Hesi Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Why should the registered nurse practicing nursing at the bedside be concerned about research for the delivery of quality nursing care?

A. Research provides the nurse with knowledge needed to make sound clinical decisions.

B. One study can change nursing practice dramatically.

C. The Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations requires all nurses to be consumers of research.

D. Traditional nursing care is no longer appropriate for twenty-first century nursing.

A

A. Clinical decisions should be based on knowledge about patient outcomes, not just tradition. Practice should never change on the basis of just one study. The Joint Commission regulates health care settings, not the practice of nursing. Much of “traditional” practice has been found to lead to positive patient outcomes

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2
Q

Why should the average consumer of health care be concerned about nursing research?

A. Research provides evidence that nursing care makes a difference.

B. The nursing profession needs to define its place in the health care system.

C. Accrediting agencies must determine how best to use the technology needed to provide nursing care.

D. Nurses must justify the cost of their services for reimbursement purposes.

A

A. Nursing is accountable to consumers when they can demonstrate the safety and effectiveness of nursing care. Options B and C focus on the nursing profession, not the consumer, and therefore do not answer the question. Nursing research builds knowledge about effective nursing interventions, as well as the cost-effectiveness of nursing care.

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3
Q

The nurse in an intensive care unit is engaged in nursing practice that is evidence based. The nurse recognizes which sequence of steps that will culminate in evidence-based practice?

A. Evaluate, act, appraise and assess, gather, and ask

B. Appraise and assess, act, ask, gather, and evaluate

C. Ask, gather, assess and appraise, act, and evaluate

D. Gather, ask, evaluate, act, appraise and assess

A

C. The correct sequence of steps involved in the process of evidence-based practice consists of ask, gather, assess and appraise, act, and evaluate.

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4
Q

To be important to nursing practice, nursing theory must be supported by what?

A. Educational environment

B. Nursing research

C. Patient outcomes

D. Expansive body of science

A

B. Although nursing research cannot prove or disprove a theory, it can support the theory. Nursing theory arises from clinical practice and has been developed by both practitioners and educators. Because theory cannot be tested directly, patient outcomes cannot directly support theory. Theory is part of an expansive body of science.

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5
Q

A nurse researcher is searching for the purpose of a study in a research report. Where is the most likely place to find the purpose in the report?

A. At the end of the research design section

B. At the end of the literature review section

C. At the end of the sampling section

D. At the end of the conclusion section

A

B. The purpose of a study is usually located at the end of the researcher’s introduction or at the end of the literature review or conceptual framework section. The purpose of a study is usually not located in the research design section, sampling section, or conclusion section.

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6
Q

The best way to determine that a research study met ethical standards is by locating information showing what?

A. The reliability and validity of each measure were discussed.

B. The data analysis procedures are thoroughly discussed.

C. The study was approved by an institutional review board.

D. The sampling techniques used were discussed.

A

C. Approval of the study by an institutional review board ensures that the study met ethical standards. Although discussion of the reliability and validity of instruments, the procedures used for data analysis, and the sampling techniques used is important, it does not indicate that the study met ethical standards.

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7
Q

The nurse researcher wants to summarize several studies that focus on early detection of ovarian cancer. The nurse intends to use specific statistical methods that will allow conclusions to be drawn by the focus area. In this case, the best systematic review to choose would be what?

A. Meta-analysis

B. Integrative review

C. Meta-synthesis

D. Meta-summary

A

A. A meta-analysis summarizes a number of studies focused on a topic using a specific statistical methodology to synthesize the findings in order to draw conclusions about the area of focus. An integrative review is a focused review and synthesis of either research or theoretical literature on a particular area that follows specific steps of literature integration and synthesis without statistical analysis and can include both quantitative and qualitative articles. A meta-synthesis is the synthesis of a number of qualitative research studies on a focused topic using specific qualitative methodology. A meta-summary is the synthesis of a number of qualitative research studies on a focused topic using specific qualitative methodology.

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8
Q

How does a researcher critically read for preliminary understanding?

A. Through copious note taking

B. Through skimming

C. Through repeated reading sessions

D. Through reading aloud

A

B. Preliminary understanding is gained through skimming the material. Preliminary understanding is not gained through copious note taking, repeated reading sessions, or reading aloud.

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9
Q

For which research question would qualitative methods be most appropriate?

A. Which pain medications decrease the need for sleep medication in elderly patients?

B. What is the meaning of health for migrant farm-worker women?

C. Under what conditions does a decubitus ulcer heal most quickly?

D. How does frequency of medication administration affect the degree of pain experienced following knee replacement surgery?

A

B. Option B seeks to explore a phenomenon (health) for a specific population. Option A seeks to understand a cause-and-effect interaction between the use of pain medication and the need for sleep medication, making it a quantitative study. Option C seeks to discover a cause-and-effect interaction between treatment and speed of healing, making it a quantitative study. Option D seeks to discover a cause-and-effect interaction between medication administration and the degree of pain experienced, making it a quantitative study.

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10
Q

The nurse is attempting to locate the legal-ethical issues of a qualitative research study. The best place for the nurse to look for this in the study is where?

A. Discussion section

B. Procedure section

C. Design section

D. Sample section

A

B. The legal-ethical issues of a study are usually included in the procedure section of the report.

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11
Q

The best strategy for a nurse researcher to use in order to read a research study critically is to do what?

A. Read the study through once very thoroughly B. Use a research text to clarify unfamiliar terms C. Underline the study’s findings

D. Use the abstract to select the parts of the study needing closer perusal

A

B. A research text is an excellent resource for clarifying unfamiliar terms. Multiple readings are necessary for a critical understanding of the study. Although underlining critical components of the study may be useful, the study’s findings are easily located in one section of the report. The abstract can provide only a general overview. The entire report should be scanned before closer scrutiny of specific parts.

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12
Q

For a nurse to use research appropriately, he or she must do what?

A. Examine a research study and follow the researcher’s recommendations.

B. Read many studies in the same content area and follow the recommendations of the studies with similar findings.

C. Explore the strength of the evidence available.

D. Replicate studies in their own settings to make sure recommendations are contextually appropriate.

A

C. It is important to determine all evidence available and the strength of the evidence before changing practice. Practice decisions should never be made on the basis of one study alone. Studies in the same content area may not represent the best knowledge in the area. Nurses do not need to replicate studies before making practice decisions.

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13
Q

A nurse reads a research article and asks other graduate students to study the same article using the same criteria. The nurse is most likely using which stage of the critical reading process?

A. Preliminary understanding

B. Comprehensive understanding

C. Analysis understanding

D. Synthesis understanding

A

C. Analysis understanding occurs when the nurse asks fellow students to analyze the same study using the same criteria and compares results. Preliminary understanding includes strategies such as listing key variables and highlighting new terms. Comprehensive understanding includes identifying the main theme of the article. Synthesis understanding includes summarizing each research step in your own words using critiquing criteria.

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14
Q

What can a nurse researcher determine by reading the abstract, introduction, major headings, and conclusions of a study?

A. Relevance of the study to nursing practice

B. Appropriateness of methods used

C. Need for further study

D. Study’s main theme

A

D. The main theme of the study can usually be determined by reading these major parts of the report. The relevance of the study can be found in the introduction and background of the report. The methods should flow from the scientific background and research question. The need for further study is identified by the body of evidence available in the area and the findings of the study.

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15
Q

How can a nurse researcher achieve a comprehensive understanding of any research report?

A. Skim the entire report for a general overview.

B. Study the abstract to learn the main components of the study.

C. Seek assistance for unclear content.

D. Review the conclusion to link the content with the research question.

A

C. To understand a study comprehensively, it is important to clarify all areas of content that are not clear. Skimming the report leads to an overall understanding only. The abstract can provide only an overview of the study. All parts of the research process need to be understood.

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16
Q

What is an accurate description of a critique?

A. It requires some knowledge of the subject matter.

B. It is the process of creating standards used to judge an article.

C. It is an executive summary of a study.

D. It is conducted for the purpose of explaining the link between theory and application.

A

A. A critique requires knowledge of the subject matter and knowledge of how to read an article critically. A critique requires the use of previously set critiquing criteria and standards. An executive summary is a detailed summary of a large amount of data. A critique is conducted for the purpose of objectively evaluating all aspects of a research report.

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17
Q

What must a nurse researcher do before beginning to analyze a study?

A. Synthesize the material

B. Comprehensively understand the study

C. Apply recommendations to practice

D. Read other similar studies

A

B. Comprehensive understanding is necessary to analyze and synthesize the material. Synthesis of the material cannot occur until after the study is analyzed. Application of the material should not occur until after the study is analyzed and synthesized. It is not necessary to read other studies to analyze a new study.

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18
Q

What is the most accurate term for making patient-care decisions on the basis of research findings?

A. Critical reflection

B. Evidence-based practice

C. Applied research

D. Research implications

A

B. Evidence-based practice means making patient-care decisions on the basis of available evidence. Critical reflection is the process of thinking critically. Applied research tests the practical limits of descriptive theories but does not examine the efficacy of actions taken by practitioners. Research implications are the future actions suggested by the study findings.

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19
Q

When does the strength of the scientific evidence available influence changes in nursing practice?

A. Studies in the area have used quantitative methodology.

B. All studies in the content area show similar results.

C. Each study uses small, highly controlled samples of subjects.

D. Selective bias is built into the research design.

A

B. Replicating studies and obtaining similar findings increase the validity of the findings. Qualitative studies can provide evidence that changes practice. Although controlling confounding variables improves the reliability of data, generalizability can be enhanced by the use of larger, more representative samples. Bias decreases the strength of the evidence

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20
Q

An experimental study in which subjects were randomly selected is an example of what level of study?

A. Level II

B. Level IV

C. Level VI

D. Level VII

A

A. Experimental studies yield Level II data. Nonexperimental studies yield Level IV data. A single descriptive or qualitative study yields Level VI data. The opinions of authorities or experts yield Level VII data.

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21
Q

Which phrase would be found in a report of a qualitative study?

A. “The hypothesis of this study is ______.”

B. “Perceived pain was measured using the Abbott pain scale.”

C. “The control group received no instruction.”

D. “Subjects were asked to relate their perceptions of pain.”

A

D. Data collected were perceptions of pain, not numeric data. A study with a hypothesis is a quantitative study. A study that collects numeric data is a quantitative study. A study with a control group is a quantitative study.

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22
Q

Which phrase would be found in a report of a quantitative study?

A. “A convenience sample was chosen.”

B. “The phenomenon studied was _____.”

C. “Data were analyzed and interpreted.”

D. “Researchers sought to explore the meaning of the hospital experience.”

A

A. When a sample of convenience is chosen, the study is a quantitative study. Qualitative studies explore phenomena. Data collected in qualitative studies are “interpreted.” Qualitative studies explore the meaning of human experience.

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23
Q

Which study title indicates use of qualitative methodology?

A. Comparison of Nursing Assessment Techniques in Hospitals and Home Care Settings

B. The Relationship between Numbers of Errors Made and Educational Preparation

C. The Effectiveness of Patient Teaching Pre- and Postoperatively

D. The Experience of Mother-Child Bonding in Inner-City Populations

A

D. Qualitative studies explore the meaning of human experience. Quantitative studies seek differences among variables. Quantitative studies collect numeric variables and test relationships. Quantitative studies seek to explain cause-and-effect interactions.

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24
Q

The nurse is critically reading a research study and writes cues, the relationships of concepts, and questions on a photocopy version of the study. This would most likely be included in which step of the critical reading process?

A. Preliminary understanding

B. Comprehensive understanding

C. Analysis understanding

D. Synthesis understanding

A

C. Analysis understanding consists of writing cues, the relationships of concepts, and questions on a photocopy version of the study. Preliminary understanding consists of listing key variables and highlighting new terms. Comprehensive understanding consists of identifying the main idea or theme of the article. Synthesis understanding consists of summarizing the report, including strengths and weaknesses, in the nurse’s own words.

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25
Q

The nurse researcher is critically reading a research study and states the main idea of the article in his or her own words. This would most likely be included in which step of the critical reading process?

A. Preliminary understanding

B. Comprehensive understanding

C. Analysis understanding

D. Synthesis understanding

A

B. Comprehensive understanding consists of identifying the main idea or theme of the article. Preliminary understanding consists of listing key variables and highlighting new terms. Analysis understanding consists of writing cues, the relationships of concepts, and questions on a photocopy version of the study. Synthesis understanding consists of summarizing the report, including strengths and weaknesses, in your own words.

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26
Q

Which research process steps may be noted in an article’s abstract? (Select all that apply.)

A. Identifying the methods

B. Research question study purpose

C. Literature review

D. Results

E. Conclusion

F. Legal-ethical issues

G. Data collection procedure

A

A., B., D. Identifying the methods, the research question study purpose, and the results may be noted in the abstract.

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27
Q

Which hypothesis is indicative of an experimental research design? (Select all that apply.)

A. Frequent irrigation of Foley catheters will be positively related to urinary tract infections.

B. The incidence of urinary tract infections will be greater in patients whose Foley catheters are irrigated frequently than in those whose Foley catheters are irrigated less frequently.

C. Frequent irrigation of Foley catheters is associated with urinary tract infections.

D. The incidence of urinary tract infections will not differ between patients with or without Foley catheters.

A

B., D. These hypotheses reflect associative relationship statements and are not experimental.

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28
Q

The criteria used to judge the soundness of a stated research question include what? (Select all that apply.)

A. A relationship between two or more variables

B. An operational definition of each variable

C. The nature of the population being tested

D. The possibility of empirical testing

A

A., C., D.

The research question must seek to discover a relationship between two or more variables. The research question must include the nature of the population being tested. The research question must include the possibility of empirical testing. Operational definitions are not included in the research question.

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29
Q

The criteria used to determine testability of a hypothesis include what? (Select all that apply.)

A. Use of quantifiable words such as greater than or less than

B. A hypothesis stated in such a way that it can be clearly supported or not supported

C. The use of value-laden words in a hypothesis

D. Data collection efforts that prove the validity of the hypothesis

A

A., B. Quantifiable words increase the testability of a hypothesis. The more clearly the hypothesis is stated, the easier it will be to accept or reject it on the basis of study findings. Hypotheses should not have value-laden words. Data collection processes are not part of the criterion used to evaluate the testability of hypotheses.

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30
Q

The nurse participating in a research project recognizes that the advantages to using directional hypotheses include what? (Select all that apply.)

A. The indication of the use of a theory base to derive the hypothesis

B. The provision of a specific theoretical frame of reference

C. Assurance that findings will be generalizable

D. The indication of a nonbiased selection of subjects

A

A., B. The use of a theoretical framework to derive a hypothesis adds to an existing body of knowledge and lets the reader know that the phenomena under investigation have been critically considered. The use of a theoretical framework to derive a hypothesis lets the reader know that the phenomena under investigation have been critically evaluated. It is the selection of subjects that makes study findings generalizable, not the type of hypothesis used. The type of hypothesis used does not ensure a nonbiased selection of subjects.

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31
Q

The nurse researcher is writing a clinical question. What do elements of such a question include? (Select all that apply.)

A. Population

B. Intervention

C. Outcome

D. Evaluation

A

A., B., C. “Population” is the first element of a clinical question. “Intervention” is the second element of a clinical question. “Outcome” is the third element of a clinical question. “Evaluation” is not considered one of the elements of a clinical question.

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32
Q

Which statement about hypotheses is most accurate?

A. Hypotheses represent the main idea to be studied and are the foundations of research studies.

B. Hypotheses help frame a test of the validity of a theory.

C. Hypotheses provide the means to test nursing theory.

D. A hypothesis can also be called a problem statement.

A

B. Although theories cannot be tested directly, hypotheses provide a bridge between theory and the real world. It is the research question that represents the main idea to be studied. Theories cannot be tested directly. The research question is also called the problem statement.

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33
Q

A nurse wants to study the effectiveness of meditation for people with anxiety disorder. Which variable would be most relevant to explore in the literature on the topic?

A. Use of meditation during childbirth

B. Meditation techniques found to be effective

C. Pain management for people with anxiety disorders

D. Outcomes of meditation when used by elderly populations

A

B. To design this study, the nurse should know meditation techniques found to be effective. Use of meditation during childbirth is irrelevant to this study. Although pain management would probably be a confounding variable, “pain management for people with anxiety disorders” is not the best answer. Unless the study population consists of elderly individuals, outcomes of meditation when used by elderly populations would not be relevant

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34
Q

Which is a characteristic of an independent variable?

A. It is the variable that is predicted to change.

B. It varies with a change in the dependent variable.

C. It is manipulated by the researcher.

D. It can be identified only by changes in the dependent variable

A

C. The independent variable is manipulated by the researcher and has a presumed effect on the dependent variable. It is the dependent variable that is predicted to change. The independent variable is manipulated by the researcher and is identified at the beginning of the study.

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35
Q

Which statement is most accurate regarding hypotheses?

A. Hypotheses operationally define the dependent variables.

B. Hypotheses are statements about the relationships among variables.

C. Hypotheses describe the effect of the dependent variable on the independent variable.

D. Hypotheses must include a definition of the treatment or intervention used.

A

B. Hypotheses are statements about the relationships between two or more variables that suggest an answer to the research question. Hypotheses are not concerned with operationally defining the variables involved in the study. The independent variable is not affected or changed by the dependent variable.

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36
Q

A research question can be converted into a declarative statement that predicts an expected outcome through the use of what?

A. Hypothesis

B. Variable

C. Theory

D. Operational definition

A

A. A hypothesis converts a research question into a statement that predicts an outcome. A variable is a defined concept of concern in a study. A theory is a set of concepts that present a systematic view of phenomena. An operational definition is the measurement used to observe or measure a variable.

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37
Q

What is a characteristic of a hypothesis?

A. It flows from interpretation of the data collected.

B. It operationally defines the variable to be studied.

C. It eliminates the need to designate a dependent variable.

D. It implies a causative or associative relationship.

A

D. A hypothesis implies a causative or associative relationship. A hypothesis guides the research design and collection of data. Operational definitions are not included in the hypothesis. The hypothesis indicates the dependent variable.

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38
Q

During the research process, a hypothesis should be developed by the researcher at what point?

A. Before development of the research question

B. After development of the research question

C. After a research design is determined

D. Before any statistical analysis

A

B. The hypothesis must be developed after the research question is developed. The hypothesis must be developed before the research design is determined. The hypothesis must be developed much earlier in the process than before statistical analysis.

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39
Q

Which research hypothesis is most testable?

A. There is a relationship between meditation and anxiety disorders.

B. Patients with anxiety disorders who learn meditation techniques have less anxiety than those who do not.

C. Teaching one meditation technique to patients with anxiety disorders will be better than teaching multiple techniques.

D. The ability to meditate causes lower anxiety in patients with anxiety disorder than those who do not meditate.

A

D. “The ability to meditate causes lower anxiety in patients with anxiety disorder than those who do not meditate” is a hypothesis that meets the criteria of testability. “There is a relationship between meditation and anxiety disorders” is not a predictive statement about the relationships between the variables. The “meditation techniques” variable must be specifically defined so that it is observable or measurable. “Better than” is a value-laden phrase that is not objective.

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40
Q

What is a characteristic of a directional hypothesis?

A. It specifies the expected relationship between dependent and independent variables.

B. It describes causality of the dependent variable on the independent variable.

C. It is one of several hypotheses arising from a complex research question.

D. It is more objective and impartial than nondirectional hypotheses.

A

A. A directional hypothesis predicts the nature of the relationship between variables. The dependent variable is acted on by the independent variable. Hypotheses arising from a complex research question may or may not be directional. Nondirectional hypotheses tend to be more objective and impartial because the researcher is not biased toward a particular outcome.

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41
Q

What is a characteristic of a statistical hypothesis?

A. It is a null hypothesis.

B. It predicts a positive relationship among variables.

C. It is a complex hypothesis.

D. It describes data-analysis methods.

A

A. Statistical hypotheses, called null hypotheses, state that there is no relationship between the independent and dependent variables. Statistical hypotheses are no more complex than other types of hypotheses. Hypotheses do not describe data-analysis methods.

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42
Q

When should the nurse researcher reject the null hypothesis?

A. When there is no association among variables

B. When there is evidence of significance

C. When the independent and dependent variables are related

D. When the research hypothesis is rejected

A

C. Because the null hypothesis states that there is no relationship between the independent and dependent variables, it is rejected if they are related. The null hypothesis is accepted if there is no association among variables. The null hypothesis is accepted if there are significant differences in outcomes. If a study has both a research hypothesis and a null hypothesis, the null hypothesis is rejected when the research hypothesis is accepted.

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43
Q

The nurse researcher is participating in a quasi-experimental study. Which level is characteristic of the strength of the evidence provided by the results of such a study?

A. Level I

B. Level II

C. Level III

D. Level IV

A

C. Evidence provided by quasi-experimental studies is level III. Level I evidence is obtained from a systematic review of all randomized, controlled trials. Level II evidence is obtained from at least one well-designed randomized, controlled trial. Level IV evidence is obtained from nonexperimental studies.

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44
Q

The nurse researcher writes the research question, “What was it like to be diagnosed with breast cancer?” This is considered to be which type of research question?

A. Comparative quantitative

B. Grounded theory qualitative

C. Correlational quantitative

D. Experimental quantitative

A

B. This research question is formatted according to the grounded theory qualitative format. This research question does not have a relationship between a dependent and an independent variable that would be characteristic of a comparative quantitative research question. This research question does not have a relationship between a dependent and an independent variable that would be characteristic of a correlational quantitative research question. This research question does not have a relationship between a dependent and an independent variable that would be characteristic of an experimental quantitative research question.

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45
Q

What is the purpose of including a summary of the theoretical and scientific background of a study in a research report

A. To operationalize the variables used in the study

B. To differentiate the purpose of the study and the research question

C. To inform the reader about how the research question was developed

D. To allow the reader to determine the testability of the hypothesis

A

C. The research question should flow from the theoretical and scientific background. The variables are not operationalized in the theoretical or scientific background of the study. The purpose of the study and research questions should flow from the theoretical and scientific background of the study. The testability of the hypothesis cannot be determined by the theoretical and scientific background of the study.

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46
Q

The nurse develops the following hypothesis: Elderly women receive less aggressive treatment for breast cancer than do younger women. Which variable would be considered the dependent variable?

A. Degree of treatment received

B. Age of the patient

C. Type of cancer being treated

D. Use of inpatient treatment

A

A. The degree of treatment received is considered the dependent variable. The age of the patient would be the independent variable. The type of cancer being treated would be an extraneous variable in this case. The use of inpatient treatment would be an extraneous variable in this case.

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47
Q

What are advantages to using directional hypotheses? (Select all that apply.)

A. The indication of the use of a theory base to derive the hypothesis

B. The provision of a specific theoretical frame of reference

C. Ensuring that findings will be generalizable

D. The indication of a nonbiased selection of subjects

A

A., B. The use of a theoretical framework to derive a hypothesis adds to an existing body of knowledge and lets the reader know that the phenomena under investigation have been critically examined. The use of a theoretical framework to derive a hypothesis lets the reader know that the phenomena under investigation have been critically examined. It is the selection of subjects that makes study findings generalizable, not the type of hypothesis used. The type of hypothesis used does not ensure a nonbiased selection of subjects.

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48
Q

Which statements are true about convenience sampling? (Select all that apply.)

A. Convenience sampling is the most commonly used method of sampling.

B. Convenience sampling is the strongest nonprobability sampling strategy.

C. Research consumers should be skeptical about the external validity of the finding.

D. Convenience sampling provides level III evidence.

A

A., C. The easiest and most commonly used method of sampling is convenience sampling. Convenience sampling is the weakest form of sampling strategy with regard to strength of evidence and generalizability and is at highest risk for problems with external validity. The risk of bias is higher than with any other type of sampling. Convenience sampling produces level VI evidence.

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49
Q

The generalizability of study findings can be enhanced by what? (Select all that apply.)

A. Few threats to validity

B. Small sample size

C. Random selection of subjects

D. A representative sample

A

A., C., D. The fewer the threats to validity, the more likely the findings can be generalized to the larger population. Random selection of subjects enhances the generalizability of study findings. A sample that is representative of the larger population enhances the generalizability of study findings. The larger the sample size, the more generalizable the findings.

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50
Q

Tests that are used to estimate the stability of an instrument include what? (Select all that apply.)

A. Test-retest reliability

B. Kuder-Richardson (KR-20) coefficient

C. Parallel reliability

D. Cronbach’s alpha

A

A., C. Test-retest measures the stability of an instrument. Parallel reliability measures the stability of an instrument. The KR-20 coefficient measures the homogeneity of an instrument. Cronbach’s alpha measures the homogeneity of an instrument.

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51
Q

Which statements are true about nonexperimental designs? (Select all that apply.)

A. In nonexperimental studies, the independent variable is manipulated.

B. Nonexperimental designs are used to test relationships among variables.

C. Nonexperimental designs can be used to construct a picture of a phenomenon at one point in time.

D. In nonexperimental studies, subjects are randomly selected.

A

B., C. Nonexperimental designs are used in studies in which the researcher wants to test relationships among variables. Nonexperimental designs are used in studies in which the researcher wants to construct a picture of a phenomenon. The independent variable is not manipulated in nonexperimental research. Randomization is a characteristic of experimental designs.

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52
Q

What is true of an independent variable?

A. It is the variable that is predicted to change.

B. It varies with a change in the dependent variable.

C. It is manipulated by the researcher.

D. It can only be identified by changes in the dependent variable.

A

c. The independent variable is manipulated by the researcher and has a presumed effect on the dependent variable. It is the dependent variable that is predicted to change. The independent variable is presumed to change the dependent variable. The independent variable is manipulated by the researcher and is identified at the beginning of the study.

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53
Q

What is true of an operational definition?

A. It specifies how a concept will be measured.

B. It conveys the general meaning of a concept.

C. It is the most abstract definition of a concept.

D. It is a dictionary definition.

A

A. An operational definition specifies how the concept will be measured and what instruments will be used to capture the concept. It is the conceptual definition that conveys the general meaning of the concept. An operational definition is on the lowest step of the ladder of abstraction. It is the conceptual definition that is the dictionary definition.

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54
Q

Which is an example of a primary source?

A. A published commentary on the findings of another study

B. A doctoral dissertation that critiques all research in the area of attention deficit disorder

C. A textbook of medical-surgical nursing

D. A journal article about a study that used large, previously unpublished databases generated by the U.S. census

A

D. This is a report of an original study and is, therefore, the primary source of the study. A commentary is not the original source of the work. The dissertation is a review of studies and not the primary source of those studies. A textbook is not an original source of information.

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55
Q

The nurse researcher finds that subjects drop out of the study before completion of data collection. What is this known as?

A. History

B. Maturation

C. Selection bias

D. Mortality

A

D. Mortality is the loss of subjects before completion of a study. History refers to events that occur outside the experimental setting. Maturation refers to development processes within subjects over time. Selection bias occurs if precautions are not used to gain a representative sample.

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56
Q

External validity is considered to be what?

A. The use of expert opinion to judge the accuracy of an instrument

B. The degree to which findings of a study can be generalized to other populations

C. The degree to which it can be inferred that the experimental treatment resulted in the observed effects

D. The degree to which an instrument is said to measure a theoretical construct or trait

A

B. External validity is concerned with generalization of study findings to other populations. Face validity is the use of expert opinion to judge the accuracy of an instrument. Internal validity is the degree to which it can be inferred that the experimental treatment resulted in the observed effects. Construct validity is the degree to which an instrument is said to measure a theoretical construct or trait.

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57
Q

What level of evidence do experimental studies provide?

A. II

B. IV

C. VI

D. VII

A

A. Experimental studies provide level II evidence.

58
Q

What occurs in the classic or true experimental design?

A. Subjects are randomly assigned to one of two groups, each group receives treatment or intervention, and then the dependent variable is measured.

B. Subjects are randomly assigned to one of two groups, each group receives a pretest and then treatment or intervention, and each group receives a posttest.

C. Subjects are randomly assigned to one of two groups, the dependent variable is measured in both groups, one group receives treatment, and both groups are posttested.

D. Subjects are randomly assigned to one of two groups, both groups are given a pretest, one group receives treatment, and the dependent variable is measured in one group.

A

C. In an experimental design, subjects are randomly assigned to one of two groups to control for antecedent variables. Both groups are given a pretest. One group receives treatment or intervention. Both groups are posttested.

59
Q

What is internal validity considered to be?

A. The use of expert opinion to judge the accuracy of an instrument

B. The degree to which findings of a study can be generalized to other populations

C. The degree to which it can be inferred that the experimental treatment resulted in the observed effects

D. The degree to which an instrument is said to measure a theoretical construct or trait

A

C. Internal validity is the degree to which it can be inferred that the experimental treatment resulted in the observed effects. Face validity is the use of expert opinion to judge the accuracy of an instrument. External validity is concerned with generalization of study findings to other populations. Construct validity is the degree to which an instrument is said to measure a theoretical construct or trait.

60
Q

Bias is introduced into a study when what occurs?

A. Sample selection is carried out inconsistently.

B. Subjects do not volunteer to participate.

C. Probability sampling techniques are used.

D. The population is homogeneous.

A

A. Inconsistent sample selection jeopardizes the representativeness of the sample and introduces bias. Random sampling and probability sampling introduce the least amount of bias in the sample. Homogeneity in the population reduces the likelihood of bias.

61
Q
A
62
Q

Internal validity is important to the nurse researcher because it asks what?

A. If the study is generalizable to the larger population

B. If the Hawthorne effect affected the findings

C. Whether the independent variable really made the change in the dependent variable

D. Whether study findings are a result of measurement effects

A

C. Whether the independent variable really made the change in the dependent variable

The definition of internal validity is the degree that the experimental treatment, rather than an uncontrolled condition, resulted in the outcomes. External validity asks if the study is generalizable to the larger population. The Hawthorne effect is a threat to external validity. Measurement effects are a threat to external validity.

63
Q

For large experimental studies, conducting a pilot study helps the researcher determine what?

A. Degree of internal control over dependent variables

B. Accuracy and objectivity of the design

C. Feasibility of the research design

D. Constancy of data collection

A

C. Feasibility of the research design

A pilot study informs the researcher of pragmatic considerations in conducting the research study. The researcher does not control for dependent variables. Accuracy and objectivity of the design are established before a pilot study is conducted. Constancy of data collection is established during design of the study, before a pilot study.

64
Q

A research study was under way looking at the frequency of mammograms in perimenopausal women. During the study a celebrity was diagnosed with breast cancer. The effect of this event on the research findings is called what?

A. Maturation

B. Reactivity

C. Constancy

D. History

A

D. History

This event occurred outside the experimental setting and may have had an effect on the dependent variable. Maturation refers to developmental processes within subjects. Reactivity refers to subject response to being studied. Constancy refers to control over data collection procedures.

65
Q

The nurse researcher is trying to determine which Boolean operator should be used to combine synonyms for a concept during the literature search. What is the most effective operator to use in this case?

A. And

B. Not

C. Or

D. And not

A

C. Or

Using “or” in this case is the only choice that will allow the combining of synonyms for a concept during a literature search electronically. Using “and” in this case will not allow the combining of synonyms for a concept. Using “not” in this case will not allow the combining of synonyms for a concept. Using “and not” in this case will not allow the combining of synonyms for a concept.

66
Q

The nurse researcher should strive for subjects to demonstrate homogeneity with respect to which variables?

A. Independent

B. Dependent

C. Extraneous

D. Outcome

A

C. Extraneous

In order to control extraneous variables, subjects should be similar. The independent variables are manipulated by the researcher and will not be homogeneous. The dependent variable is expected to change during the study. Outcome variables are expected to change during the study.

67
Q

Administration of an intervention to one group of subjects and not another is an example of what? (Select all that apply.)

A. Homogeneity of subjects
B. Manipulation of the independent variable

C. An experimental study

D. The introduction of bias

A

B. Manipulation of the independent variable

C. An experimental study

The intervention is the independent variable and is controlled through the use of a control group. The use of a control group is part of the classic experimental design. Homogeneity of subjects refers to the control of extraneous variables. Bias is partially controlled with the use of a control group.

68
Q

The nurse researcher strives for accuracy in the research design so that what happens?

A. All aspects of the study logically flow from the research question

B. All mediating variables have been controlled

C. Gaps in the literature have been identified

D. The timing of data collection was the same for each subject

A

A. All aspects of the study logically flow from the research question

Every step of the research process should flow from the research question. Control of mediating variables refers to holding conditions of the study constant. Identification of gaps of knowledge is one step in establishing objectivity of the research question, not accuracy in the research design. Timing of data collection provides constancy in data collection, not accuracy in research design.

69
Q

To avoid threats to validity, a researcher must identify, plan for, and control what?

A. Independent variables

B. Unexpected findings

C. The control group

D. Extraneous variables

A

D. Extraneous variables

Extraneous variables could affect the dependent variable and are a threat to the internal validity of the study. The independent variables are manipulated by the researcher as part of the research design. By their very nature, unexpected findings cannot be identified ahead of time and are not controlled by the researcher. The control group is part of the research design; this is not the best answer.

70
Q

The nurse is using CINAHL as an electronic database. What is an effective technique to use with this database?

A. Use complete sentences when using Advanced Search

B. Mark “Research Articles,” and then select “Search”

C. Use the Boolean connector “and” to broaden your search

D. Use the Limit Your Results section to limit results by age group

A

D. Use the Limit Your Results section to limit results by age group

Using the Limit Your Results section can help limit results by age group, year, or clinical queries, for example. Do not use complete sentences when using the Advanced Search feature. Select “Search” and then “Research articles” to ensure that you retrieve only articles that are actually research. Using the Boolean connector “and” will narrow your search.

71
Q

Objectivity in the conceptualization of the research question is derived from what?

A. A random sample of subjects

B. A control group

C. The review of literature

D. The selection of instruments to be used

A

C. The review of literature

The review of the literature, as well as the theoretical framework, informs the researcher of the breadth and depth of available knowledge in the area. Conceptualization of the research question occurs before sample selection. Conceptualization of the research question occurs before instrument selection.

72
Q

A researcher decides to use six people to help collect data for a quantitative study. What is a potential threat to the internal validity of this study?

A. History

B. Instrumentation

C. Maturation

D. Selection effects

A

B. Instrumentation

A bias could be introduced if the six people involved in data collection are not consistent. History refers to events that occur outside the experimental setting. Maturation refers to developmental processes within subjects over time. Selection bias occurs if precautions are not used to gain a representative sample.

73
Q

A researcher studies the differences in IQ between girls and boys. She tests cohorts of girls and boys in the third grade and then tests the same girls and boys when they are in the sixth grade. Which are threats to internal validity in this study? (Select all that apply.)

A. Maturation

B. History

C. Testing

D. Measurement effects

A

A. Maturation

C. Testing

Maturation refers to developmental processes within subjects over time. Testing refers to the influence on subjects’ responses caused by taking the same test repeatedly. History refers to events that occur outside the experimental setting. Measurement effects refer to the effect of a pretest on the generalizability of the study findings.

74
Q

Similarities between literature reviews conducted for research purposes and literature reviews conducted for research consumers include what? (Select all that apply.)

A. Amount of literature required to be reviewed

B. Degree of critical reading required

C. Importance of conceptual literature

D. Purpose of the review

A

b. Degree of critical reading required

C. Importance of conceptual literature

75
Q

In quantitative research, control is used to avoid what?

A. Duplication

B. Bias

C. Randomization

D. Homogeneity

A

B. Bias

The researcher holds conditions of the study uniform to avoid possible impact of bias on the outcome. Duplication is not a relevant term for describing rigor in the research process. Randomization is an aim of quantitative research, not something to be avoided. Homogeneity of subjects is an aim of quantitative research, not something to be avoided.

76
Q

What is the first step in the qualitative research process?

A. Data analysis

B. Sample

C. Review of the literature

D. Study design

A

C. Review of the literature

A review of the literature is the first step in the qualitative research process. Data analysis is the sixth step in the qualitative research process. Sampling is the third step in the qualitative research process. The study design is the second step in the qualitative research process.

77
Q

What does scholarly literature include? (Select all that apply.)

A. Research reports reported in primary sources only

B. Conceptual and theoretical literature from primary sources only

C. Published and unpublished reports of research

D. Primary and secondary sources

A

C. Published and unpublished reports of research

D. Primary and secondary sources

Published and unpublished reports of research are both sources of scholarly literature. Primary and secondary sources are both sources of scholarly literature.

78
Q

Characteristics of the literature review required for a quantitative research study include what? (Select all that apply.)

A. The review is exhaustive and must include all studies conducted in the area.

B. Doctoral dissertations and masters’ theses are preferred sources of information.

C. Computer-accessed materials are acceptable

D. Primary sources are not as important as secondary sources.

A

B. Doctoral dissertations and masters’ theses are preferred sources of information.

C. Computer-accessed materials are acceptable

Doctoral dissertations and masters’ theses are excellent sources of information. Computer-accessed materials are acceptable. The review is broad and systematic, as well as in-depth, but not usually exhaustive. Primary sources are more important than secondary sources.

79
Q

The nurse researcher defines control as what?

A. Having a large sample size

B. Manipulating the dependent variable

C. Having a basis of comparison for each experimental group of subjects

D. Holding conditions of the study constant

A

D. Holding conditions of the study constant

Control is defined as holding the conditions of the study constant and controlling for extraneous variables. The size of the sample is a concern of generalizability, not control. The dependent variable is not manipulated by the researcher. Having a basis of comparison for experimental subjects is a method of controlling for extraneous variables, but it is not the definition of “control.”

80
Q

What must occur for the nurse researcher to randomly select a sample of subjects?

A. Each subject should have an equal chance of being selected

B. Subjects who might die or leave the study voluntarily should be eliminated

C. Subjects should be grouped according to homogeneity

D. Each subject should be selected on the basis of his or her ability to participate

A

A. Each subject should have an equal chance of being selected

Each subject in the target population must have an equal chance of being selected. There is no way of predicting which subjects might leave the study. Grouping subjects according to homogeneity introduces new independent variables into the study. Selecting participants on the basis of their ability to participate is called “convenience sampling” and introduces potential bias into the study.

81
Q

The nurse is using an electronic database sponsored by the U.S. Department of Education. The nurse is most likely using which database?

A. ERIC

B. MEDLINE

C. EMBASE

D. CINAHL

A

A. ERIC

ERIC is sponsored by the U.S. Department of Education. MEDLINE is produced by the National Library of Medicine. EMBASE indexes an additional 5 million records not covered on MEDLINE. CINAHL is available as part of the EBSCO online service.

82
Q

The nurse researcher randomly selects subjects in order to do what?

A. Increase the number of participants

B. Eliminate bias

C. Prevent contamination of subjects

D. Control the dependent variables

A

B. Eliminate bias

Randomization eliminates the bias of extraneous variables. Randomization does not require a certain number of subjects. Randomization cannot prevent contamination of subjects. Dependent variables are not manipulated or controlled by the researcher. Randomization does not require a certain number of subjects.

83
Q

Extraneous variables can be controlled by what? (Select all that apply.)

A. Randomly selecting subjects

B. Using a homogeneous sample

C. Manipulating the dependent variable

D. conducting a pilot test

A

A. Randomly selecting subjects

B. Using a homogeneous sample

Randomization is a means of controlling extraneous variables. Homogeneity of the sample is a means of controlling extraneous variables. The dependent variable is not manipulated by the researcher. The pilot test demonstrates the pragmatism of the research design.

84
Q

Which statements are true about nonexperimental designs? (Select all that apply.)

A. In nonexperimental studies, the independent variable is manipulated.

B. Nonexperimental designs are used to test relationships among variables.

C. Nonexperimental designs can be used to construct a picture of a phenomenon at one point in time.

D. In nonexperimental studies, subjects are randomly selected.

A

B., C.

Nonexperimental designs are used in studies in which the researcher wants to test relationships among variables. Nonexperimental designs are used in studies in which the researcher wants to construct a picture of a phenomenon. The independent variable is not manipulated in nonexperimental research. Randomization is a characteristic of experimental designs.

85
Q

What is another name for longitudinal studies? (Select all that apply.)

A. Prospective studies

B. Cohort studies

C. Repeated measures studies

D. Ex post facto studies

A

A., B., C.

Another term for longitudinal studies is prospective studies. Another term for longitudinal studies is cohort studies. Another term for longitudinal studies is repeated measures studies. Ex post facto studies collect data retrospectively.

86
Q

What are potential disadvantages of longitudinal studies? (Select all that apply.)

A. Subject loss as a result of attrition

B. Loss of a control group

C. The Hawthorne effect

D. Superficiality of data

A

A., C.

Because longitudinal studies take longer to complete, subject loss over time is a problem. Subjects sometimes change their behavior simply because they are part of a study. Each subject acts as his or her own control. Longitudinal studies yield data with depth and breadth.

87
Q

What is another name for retrospective studies? (Select all that apply.)

A.Repeated measures studies

B. Case-control studies

C. Cohort studies

D. Ex post facto studies

A

B., D.

Another term for retrospective studies is case-control studies. Another term for retrospective studies is ex post facto studies. Longitudinal studies, not retrospective studies, are sometimes called repeated measures studies. Longitudinal studies, not retrospective studies, are sometimes called cohort studies.

88
Q

A nurse researcher demonstrated that cigarette smoking appeared to be a determinant of lung cancer. The researcher was unable to conclude a causal relationship exists between cigarette smoking and lung cancer because of which reason? (Select all that apply.)

A. The independent variable was not manipulated.

B. Subjects were not randomly assigned to groups.

C. The researcher did not have a high level of control.

D. The causal event did not occur before the effect event.

A

A., B.

The researcher was not able to manipulate the independent variable. Because it was not possible to randomly select a sample, the researcher was not able to demonstrate either the representativeness of the sample or a cause-and-effect relationship. The level of control of the independent variable is not a requisite for determining a cause-and-effect relationship. In this study the causal event did occur before the effect event.

89
Q

Nonexperimental studies provide what type of evidence?

A. Level II

B. Level III

C. Level IV

D. Level V

A

C.

Nonexperimental studies provide level IV evidence. Only clinical trials provide level II evidence. Quasi-experimental studies provide level III evidence. Nonexperimental studies provide a higher level of evidence than do level V studies.

90
Q

A study was designed to assess whether motion had an effect on the mood of elderly residents in a nursing home. The researcher examined whether residents who ambulated for an hour every day were more engaged in their environments than those who did not ambulate. This type of study is known as what?

A. Prospective

B. Comparative

C. Ex post facto

D. Correlational

A

B.

Comparative studies determine differences between variables. This study did not involve measurement over time. This study did not involve measurement retrospectively. The researcher was not measuring the degree to which the variables covaried.

91
Q

What is an advantage of using surveys for data collection?

A. Causation can be determined.

B. Information can be collected in great depth.

C. Large-scale surveys are relatively inexpensive.

D. A relatively small number of subjects can provide accurate information.

A

D.

If a sample is representative of the population, a relatively small number of subjects can provide an accurate picture of the population. Surveys cannot determine cause-and-effect relationships. The information obtained by a survey tends to be superficial. Large-scale surveys are expensive to conduct.

92
Q

What is the role of an investigator in a correlational study?

A. Examines the relationship between two or more variables

B.Evaluates data collection instruments

C. Determines a cause-and-effect relationship among variables

D. Uses each subject as his or her own control

A

A.

The investigator measures the degree to which variables covary. Psychometrics evaluates data collection instruments. Correlational studies cannot determine cause-and-effect relationships. Longitudinal studies use each subject as his or her own control.

93
Q

Nonexperimental correlational studies are used frequently in nursing research for which reason?

A. Findings of nonexperimental correlational studies can be generalized to larger populations.

B. Independent variables can be manipulated precisely in correlational studies.

C. Many of the phenomena of clinical interest do not lend themselves to manipulation, control, or randomization.

D. To determine the best clinical practices, nurses must be aware of cause-and-effect relationships.

A

C.

Researchers cannot manipulate, control, or randomize many phenomena of concern to nurses. Without the ability to select subjects randomly, findings cannot be generalized to larger populations. Correlational designs are used when phenomena of interest cannot be manipulated. The best practices can be determined by correlational and other nonexperimental studies.

94
Q

Which type of studies is concerned specifically with a time perspective?

A. Developmental studies

B. Cross-sectional studies

C. Descriptive studies

D. Causal modeling studies

A

A.

Investigators who use developmental studies are concerned with changes that result from elapsed time. Cross-sectional studies collect data at only one point in time. Descriptive studies yield information about the characteristics of variables and do not necessarily have a specific time perspective. Causal modeling techniques establish predictive or causal links among variables and do not necessarily have a time perspective.

95
Q

Graduates of nursing programs were surveyed 6 months postgraduation to determine their perspectives on the adequacy of their nursing education. This study is an example of what kind of study?

A. A cross-sectional study

B. A prospective study

C. An ex post facto study

D. A longitudinal study

A

A.

Data were collected at one point in time with the same subjects. Prospective studies collect data at various times for a period of time. Ex post facto studies collect data retrospectively. Longitudinal studies collect data retrospectively.

96
Q

Why are predictive models used?

A. To synthesize findings from randomized clinical trials to test the effectiveness of an intervention

B. To develop measurement techniques to establish causal relationships

C. To generalize findings from nonexperimental studies

D. To explain the relationships among variables to establish predictive or causal links

A

D.

Predictive models are used to determine predictive relationships. Meta-analyses, not predictive models, synthesize findings from clinical trials in order to test the effectiveness of an intervention. Developing measurement techniques is not the purpose of predictive models. Predictive relationships cannot be established by nonexperimental studies.

97
Q

Why are psychometrics used?

A. To interpret research data to determine cause-and-effect relationships

B. To use the research process to develop tools or techniques for use in measurement

C. To combine data from multiple research studies and summarize their findings

D. To analyze data collected for another purpose

A

B.

Psychometrics deals with the theory and development of measurement and instrumentation. Psychometrics is not used to determine cause-and-effect relationships. It is meta-analysis, not psychometrics, that combines data from multiple research studies and summarizes their findings. Secondary analysis is the analysis of data collected for another purpose.

98
Q

A researcher explored the nursing practice of new graduates to measure the frequency of medical errors they made over time. A cohort of new graduates was surveyed at 6 months, 9 months, and 1 year postgraduation. Which design best describes this study?

A. Correlational predictive

B. Retrospective correlational

C. Descriptive longitudinal

D. Comparative descriptive

A

C.

The study is descriptive because the researcher is measuring characteristics of the variable “frequency of medical errors” and longitudinal because data are being collected from one cohort of subjects repeatedly over time. No correlational relationships are being measured, and the researcher is not attempting to predict a cause-and-effect relationship. Data are being collected prospectively, not retrospectively. The researcher is not comparing variables of the study to uncover their differences.

99
Q

Which studies are classified as survey studies? (Select all that apply.)

A. Descriptive

B. Correlational

C. Developmental

D. Exploratory

E. Comparative

F. Cross-sectional

A

A., D., E.

A descriptive study could be considered to be a survey. An exploratory study could be considered a survey. A comparative study could be considered a survey. A correlational study would be a relationship-difference study. A developmental study would be a relationship-difference study. A cross-sectional study would be a developmental, relationship-difference study.

100
Q

Which studies are classified as relationship-difference studies? (Select all that apply.)

A. Descriptive

B. Correlational

C. Developmental

D. Exploratory

E. Comparative

F. Cross-sectional

A

B., C., F.

A correlational study would be a relationship-difference study. A developmental study would be a relationship-difference study. A cross-sectional study would be a developmental, relationship-difference study. A descriptive study could be considered a survey. An exploratory study could be considered a survey. A comparative study could be considered a survey.

101
Q

Which type of study would be classified as a developmental study?

A. Descriptive

B. Correlational

C. Developmental

D. Exploratory

E. Comparative

F. Cross-sectional

A

F.

A cross-sectional study would be a developmental, relationship-difference study. A descriptive study could be considered to be a survey. A correlational study would be a relationship-difference study. A developmental study would be a relationship-difference study. An exploratory study could be considered a survey. A comparative study could be considered a survey.

102
Q

Which type of study would be classified as a longitudinal study?

A. Survey

B. Correlational

C. Developmental

D. Experimental

A

C.

A longitudinal study is a developmental study, not a survey, correlational study, or experimental study.

103
Q

Which type of study is an ex post facto study?

A. Survey

B. Correlational

C. Developmental

D. Experimental

A

C.

A longitudinal study is a developmental study. An ex post facto study is not a survey, correlational study, or experimental study.

104
Q

Which type of study is a comparative study?

A. Survey

B. Correlational

C. Developmental

D. Experimental

A

A.

A comparative study is a survey. A comparative study is not a correlational study, developmental study, or experimental study.

105
Q

Which type of study is a prospective study?

A. Survey

B. Correlational

C. Developmental

D. Experimental

A

C.

A prospective study is a developmental study. A prospective study is not a survey, correlational study, or experimental study.

106
Q

Which type of study is a case-control study?

A. Survey

B. Correlational

C. Developmental

D. Experimental

A

C.

A case-control study is a developmental study. A case-control study is not a survey, correlational study, or experimental study.

107
Q

Which type of study is a cohort study?

A. Survey

B. Correlational

C. Developmental

D. Experimental

A

C.

A cohort study is a developmental study. A cohort study is not a survey, correlational study, or experimental study.

108
Q

The nurse researcher is designing an ex post facto study that uses cigarette smokers and nonsmokers. In such a study, the independent variable for the experimental group is considered to be what?

A. Cigarette smoking

B. Lung cancer

C. Absence of lung cancer

D. Lack of cigarette smoking

A

A.

In such a design, cigarette smoking would be the independent variable for the experimental group. Lung cancer would be the dependent variable for the experimental group. Absence of lung cancer would be neither the independent nor the dependent variable for the experimental group. It is considered to be the dependent variable for the control group. Lack of cigarette smoking would not be a variable for the groups because the control group would be characterized entirely by their lack of cigarette smoking.

109
Q

The nurse researcher is designing an ex post facto study that uses cigarette smokers and nonsmokers. In such a study, the dependent variable for the control group is considered to be what?

A. Cigarette smoking

B. Lung cancer

C. Absence of lung cancer

D. Lack of cigarette smoking

A

C.

Absence of lung cancer is considered to be the dependent variable for the control group. In such a design, cigarette smoking would be the independent variable for the experimental group. Lung cancer would be the dependent variable for the experimental group. Lack of cigarette smoking would not be a variable for the groups because the control group would be characterized entirely by their lack of cigarette smoking.

110
Q

What does Phase I of a meta-analysis include? (Select all that apply.)

A. Pooled average result

B. Outcome data

C. Sample sizes

D. Decision regarding calculation

A

B., C.

Phase I of a meta-analysis includes data extraction such as outcome data, sample sizes, and measures of variability from the identified studies. The pooled average result is included in Phase II of a meta-analysis. A decision regarding whether or not it is appropriate to calculate is made in Phase II.

111
Q

What does Phase II of a meta-analysis include? (Select all that apply.)

A. Pooled average result

B. Outcome data

C. Sample sizes

D. Decision regarding calculation

A

A., D.

The pooled average result is included in Phase II of a meta analysis. A decision regarding whether or not it is appropriate to calculate is made in Phase II. Phase I of a meta-analysis includes data extraction such as outcome data, sample sizes, and measures of variability from the identified studies.

112
Q

The Critical Appraisal Skills Program Checklists provide an evidence-based approach for assessing what? (Select all that apply.)

A. Consistency

B. Quality

C. Correlation

D. Quantity

A

A., B., D.

The Critical Appraisal Skills Program Checklists provide an evidence-based approach for assessing consistency, quality, and quantity.

Incorrect Feedback:
The Critical Appraisal Skills Program Checklists are not used for assessing correlation.

113
Q

The Critical Appraisal Skills Program Checklists consist of tools that are used to assess a study’s what? (Select all that apply.)

A. Reliability

B. Methodology

C. Consistency

D. Validity

A

A., B., D.

The Critical Appraisal Skills Program Checklists consist of tools that are used to assess a study’s reliability, methodology, and validity. The Critical Appraisal Skills Program Checklists are not used to assess the consistency of a study.

114
Q

The Critical Appraisal Skills Program Checklists include questions that focus on what? (Select all that apply.)

A. Are the study’s results valid?

B. What are the results?

C. Are findings applicable to your practice?

D. How will the findings be reported?

A

A., B., C.

The Critical Appraisal Skills Program Checklists include questions that focus on validity of the results. The Critical Appraisal Skills Program Checklists include questions that focus on the results of the research. The Critical Appraisal Skills Program Checklists include questions that focus on applicability of the findings to practice. The Critical Appraisal Skills Program Checklists do not include questions that focus on how findings will be reported.

115
Q

Which is an accurate statement about qualitative research? (Select all that apply.)

A. Qualitative research focuses on variables that can be measured in terms of quantity, amount, frequency, or intensity.

B. There are three specific approaches for conducting qualitative research: phenomenology, grounded theory, and case study.

​C. Qualitative research takes place in naturalistic settings and may utilize participant observation as a data-gathering technique.

​D. Open-ended survey questions are one method of gathering data for qualitative research.

A

C, D

Qualitative research takes place where participants are located. Open-ended questions are frequently used to gather data. Qualitative research focuses on qualities of a process or entity and meanings that cannot be measured in terms of quantity, amount, frequency, or intensity. There are many different approaches for conducting qualitative research.

116
Q

A study’s context could be considered to be what? (Select all that apply.)

A. Cultural beliefs of study participants

B. The physical setting of the study

​C. The sample selected for the study

​D. The number of subjects in the study

A

A, B

The culture of study participants provides context for their perceptions. The physical setting of the study provides context for the perceptions of participants. The sample selected for the study is not, in itself, likely to be considered a context for the study. The number of subjects selected for the study is not likely to be considered a context for the study.

117
Q

What is an accurate statement regarding the constructivist paradigm? (Select all that apply.)

​A. There are multiple realities.

​B. The truth is objective.

​C. Context does not matter as much as truth.

​D. The participant is an active part of the study.

A

A, D

Within the constructivist paradigm, there are multiple realities and the participant is an active part of the study. Within the constructivist paradigm, the truth is subjective and context is as important as the perceptions of the participants.

118
Q

Which would be an accurate way to describe qualitative research? (Select all that apply.)

​A. Numerical

​B. Inductive

​C. Explanatory

​D. Descriptive

A

B, C, D

Qualitative research uses words rather than numbers to explain phenomena. Qualitative research is considered to be inductive and explanatory in nature. Qualitative research is considered to be descriptive in nature because it tends to describe a subject’s “lived experience.”

119
Q

What does the constructivist paradigm value? (Select all that apply.)

​A. Subjectivism

​B. Natural laws

​C. Time and place

​D. Generalizability

A

A, C

Subjectivism is valued in the constructivist paradigm. Context, including time and place, is important. Belief in the existence of natural laws is consistent with the positivist paradigm. Generalizability is valued in quantitative research.

120
Q

Knowledge gained from science is considered valuable to nursing practice for which reason?

​A. In the past, nursing care was based on folklore and practices that are no longer effective.

​B. Nurses have more information with which to make patient care decisions.

​C. Nurses can demonstrate to physicians that nursing care is effective.

​D. Health care costs are reduced when nursing care is efficient.

A

B

Nursing care was based on the medical beliefs of the time, some of which have been shown to be effective. The value of scientific knowledge does not lie in the perceptions of other health care team members. Although health care costs are reduced when nursing care is efficient, this statement does not address the value of scientific knowledge and is not the best answer. Science, through research, provides evidence of the most effective nursing care.

121
Q

Which is an accurate statement regarding paradigms?

​A. All research, both quantitative and qualitative, is based on paradigms.

​B. Not all paradigms are correct; research helps scientists determine which paradigms work.

​C. There is one reality, or paradigm, and research gives us information about that reality.

​D. Multiple paradigms are true, and research helps determine which paradigms are true.

A

A

All research is based on philosophical beliefs, or paradigms, about the world. Paradigms are not “right” or “wrong.” Some work better than others to explain observed phenomena. Qualitative research is based on a paradigm of multiple realities.

122
Q

Which paradigm most clearly provides the basis for qualitative research?

​A. Empirical analytical research

​B. Constructivism

​C. Postpositivism

​D. Naturalistic research

A

B

The paradigm that provides the basis for qualitative research is constructivism. The term empirical analytical research is synonymous with quantitative research. Postpositivism is the paradigm that provides the basis of quantitative research. The term naturalistic research is synonymous with qualitative research.

123
Q

hich is an example of how research approaches fall along a continuum?

​A. Naturalistic research at one end and qualitative research at the other

​B. Naturalistic research at one end and constructivism at the other

​C. Empirical analytical research at one end and naturalistic research at the other

​D. Empirical analytical research at one end and quantitative research at the other

A

C

Research approaches at the two extremes of the continuum are empirical analytical and naturalistic research. The term naturalistic research is synonymous with qualitative research. Constructivism is the paradigm that provides the basis for naturalistic research. The termempirical analytical research is synonymous with quantitative research.

124
Q

The data collection phase of qualitative research most appropriately occurs after which phase of the research process?

​A. Study design

​B. Setting

​C. Sample

​D. Data analysis

A

B

Data collection usually occurs after the setting phase, not the study design phase, sample phase, or data analysis phase.

125
Q

The nurse researcher is interested in acting as a neutral observer during the study. She or he should most appropriately select which type of research?

A. Qualitative research

​B. Ethnographic research

​C. Quantitative research

​D. Case studies

A

C

In quantitative research, researchers must remain neutral. In qualitative research, researchers are never considered neutral. In ethnography, a type of qualitative research, researchers are never considered neutral. In case studies, a type of qualitative research, researchers are never considered neutral.

126
Q

The type of research that can be most affected by the values of the researcher is what?

​A. Qualitative

​B. Naturalistic

​C. Ethnographic

​D. Quantitative

A

D

In quantitative research, researchers must remain neutral. The values of the researcher must be acknowledged in qualitative research and naturalistic research.

127
Q

Which of Kearney’s Modes of Clinical Applications for Qualitative Research should be used if the nurse researcher wants to be able to share qualitative findings with the patient?

​A. Insight or empathy

​B. Assessment of status/progress

​C. Anticipatory guidance

​D. Coaching

A

C

Anticipatory guidance allows the nurse to share qualitative findings with the patient. Insight or empathy allows the nurse to better understand patients and offer more sensitive support. Assessment of status or progress allows the nurse to describe the trajectories of a patient’s illness. Coaching allows the nurse to advise patients of steps that they can take to reduce distress or improve their adjustment to an illness according to the evidence in a study.

128
Q

Which of Kearney’s Modes of Clinical Applications for Qualitative Research should be utilized if the nurse researcher wants to be able to better understand how a cancer patient is reacting to his diagnosis?

​A. Insight or empathy

​B. Assessment of status/progress

​C. Anticipatory guidance

​D. Coaching

A

A

Insight or empathy allows the nurse to better understand patients and offer more sensitive support. Assessment of status or progress allows the nurse to describe the trajectories of a patient’s illness. Anticipatory guidance allows the nurse to share qualitative findings with the patient. Coaching allows the nurse to advise patients of steps that they can take to reduce distress or improve their adjustment to an illness according to the evidence in a study

129
Q

In research conducted using grounded theory, what signals the collection of an adequate amount of data?

​A. Saturation

​B. Contextual understanding

​C. Significance

​D. Conceptualization

A

A

Data are collected until no new themes emerge (saturation). Contextual understanding comes from analysis of data. “Significance” is a term used in quantitative analysis, not typically in qualitative analysis. Conceptualization is the formation of an image or symbolic representation of an abstract ideal. In grounded theory, this occurs with data analysis.

130
Q

Which of Kearney’s Modes of Clinical Applications for Qualitative Research should be used if the nurse researcher wants to be able to better advise a patient of how to cope with the side effects of chemotherapy?

​A. Insight or empathy

​B. Assessment of status/progress

​C. Anticipatory guidance

​D. Coaching

A

D

Coaching allows the nurse to advise patients of steps that they can take to reduce distress or improve their adjustment to an illness according to the evidence in a study. Insight or empathy allows the nurse to better understand patients and offer more sensitive support. Assessment of status or progress allows the nurse to describe the trajectories of a patient’s illness. Anticipatory guidance allows the nurse to share qualitative findings with the patient.

131
Q

Which of Kearney’s Categories of Qualitative Findings can provide the nurse researcher with a map into previously uncharted territory in the human experience of health and illness?

​A. Restricted by a priori frameworks

​B. Descriptive categories

​C. Shared pathway or meaning

​D. Depiction of experiential variation

A

B

Descriptive categories provide a map into previously uncharted territory in the human experience of health and illness. “Restricted by a priori frameworks” means that discovery was aborted because the researcher has obscured the findings with an existing theory. “Shared pathway or meaning” is the synthesis of a shared experience or process. “Depiction of experiential variation” describes the main essence of an experience but also shows how the experience varies, depending on the individual or context.

132
Q

Why should a nurse researcher have an understanding of the philosophy underlying each type of research?

​A. Conclusions reached should be congruent with the research question.

​B. The research method that best meets the intended purpose of the study should be used.

C. The reader should understand the level of abstraction of the study.

​D. The paradigm of the method should be the same as that of the researcher.

A

B

Different research methods accomplish different goals and offer different types and levels of evidence that inform practice. The congruence of the conclusions reached and the research question is assured by the methods used to collect and analyze data. It is more important for the reader to understand the paradigm underlying the research method than to determine the level of abstraction of the concepts studied. The research must use a paradigm that best fits the amount of knowledge that exists about the topic under study.

133
Q

Which of Kearney’s Categories of Qualitative Findings would apply if the nurse researcher has to abort the study because the findings have been obscured with an existing theory?

​A. Restricted by a priori frameworks

​B. Descriptive categories

​C. Shared pathway or meaning

​D. Depiction of experiential variation

A

A

“Restricted by a priori frameworks” means that discovery was aborted because the researcher has obscured the findings with an existing theory. “Descriptive categories” provides a map into previously uncharted territory in the human experience of health and illness. “Shared pathway or meaning” is the synthesis of a shared experience or process. “Depiction of experiential variation” describes the main essence of an experience but also shows how the experience varies, depending on the individual or context.

134
Q

Which question will most accurately critique the sampling of a research project?

​A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?

​B. What is the projected significance of the work to nursing?

​C. Are the informants who were chosen appropriate to inform the research?

​D. What are the philosophic underpinnings of the research method?

A

C

“Are the informants who were chosen appropriate to inform the research?” is the question that would critique the sampling of a research project.

135
Q

Which question will most accurately critique the method of a research project?

​A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?

​B. What is the projected significance of the work to nursing?

​C. Are the informants who were chosen appropriate to inform the research?

​D. What are the philosophic underpinnings of the research method?

A

A

“Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?” is the question that would critique the method of a research project.

136
Q

Which question will most accurately critique the purpose of a research project?

​A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?

​B. What is the projected significance of the work to nursing?

​C. Are the informants who were chosen appropriate to inform the research?

​D. What are the philosophic underpinnings of the research method?

A

B

“What is the projected significance of the work to nursing?” is the question that would critique the purpose of a research project.

137
Q

Which question will most accurately critique the credibility of a research project?

​A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?

​B. Does the researcher document the research process?

​C. Are the researcher’s conceptualizations true to the data?

​D. Has adequate time been allowed to understand the phenomenon fully?

A

D

“Has adequate time been allowed to understand the phenomenon fully?” is the question that would critique the credibility of a research project.

138
Q

The nurse researcher is working with children’s descriptions of pain during cancer treatment and what they consider to be good care during a painful episode. Which of Kearney’s Categories of Qualitative Findings would be most applicable in this case?

​A. Restricted by a priori frameworks

​B. Descriptive categories

​C. Shared pathway or meaning

​D. Depiction of experiential variation

A

B

“Descriptive categories” would be applicable if children are describing pain and what they consider to be good care during a painful episode. “Restricted by a priori frameworks” would be applicable if the researcher is using the theory of “relatedness” to describe women’s relationships, without substantiation in the data, and when there may be an alternative explanation to describe how women exist in relationship to others. “Shared pathway or meaning” would be applicable if the researcher is describing a woman’s process of recovery from depression. “Depiction of experiential variation” would be applicable if the researcher is describing how pregnant women recovering from cocaine addiction might or might not move forward to create a new life, depending on the amount of structure they imposed on their behavior and their desire to give up drugs and change their lives.

139
Q

The nurse researcher is working with pregnant women recovering from cocaine addiction to describe how they move on to create a new life. Which of Kearney’s Categories of Qualitative Findings would be most applicable in this case?

​A. Restricted by a priori frameworks

​B. Descriptive categories

​C. Shared pathway or meaning

​D. Depiction of experiential variation

A

D

“Depiction of experiential variation” would be applicable if the researcher is describing how pregnant women recovering from cocaine addiction might or might not move forward to create a new life, depending on the amount of structure they imposed on their behavior and their desire to give up drugs and change their lives. “Restricted by a priori frameworks” would be applicable if the researcher is using the theory of “relatedness” to describe women’s relationships, without substantiation in the data, and when there may be an alternative explanation to describe how women exist in relationship to others. “Descriptive categories” would be applicable if children are describing pain and what they consider to be good care during a painful episode. “Shared pathway or meaning” would be applicable if the researcher is describing a woman’s process of recovery from depression.

140
Q

The nurse researcher has decided to assess patient and provider responses to a computerized symptom assessment system. Which design of types would be applicable? (Select all that apply).

  1. Exploratory
  2. Descriptive
  3. Longitudinal with retrospective
  4. Longitudinal medical records review
A

2, 3, 4

  1. This could be considered to be a descriptive design
  2. This could be considered to be a longitudinal with retrospective design.
  3. This could be considered to a longitudinal medical records review design.
  4. This would not be an exploratory design
141
Q

The nurse researcher has decided to determine factors predictive of parenting self-efficacy at 12 to 48 hours after childbirth and at 1 month postpartum. Which design of types would be applicable? (Select all that apply).

  1. Cohort
  2. Descriptive
  3. Longitudinal with retrospective
  4. Prospective
A

1, 4

  1. This would be a cohort design
  2. This could be considered a prospective design.
  3. This would not be a descriptive design.
  4. This could not be considered a longitudinal with retrospective design.
142
Q
A