives a posttest.

C. Subjects are randomly assigned to one of two groups, the dependent variable is measured in both groups, one group receives treatment, and both groups are posttested.

D. Subjects are randomly assigned to one of two groups, both groups are given a pretest, one group receives treatment, and the dependent variable is measured in one group.

A

C. In an experimental design, subjects are randomly assigned to one of two groups to control for antecedent variables. Both groups are given a pretest. One group receives treatment or intervention. Both groups are posttested.

59
Q

What is internal validity considered to be?

A. The use of expert opinion to judge the accuracy of an instrument

B. The degree to which findings of a study can be generalized to other populations

C. The degree to which it can be inferred that the experimental treatment resulted in the observed effects

D. The degree to which an instrument is said to measure a theoretical construct or trait

A

C. Internal validity is the degree to which it can be inferred that the experimental treatment resulted in the observed effects. Face validity is the use of expert opinion to judge the accuracy of an instrument. External validity is concerned with generalization of study findings to other populations. Construct validity is the degree to which an instrument is said to measure a theoretical construct or trait.

60
Q

Bias is introduced into a study when what occurs?

A. Sample selection is carried out inconsistently.

B. Subjects do not volunteer to participate.

C. Probability sampling techniques are used.

D. The population is homogeneous.

A

A. Inconsistent sample selection jeopardizes the representativeness of the sample and introduces bias. Random sampling and probability sampling introduce the least amount of bias in the sample. Homogeneity in the population reduces the likelihood of bias.