Quesmed Flashcards

1
Q

What is impetigo caused by?

A

Staph aureus

Strep pyogenes

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2
Q

How does impetigo present?

A

golden, crusted skin lesions usually around the mouth and nose.

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3
Q

Localied to face impetigo management?

A

Topical fusidic acid

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4
Q

What is kawasaki disease?

A

Medium-vessel vasculitis, but the exact mechanisms and triggers are poorly understood.

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5
Q

Criteria for diagnosis of Kawasaki disease include fever for >5 days, and 4/5 of the ‘CREAM’ features:

A

Conjunctivitis
Rash
Edema/Erythema of hands and feet
Adenopathy (cervical, commonly unilateral)
Mucosal involvement (strawberry tongue, oral fissures etc)

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6
Q

Complication of Kawasaki disease?

A

Kawasaki disease is rare, but potentially fatal from the complication of coronary artery aneurysms, so it is crucial to perform an echocardiogram to screen for this.

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7
Q

Management of Kawasaki disease?

A

Treatment of Kawasaki disease is with aspirin and intravenous immunoglobulin (IV Ig). Aspirin is usually avoided in children due to the risk of Reyes syndrome (liver and brain damage).

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8
Q

What is coeliac disease?q

A

Coeliac disease is an autoimmune condition in which the immune system reacts to protein component of gluten (gliadin) and attacks the small bowel.

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9
Q

Presentation of coeliac disease?

A

Damage to the small bowel causes malabsorption, resulting in copious loose foul-smelling stool which distends the abdomen. Poor absorption through destroyed villi in the small bowel also leads to weight loss, muscle wasting, abdominal pain and failure to thrive.

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10
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis of coeliac disease?

A

small bowel biopsy.

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11
Q

Immune destruction of small bowel villi leads to diagnostic biopsy findings of:

A
Villous atrophy (as enterocytes forming the tips of villi are destroyed)
Crypt hyperplasia (basal cells rapidly divide to try to compensate for distal villi cell destruction)
Increased epithelial lymphocytes.
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12
Q

Serological markers for coeliac disease include:

A

Anti-tissue transglutaminase
Anti-endomysial autoantibodies
Antigliadin autoantibodies

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13
Q

Management of coeliac disease

A

diet excluding gluten, which is in wheat, rye, barley and some oats (oats themselves do not contain gluten, but are often contaminated with gluten during processing).

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14
Q

What is the defenition of pertussis?

A

severe URTI characterised by severe bouts of spasmodic coughing, which may lead to apnoea in infants, followed by characteristic gasping for breath.

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15
Q

Cause of whooping cough?

A

It is caused by bordetella pertussis and there has been a recent resurgence even in vaccinated countries due to lower vaccination uptake.

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16
Q

Symptoms seen in pertussis infection:

A
Cough
Inspiratory whooping
Rhinorrhoea
Post-tussive vomiting
Decreased food intake
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17
Q

Management of pertussis?

A

1st line treatment in children over 1 month of age is with azithromycin.
2nd line treatment in children over 1 month of age is with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

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18
Q

Complications of pertussis?

A

Apnoea is a rare but life-threatening acute complication of pertussis
Pneumonia either due to bordetella pertusssis or secondary to another organism
Seizure triggered by cerebral hypoxia which can develop during severe cough paroxysms
Otitis media is the most common complication in pertussis and is often seen in the following few weeks

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19
Q

There are many factors in why children might become constipated:

A
Low fibre diet
Dislike of using toilet
Pain on passing stool
Anal fissure
Not recognising sensation of needing to pass stool
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20
Q

Diagnosis of chronic constipation?

A

Chronic constipation is diagnosed from history and palpation of impacted faeces (hard depressible masses) on abdominal examination. An abdominal ultrasound can also be helpful if the examination is not clear.

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21
Q

Management of chronic constipation?

A

Treatment of chronic constipation is with a movicol disimpaction regimen, followed by maintenance movicol, in tandem with a high fibre diet and parenting advice about encouraging good toilet habits.

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22
Q

What is hirchsprung’s disease?

A

As the baby develops in utero, the distal colon is not innervated correctly. The resulting aganglionic colon is shrunken and not able to distend properly. This causes a back pressure of stool trapped in the more proximal colon.

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23
Q

Hirschsprung’s disease can present at birth with:

A

a delay in passing meconium (>48 hours)
a distended abdomen
forceful evacuation of meconium after digital rectal examination

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24
Q

Hirchsprung’s disease diagnosis?

A

Rectal suction biopsy.

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25
Q

Management of Hirchsprung’s disease?

A

Definitive management of Hirschsprung’s disease is through removal of the section of aganglionic colon.

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26
Q

A 7 year old girl presents to the GP with her mother. Over the last 24 hours she has developed a rash all over her face and body, which is itchy. She has not eaten much and appeared very sleepy to her mother. She was previously well and is up to date with all scheduled immunisations. On examination she has a maculopapular vesicular rash, which blanches under pressure, with signs of excoriation over her face and whole body.

Diagnsosi?

A

Chicken pox

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27
Q

What is noctural enuresis?

A

Wetting the bed at night is extremely common in young children as they learn to gain voluntary control of the bladder sphincters. It is considered normal until the age of 5

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28
Q

Management of noctural enuresis?

A

Depends on underlying cause
children and parents should be counselled that bedwetting is very common, and that the child should not be blamed in any way.

Star charts are a useful initial conservative approach.
The first-line is generally a nocturesis alarm, which is a device that detects water in the underwear and activates an alarm. This alerts the child that they need to wake up and go to the bathroom. Alarms are generally very effective in training children.
Children over the age of 7 can trial DDAVP, synthetic ADH, if the alarm has failed or rapid control is needed. This drug increases water re-absorption and reduces urine production overnight.

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29
Q

Diagnosis of hydroceles?

A

confirmed with an ultrasound scan, which demonstrate simple fluid accumulated around the testicle.

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30
Q

Total daily fluid requirements in children:

A

1st 10kg of bodyweight at100ml/kg/day
2nd 10kg of bodyweight at 50ml/kg/day
Remaining bodyweight at 20ml/kg/day

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31
Q

Defenition of biliary atresia?

A

Rare condition where the bile ducts of an infant are progressively fibrosed and destroyed, leading to conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia, liver failure and death if not treated.

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32
Q

Biliary atresia presentation

A

Biliary atresia presents with prolonged jaundice (yellow skin and scleral icterus that persists beyond 14 days of life) with signs of biliary obstruction (dark urine and chalky white stool).

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33
Q

Diagnosis of biliary atresia

A

Investigations in biliary atresia will show a raised conjugated bilirubin and deranged liver function tests.

A hepatic scintigraphy (technetium-99) radioisotope scan will highlight the liver (takes up the isotope) but poor excretion into the bowel (as the bile ducts connecting the liver and the gut have been destroyed).

Abdominal ultrasound reveals echogenic fibrosis.

Definitive diagnosis of biliary atresia is confirmed with cholangiography, which will fail to show normal architecture of the biliary tree.

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34
Q

Management of biliary atresia

A

Management of biliary atresia is surgical. This involves a hepatoportoenterostomy (Kasai procedure), which creates a new pathway from the liver to the gut to bypass fibrosed ducts.

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35
Q

The newborn neonatal resuscitation pathway is as follows:

A

Birth
Dry baby and perform initial check- assess tone, breathing and heart rate
If gasping or not breathing- open airway, give five inflation breaths and consider oxygen and ECG monitoring
Reassess- look for improvement and response in heart rate and chest movement during inflation
If chest not moving- optimise airway control, repeat inflation breaths, give oxygen (if not given already), consider ECG monitoring (if not already doing so) and look for a response
If no increase in heart rate at this point, re-assess for chest movement and repeat above steps if necessary
When chest is moving- if heart rate <60 bpm, ventilate for 30 seconds
At this point, reassess heart rate- if heart rate still <60 bpm, commence chest compressions at a rate of 3:1
Continue this process, re-assessing every 30 seconds- if heart rate remains <60 bpm, consider venous or osseous access and administering drugs
Throughout process: Keep the parents updated, and keep a record of time and timings of interventions

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36
Q

Managemnet of croup?

A

The management can be remembered with the acronym ODA:

Oxygen (humidified)
Dexamethasone PO 0.15mcg/kg or budesonide neb 2mg
Adrenaline nebulised (5ml 1:5000)

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37
Q

Rubella in pregnancy complications

A

Rubella poses a serious risk to unvaccinated pregnant women. Congenital rubella infection (in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy) can cause cataracts, deafness, patent ductus arteriosus, brain damage.

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38
Q

What is roseola?

A

Roseola is a very common childhood infection that classically causes a few days of fever followed by a widespread rose-pink macular rash with surrounding pale white halos. The fevers can be high (40 degrees). Roseola is the most common trigger for febrile seizures

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39
Q

What are the causes of roseola?

A

Human herpes virus 6 is the pathogen responsible for roseola

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40
Q

What is Meconium ileus

A

condition where the baby’s first stool (meconium) is so thick and sticky that it causes intestinal obstruction.
The vast majority of meconium ileus (around 90%) is associated with cystic fibrosis, where the chloride channel mutation causes the mucous in the meconium to be excessively thic

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41
Q

Presentation of meconium ileus?

A

Delay in passing meconium (>48 hours until the baby’s first poo) and can present with signs of obstruction (bilious green vomiting).

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42
Q

Diagnosis of meconium ileus?

A

Diagnosed with abdominal X-ray, which shows characteristic findings of a ‘bubbly’ appearance of the intestines with a lack of air-fluid levels.

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43
Q

Management of meconium ileus?

A

managed with ‘drip and suck’ (stomach drainage with an NG ryles tube, and IV fluids), along with enemas to remove the sticky meconium. In severe cases, surgery may be necessary

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44
Q

Causes of jaundice in less than 24 hours after birth

A

Haemolytic disorders (Rh incompatibility, ABO incompatibility, G6PD, spherocytosis), Infection (TORCH Screen is indicated)

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45
Q

Causes of jaundice 24 hours- 14 days after brith

A

Physiological jaundice, breast milk jaundice, dehydration, infection, haemolysis, bruising, polycythaemia, Crigler-Najjar Syndrome

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46
Q

Causes of jaundice more than 14 days after birth

A

Physiological jaundice, breast milk jaundice, infection (esp UTI), hypothyroidism, G6PD, pyloric stenosis, bile obstruction (biliary atresia), neonatal hepatitis

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47
Q

What is potters syndrome

A

Describes the typical physical appearance caused by pressure in utero due to oligohydramnios, classically due to bilateral renal agenesis.

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48
Q

Facial signs of potters syndrome

A

Flattened ‘parrot-beaked’ nose
Recessed chin
Prominent epicanthal folds
Low-set, cartilage-deficient ears (known as ‘Potter’s ears’)

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49
Q

What is acute epiglottitis

A

rapidly progressive infection causing inflammation of the epiglottis (the flap that covers the trachea) and tissues around the epiglottis that may lead to abrupt blockage of the upper airway and death.

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50
Q

Presentation of acute epiglottisi

A

Most common in children aged 1-6 years (similar age group to Croup)
High fever, ill, toxic looking child (septicaemia)
Intensely painful throat preventing child from speaking or swallowing; saliva drools down the chin
Soft inspiratory stridor and rapidly increasing respiratory difficulty over hours
Child sits immobile, upright with open mouth to optimise airway
Cough minimal or absent

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51
Q

Presentation of osteosarcoma

A

Pain and swelling with a prolonged onset are characteristic.

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52
Q

Presentation of acute ototis media

A

Acute otitis mediia often follows an URTI with an acute onset of pain (hence, this is why the child is irritable and tugging on his ear). The fluid behind the eardrum will build up and may burst the ear drum causing a discharge and a sudden relief of pain.
The build-up of fluid behind the ear drum results in a conductive hearing loss (Rinne’s test).

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53
Q

Indications for abx in acute otitis media

A

Perforated eardrum
<2 years old and bilateral
Present for ≥4 days
<3 months old

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54
Q

When does hand dominance develop?

A

2 years old

Children less than 18 months shouldnt have hand dominance

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55
Q

Presentation of coeliac disease

A

Damage to the small bowel causes malabsorption, resulting in copious loose foul-smelling stool which distends the abdomen. Poor absorption through destroyed villi in the small bowel also leads to weight loss, muscle wasting, abdominal pain and failure to thrive.

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56
Q

What human herpes virus is chickenpox?

A

Human herpes virus 3

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57
Q

What is oppositional defiant disorder

A

paediatric psychiatric diagnosis in which children show persistent defiant and hostile behaviour towards figures of authority, like a parent or teacher. The behaviour is not significant enough to be a serious disability in social functioning, like the more serious diagnosis of conduct disorder.

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58
Q

What is transient synovitis?

A

Benign cause of limp in children from inflammation of the synovial lining of the hip joint.

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59
Q

What does coxsackie A cause

A

causes hand-foot-mouth disease (vesicles on the hands, feet and buccal mucosa, and fever).

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60
Q

What does coxsackie B cause

A

causes myocarditis.

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61
Q

What does polio cause

A

Polio is now eradicated in the western world. In unvaccinated individuals, polio most commonly is asymptomatic. About a quarter of people develop relatively mild symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection, diarrhoea and vomiting. In 1% of infections, the virus affects the CNS which leads to paralysis. If severe and involving the diaphragm, children require ventilatory support (you may have seen pictures of ‘iron lungs’ used for respiratory support in the 1950s). Paralysis may persist if anterior horn cells are completely destroyed, leading to muscle wasting.

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62
Q

What does echovirus cause

A

aseptic meningitis and a febrile illness in children.

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63
Q

What is a reflex anoxic seizure

A

common benign cause of seizure in children from a temporary lack of blood flow to the brain.

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64
Q

What is west syndrome

A

Infantile spasms (West syndrome) is a form of epilepsy which starts around age 4-8 months.

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65
Q

Presentation of West syndrome

A

In West syndrome, children have seizures with myoclonic jerking, referred to as ‘jack knife’ spasms that occur in clusters.

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66
Q

Diagnosis of west syndrome

A

Infantile spasms are diagnosed by the history and by characteristic EEG findings of hypsarrhythmia.

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67
Q

Presentation of tetralogy of fallot

A

commonly diagnosed antenatally, or on detection of a murmur in the first few months of life. Babies can present with tet spells, which are acute episodes of cyanosis. During a tet spell, pulmonary stenosis causes a right-to-left shunt of deoxygenated blood across the ventricular septal defect. This results in hypoxia, causing pain (inconsolable crying) and cyanosis

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68
Q

Management of tet spells

A

managed with analgesia and supplemental oxygen. A last line medication is a vasoconstrictive agent (e.g. phenylephrine). Vasoconstriction will help to increase systemic vascular resistance, reducing the right-to-left shunt and improving cyanosis.

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69
Q

JIA presentation

A

initially presents with systemic signs of high fevers, malaise and a characteristic salmon pink rash. This is followed by joint pain in one or multiple joints.

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70
Q

Management of Kawasaki disease

A

Treatment of Kawasaki disease is with aspirin and intravenous immunoglobulin (IV Ig). Aspirin is usually avoided in children due to the risk of Reyes syndrome (liver and brain damage)

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71
Q

Presentation of foetal alcohol syndrome

A

functional or structural nervous system abnormalities e.g. decreased cranial size, structural brain abnormalities, abnormal neurological signs
growth impairment e.g. low birth weight, decelerating weight over time
specific facial abnormalities (e.g. short palpebral fissures, smooth philtrum and thin upper lip)

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72
Q

How is biliary atresia definitevly diagnosed

A

Cholangiography

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73
Q

5 components to APGAR score

A

Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration.

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74
Q

Incubation period of chicken pox

A

21 days

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75
Q

What is transient synovitis

A

benign cause of limp in children from inflammation of the synovial lining of the hip joint.

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76
Q

What distinguishes between transient synovitis and septic arthritis

A

Fever > 38.5ºC
Refusal to weight bear on affected side
Raised Inflammatory markers: ESR > 40; CRP > 20
Raised White Cell Count > 12000 cells/mm^3

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77
Q

Presentation of osteosarcoma

A

Pain and swelling with a prolonged onset are characteristic.

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78
Q

WHat is necrotising enterocolitis?

A

condition in which the bowel of premature infants becomes ischaemic and infected.

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79
Q

How does necrotising enterocolitis present

A

presents with vomiting (which may be bile streaked) and rectal bleeding (fresh blood in stool).

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80
Q

Management of necrotising enterocolitis

A

managed with broad-spectrum antibiotics (to cover both anaerobic and aerobic bacteria) and parenteral nutrition (to rest the bowel). Supportive treatment with IV fluids and ventilation are also crucial. Surgery to resect necrotic sections of bowel may be necessary, and is essential in cases of bowel perforation.

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81
Q

What causes bronchioloitis obliterans

A

Adenovirus

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82
Q

Presentation of turners

A
Short stature
Lymphoedema of hands and feet in neonate, may persist
Spoon-shaped nails
Webbed neck
Widely space nipples
Wide carrying angle
Congenital heart defects - coarctation of the aorta
Delayed puberty
Ovarian dysgenesis causing infertility
Hypothyroidism
Recurrent otitis media
Normal intellect
83
Q

What is roseola

A

very common childhood infection that classically causes a few days of fever followed by a widespread rose-pink macular rash with surrounding pale white halos. The fevers can be high (40 degrees). Roseola is the most common trigger for febrile seizures.

84
Q

How is pyloric stenosis diagnosed

A

Pyloric stenosis is definitively diagnosed with an abdominal ultrasound to visualise the hypertrophic sphincter.

85
Q

Management of pyloric stenosis

A

surgical with a pyloromyotomy to cut the pyloric sphincter to widen the outlet.

86
Q

Most likely pathogen in croup

A

Parainfluenza virus

87
Q

What vitamins are deficient in CF

A

poor fat absorption also contributes to deficiency of fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, and K)

88
Q

Management of RDS

A

Intratracheal instillation of artificial surfactant.

Additionally, if preterm delivery is suspected, giving the mother glucocorticoids before delivery can increase surfactant production in the baby. Glucocorticoids bind to nuclear steroid receptors to trigger surfactant synthesis.

89
Q

What is Henoch-schonlein purpura

A

Most common small vessel vasculitis in children. It most commonly affects children aged 3-5.

90
Q

Causes of henoch schonlein purpura

A

commonly preceded by a viral upper respiratory tract infection.

91
Q

Presentation of henoch schonlein purpura

A

presents with purpura or petechiae on the lower limbs and abdominal pain, arthralgia, and nephritis (haematuria +/- proteinuria), due to immunoglobulin deposition in the gut, joints and kidneys respectively.

92
Q

Management of henoch schonlein purpura

A

admitted for supportive management if their symptoms are severe or they are unable to tolerate sufficient oral fluids. NSAIDs are used for pain relief. Steroids are not used routinely, but can be used if pain does not respond to NSAIDs.

93
Q

Managament of constipation in children

A

Treatment of chronic constipation is with a movicol disimpaction regimen, followed by maintenance movicol, in tandem with a high fibre diet and parenting advice about encouraging good toilet habits.

94
Q

Why can coarctation of the aorta cause cerebral aneurysms

A

Reduced perfusion pressures distal to stenosis trigger the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system with limited effect as this won’t overcome the stenosis. It however will increase perfusion pressures before the stenosis, including the carotids, resulting in higher cerebral perfusion pressures which can cause aneurysms to form

95
Q

Which of the following is the rate at which chest compressions should be given in a newly born

A

3:1

96
Q

What is status epilepticus

A

life-threatening neurological condition defined as 5 or more minutes of either continuous seizure activity or repetitive seizures without regaining consciousness.

97
Q

Management of status epilepticus

A
Supportive care + oxygen + check glucose
Buccal midazolam or IV lorazepam
IV lorazepam
IV Phenytoin and/or IV phenobarbitone
Rapid sequence induction with sodium thiopentone in coordination with anaesthetics or intensive care
98
Q

Aetiology of early onset sepsis

A

Ascending microorganisms from cervix:
Group B streptococcus
Commonly colonises the genital tract of mothers and may be cleared normally by the mother.
Can cause asymptomatic bacteriuria or UTI in the mother
There is no routine screening for GBS.
Treat with IV benzylpenicillin intrapartum if: previous baby infected with GBS, maternal fever, positive swab/bacteriuria at any point in the pregnancy

Trans-placental:
Listeria, Toxoplasma, Rubella, CMV

99
Q

The parents of several young children with congenital heart defects are being taught paediatric basic life support.

To what depth should the parents be advised to aim for when performing chest compressions?

A

One third of the chest depth

100
Q

What is the double bubble sign on radiography a feature of

A

Duodenal atresia

101
Q

Gold standard diagnosis for muscular dystrophy

A

Muscle biopsy

102
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis of coeliac

A

Small bowel biopsy

103
Q

Diagnosis of EBV

A

usually made clinically, although a heterophile antibody ‘Paul Bunnell’ test will be positive if performed.

104
Q

What can an acute EBV infection cause

A

Hepatomegaly and splenomegaly

105
Q

How is DDH diagnosed after screening

A

If DDH is clinically suspected, a hip ultrasound should be ordered.

106
Q

Management of testicular torsion

A

Management involves expedited surgical exploration with fixation of the testicles with orchidoplexy.

107
Q

Management of a hydrocele

A

Most hydroceles will spontaneously resolve by 12 months. Therefore, management includes observation initially and then surgical correction if they have not resolved by 1 year. This is because there is a significantly increased risk of an indirect inguinal hernia.

108
Q

Most common cause of croup

A

Parainfluenza B

109
Q

Most common cause of epiglottitis

A

Haemophilus influenza B

110
Q

What is caput succedaneum

A

occurs in the newborn as a result of the pressure of the top of the infant’s skull against the dilating cervix during labour. It manifests as a subcutaneous serosanguineous fluid collection superficial to the skull. It does not usually require any treatment and resolves spontaneously over a few days.

111
Q

What is duodenal atresia

A

congenital malformation in which the duodenum does not recanalise and so is not patent. This obstruction causes bilious vomiting.

Additionally, it may be associated with polyhydramnios, because the baby cannot ingest amniotic fluid properly and so the volume of amniotic fluid builds up.

112
Q

Duodenal atresia is associated with:

A

Approximately 25% of cases are associated with Downs syndrome (trisomy 21)
Annular pancreas
Other intestinal atresias
VACTERL association

113
Q

Management of duodenal atresia

A

Duodenal atresia must be repaired surgically. Duodenoduodenostomy involves reconnecting the closed proximal and distal segments of the duodenum in order to relieve the obstruction.

114
Q

How does hand, foot and mouth disease present

A

presents with blisters on the hands and feet and ulcerations on the tongue and a fever. The rash usually presents in the context of another illness, usually the common cold.

115
Q

What is a morbilliform eruption

A

characterised by a generalised maculopapular rash. This child presented with lymphadenopathy, fever, abdominal pain and sore throat most likely as a result of infectious mononucleosis, not bacterial tonsillitis. Morbilliform reactions are extremely common in patients with infectious mononucleosis taking Amoxicillin.

116
Q

In adults, Parvovirus B19 presents with what

A

Arthralgias

117
Q

Which of the following routinely tested for substances is raised in physiological jaundice?

A

Unconjugated bilirubin

118
Q

What is reye’s syndrome

A

Poorly understood condition that results from aspirin treatment of viral infections in children.

119
Q

Presnetation of reye’s syndrome

A

Abnormal liver function tests, vomiting and encephalopathy (slurred speech, lethargy, coma and potentially death).

120
Q

Presentation of Ewing’s sarcome

A

Bone pain particularly occurring at night
A mass or swelling
Restricted movement in a joint

121
Q

Management of Ewing’s sarcoma

A

Referral to a specialist centre
Neo-adjuvant chemotherapy: vincristine, ifosfamide, doxorubicin and etoposide (VIDE) is a common combination
Surgery: may involve limb sparing surgery with a bone graft and reconstruction or a partial/complete amputation
Adjuvant chemotherapy or radiotherapy

122
Q

What is VSD

A

birth defect of the heart in which there is a hole in the wall (septum) that separates the two lower chambers (ventricles) of the heart.

123
Q

Presentation of VSD

A

may be asymptomatic if they are small, and may simply be noted on routine scans. Large VSDs present with shortness of breath on exertion (for example, whilst breastfeeding in infancy). As the work of breathing is greatly increased, there might be poor weight gain as energy is diverted to breathing instead of growing.

124
Q

Drugs that may prolong the QT interval include:

A
Macrolides
Quinolones
Tricyclics
Antipsychotics
Ondansetron
Metoclopramide
Amiodarone
Quinidine
Sotalol
125
Q

Presentation of ALL in children

A

Any children presenting in GP with bruising, enlarged lymph nodes and systemic illness should be referred for specialist assessment.

Lymphadenopathy is the most common sign in ALL.

Other symptoms which may be present include: hepatosplenomegaly, pallor or petechiae, fever, fatigue, dizziness, weakness, and epistaxis.

126
Q

Classic presentation of measles

A

Development of a fever above 40 degrees
Coryzal symptoms
Conjunctivitis followed by a rash about 2-5 days after onset of symptoms
Koplik spots are small grey discolourations of the mucosal membranes in the mouth and appear 1-3 days after symptoms begin during the prodrome phase of infection. They are pathognomonic for measles infection.

127
Q

What is silent chest

A

occurs because of bronchoconstriction so severe that there is not enough air movement to produce even an audible wheeze

128
Q

What happens to salt in bronchioloitis

A

Hyponatraemia is commonly seen as a complication in bronchiolitis caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).

129
Q

What is henoch schonlein purpura

A

most common small vessel vasculitis in children. It most commonly affects children aged 3-5.

130
Q

How does henoch schonlein purpura preset

A

Purpura or petechiae on the lower limbs and abdominal pain, arthralgia, and nephritis (haematuria +/- proteinuria), due to immunoglobulin deposition in the gut, joints and kidneys respectively.

131
Q

Mnaagement of henoch schonlein purpura

A

Supportive management if their symptoms are severe or they are unable to tolerate sufficient oral fluids. NSAIDs are used for pain relief. Steroids are not used routinely, but can be used if pain does not respond to NSAIDs.

132
Q

How does measles present in children

A

presents with a characteristic erythematous, blanching maculopapular rash all over the body, preceded by a fever, cough, runny nose or conjunctivitis and grey spots (Koplik’s spots) inside the cheeks

133
Q

Immune thrombocytopienia purpura

A

Autoimmune disease of unknown cause where the number of circulating platelets is reduced.
Follows on from viral infection

134
Q

Management of immune thronbocytopienia purura

A

Platelet transfusions should be avoided in the absence of life-threatening bleeding. Steroids are used in persistent cases, and splenectomy may be considered in refractory cases.

135
Q

X ray findings of osteosarcoma

A

new bony growth and a periosteal reaction causing a sunburnt appearance are typical of osteosarcoma.

136
Q

What is genomic imprinting

A

where gene expression is influenced by whether the gene was inherited from the mother or father.

137
Q

What is biliary atresia

A

paediatric condition where the bile ducts become progressively fibrosed and obliterated, which obstructs the flow of bile and presents as cholestasis in the first few weeks of life.

138
Q

Risk factors for sepsis include:

A

Age less than 1 year
Impaired immune function (e.g. diabetes, splenectomy, immunosuppressant medication, cancer treatment)
Recent surgery in the last six weeks
Breach of skin integrity (burns/cuts/skin infections)
Presence of an indwelling catheter or line

139
Q

Presentation of measles

A

Development of a fever above 40 degrees
Coryzal symptoms
Conjunctivitis followed by a rash about 2-5 days after onset of symptoms
Koplik spots are small grey discolourations of the mucosal membranes in the mouth and appear 1-3 days after symptoms begin during the prodrome phase of infection. They are pathognomonic for measles infection.

140
Q

What is necrotising enterocolitis

A

condition in which the bowel of premature infants becomes ischaemic and infected.

141
Q

Presentation of necrotitisng enterocolitis

A

presents with vomiting (which may be bile streaked) and rectal bleeding (fresh blood in stool)

142
Q

Wbat is a strangulated hernia

A

hernia that is cutting off the blood supply to the intestines and tissues in the abdomen.

143
Q

How do strangulated hernias present

A

Strangulated hernias present with abdominal pain and vomiting

Hernias can have an intermittent history of pain as the hernias are still reducible. Strangulated hernias are problematic as the blood supply to the part of the bowel that forms the hernia is blocked. The bowel that forms the hernia becomes ischaemic and necrotic. This can lead to sepsis.

144
Q

How is Ladd’s operation performed

A

performed, either open or laparoscopically, by untwisting the midgut volvulus, fixing the malrotated bowel in the correct location, removing Ladd’s bands (congenital adhesions) and performing an appendicectomy.

145
Q

Contraindication to vaccine when immunosuppressed

A

children with immunosuppression (e.g. from confirmed severe primary immunodeficiencies, chemotherapy or other immunosuppressive medications, or radiotherapy) should not receive live attenuated vaccines, such as the MMR vaccine, inhaled influenza vaccine or the varicella vaccine.

146
Q

What is malrotation

A

rare but extremely important diagnosis to make. In malrotation, early in development the midgut rotates and fixates in an abnormal position. This abnormal position makes the bowel more prone to volvulus (twisting around the mesentery) and compression of the duodenum by peritoneal bands (called Ladd bands).

147
Q

What is congenital hypothyroidism

A

partial or complete loss of function of the thyroid gland (hypothyroidism) that affects infants from birth (congenital).

148
Q

Most common cause of congenital hypothyroidism

A

most common cause of congenital hypothyroidism is a failure in thyroid development or migration.

Globally, the most common cause of congenital hypothyroidism is iodine deficiency. However, this is extremely rare in the UK.

149
Q

How does congenital hypothyroidism present

A

presents with an enlarged tongue (macroglossia), constipation, hypotonia, jaundice, poor feeding and poor brain development.

150
Q

Presentation of measles

A

characteristic erythematous, blanching maculopapular rash all over the body, preceded by a fever, cough, runny nose or conjunctivitis and grey spots (Koplik’s spots) inside the cheeks.

151
Q

Presentation of benign rolandic seizures

A

children characteristically have a tonic seizure overnight. This might be noticed by the parents if the child makes noises, or the child falls out of bed. They might also go unrecognised, but parents note that they find the child sleeping on the floor or with messy bedsheets in the morning.

152
Q

What can infection of parvovirus in first half of pregnancy cause

A

severe foetal anaemia that can precipitate hydrops foetalis and subsequent miscarriage

153
Q

Where is a VSD heard loudest

A

Lower left sternal edge

154
Q

What is a VSD

A

birth defect of the heart in which there is a hole in the wall (septum) that separates the two lower chambers (ventricles) of the heart.

155
Q

Presentation of VSD

A

may be asymptomatic if they are small, and may simply be noted on routine scans. Large VSDs present with shortness of breath on exertion (for example, whilst breastfeeding in infancy). As the work of breathing is greatly increased, there might be poor weight gain as energy is diverted to breathing in1stead of growing.

156
Q

What is Hirschsprung disease

A

Caused by an absence of ganglion cells in the myenteric and submucosal plexuses. It typically occurs in the rectosigmoid. Diagnosis is through rectal suction biopsy. Management is surgical, with removal of the aganglionic segment.

157
Q

Fragile X syndrome presents with features including:

A
A long face
Extra large testicles
Jaw and ears
Social anxiety
Autistic spectrum features
158
Q

What is fragile X syndrome

A

genetic disease caused by a trinucleotide repeat in the FMR1 (familial mental retardation 1) gene. Fragile X syndrome is the most common inherited cause of learning disabilities.

159
Q

What is oesophageal atresia

A

describes a blind-ending oesophagus. It is more common in trisomies – Downs/Pataus/Edwards

160
Q

Scarlet fever presents with a course red rash and other non-specific symptoms such as

A

Sore throat
Headache
Fever.

161
Q

What organism is acute epiglottitis caused by?

A

Haemophilus influenza B

162
Q

which anatomical anomaly determines the extent of cyanosis in Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?

A

Pulmonary stenosis

163
Q

What is mesenteric adenitis

A

Presents with a history of diffuse abdominal pain in the context of a previous upper respiratory tract infection. There may be a low-grade fever with generalized abdominal tenderness. Examination of the mouth may reveal pharyngitis. Children usually present being quite well with no alteration in appetite. US abdomen will show enlarged mesenteric lymph nodes with a normal appendix. Importantly, the appendix may not always be visualized on US abdomen, so clinical presentation must be taken into account when ruling out appendicitis.

164
Q

WHat is pierre robin sequence

A

genetic condition in which an infant is born with micrognathia (small jaw), glossoptysis (posterior tongue) and often cleft palate. As a result the infant may have breathing or feeding difficulties shortly after birth. It is associated with cleft palate.

165
Q

What is retinopathy of prematurity

A

ause of visual impairment in premature babies.

The mechanism of retinopathy of prematurity is thought to involve free radicals. Supplemental oxygen therapy creates free radicals which damage the retina and trigger proliferation of blood vessels on the retina. This can lead to retinal fibrosis, retinal detachment and ultimately blindness.

Babies born at less than 32 weeks gestation or less than 1.5kg birth weight should be screened for retinopathy of prematurity with fortnightly fundoscopy by an ophthalmologist.

166
Q

What is the treatment of retinopathy of prematuirty

A

firstly through prevention by careful administration of supplemental oxygen, and with laser therapy.

167
Q

Presentation of all

A

Lymphadenopathy is the most common sign in ALL.

Other symptoms which may be present include: hepatosplenomegaly, pallor or petechiae, fever, fatigue, dizziness, weakness, and epistaxis

168
Q

Treatment of transient synovitis

A

Treated using NSAIDs and bedrest for up to 6 weeks.

169
Q

What is eisenmenger syndrome

A

describes the reversal of a left-to-right shunt (patent ductus arteriosus, atrial septal defect, or ventricular septal defect) to a right-to-left shunt.

170
Q

General red flags of vomiting

A

With vomiting in children, there are several general and specific red flags. General red flags indicate that a child is significantly dehydrated by vomiting, for example if the child is drowsy or floppy, has dry mucous membranes and sunken eyes

171
Q

Specific red flags of vomiting may indicate a particular diagnosis:

A

Projectile vomiting around 6-8 weeks of age: pyloric stenosis
Bile-stained (green) vomit and abdominal distention: intestinal obstruction
Bloody stool with vomiting: Campylobacter/Salmonella gastroenteritis, intussusception
Paroxysmal coughing to the point of vomiting: whooping cough
Seizures/bulging fontanelle with vomiting: raised intracranial pressure

172
Q

What is tuberous sclerosis

A

autosomal-dominant, neurocutaneous, multi-system disorder characterised by cellular hyperplasia, tissue dysplasia, and multiple organ hamartomas.

173
Q

What is bacterial tracheitis

A

rare but dangerous condition that is similar to viral croup but the child has a high fever and has rapidly progressive airway obstruction with copious thick airway secretions

174
Q

What is hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy

A

term for brain damage resulting from ante- or perinatal hypoxia.

175
Q

Management of hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy

A

Management of HIE depends on presentation, and includes respiratory support, anticonvulsant therapy, and careful fluid balance, electrolyte monitoring and inotropes. Cooling the baby to induce mild hypothermia can also prevent further damage by secondary reperfusion injury.

176
Q

What is Wilm’s tumour

A

most common abdominal tumour in children.

177
Q

Presentation of Wilm’s tumour

A

Abdominal mass that doesn’t cross the midline (but may be bilateral in up to 5% of cases)
Abdominal distension
Haematuria
Normally otherwise asymptomatic unless tumour has grown so large that it is causing pain or infiltrating/disrupting other abdominal structures

178
Q

What is transient tachyponea of the newborn

A

parenchymal lung disorder characterised by pulmonary oedema resulting from delayed resorption and clearance of foetal alveolar fluid

179
Q

Why should aspirin not be given to children under 12

A

Associated with Reye’s syndrome

180
Q

What is Reye’s syndrome

A

acute liver failure and non-inflammatory hepatic encephalopathy which occurs in children under 12 who are given aspirin during the acute phase of a viral infection. Liver biopsies show microvesicular steatosis and venous collapse.

181
Q

Treatment of Reye’s syndrome

A

supportive, and often requires ITU admission. Lactulose can be used to lower ammonia levels.

182
Q

Who has parental responsibility

A

A mother always has parental responsibility

A father usually has parental responsibility if he is:

Married to the child’s mother
Listed on the birth certificate (for births after 2003, depending on which part of the UK the child was born in)
If the parents of a child are married when the child is born, or if they’ve jointly adopted a child, both have parental responsibility.
Married step parents and registered civil partners – have to obtain parental responsibility from the courts

183
Q

How can you lose parental responsibility

A

Parental responsibility awarded by the courts can only be removed by the courts
Parental responsibility is not lost by divorce or separation
Parental responsibility is not lost even if the parent has no contact with the child
Parental responsibility is not lost even if there is no financial contribution

184
Q

What is used to diagnoose Meckels’ diverticulum

A

A technetium scan, using radioactive metastable technetium-99, will highlight ectopic gastric mucosa in a symptomatic Meckels’ diverticulum. This is the commonest cause of per rectal bleeding in a child.

185
Q

How does measles present

A

characteristic erythematous, blanching maculopapular rash all over the body, preceded by a fever, cough, runny nose or conjunctivitis and grey spots (Koplik’s spots) inside the cheeks.

186
Q

How is vesicoureteric reflux diagnosed

A

diagnosed by a MCUG scan. MCUG is a diagnostic test to visualise the radioactive dye refluxing up into the ureters and/or kidneys.

Scarring of the kidneys is investigated using a DMSA test.

187
Q

Sepsis screen in undr 3 months

A

include blood cultures, urine cultures and CSF cultures - as well as microbiological sampling from any other site relevant to that case which may be cause for infection.

188
Q

Clinical features in infants of HF

A
Difficulty feeding
Faltering growth
Young children
Exercise intolerance
Abdominal pain and vomiting (especially upon exertion)
Fatigue
Poor appetite
189
Q

In slapped cheek what does the sign of a rash indicate

A

The child is no longer infectious

190
Q

What is a duodenal atresia

A

Congenital malformation in which the duodenum does not recanalise and so is not patent. This obstruction causes bilious vomiting.

Additionally, it may be associated with polyhydramnios, because the baby cannot ingest amniotic fluid properly and so the volume of amniotic fluid builds up.

191
Q

Diagosis of duodenal atresia

A

diagnosed with a characteristic finding of a ‘double bubble’ on abdominal x-ray (one gas bubble visible in the stomach, and one gas bubble visible in the most proximal (patent) part of the duodenum prior to the atresia).

192
Q

Management of duodenal atresia

A

repaired surgically. Duodenoduodenostomy involves reconnecting the closed proximal and distal segments of the duodenum in order to relieve the obstruction.

There is a 5% mortality risk associated with the initial repair.

193
Q

When patient has meningococcal infection what should close contacts and household members get?

A

ciprofloxacin as prevention of spread of the disease. A suitable alternative would be rifampicin.

194
Q

How can anaphylaxis sometimes occur?

A

As a bi-phasic reaction with second reaction occuring 4-6 hours after the inital one

195
Q

First line SSRI in under 18s

A
Fluoxetine
SSRI- Only drug of this class licensed for under 18s
196
Q

Measles presentation

A

presents with a characteristic erythematous, blanching maculopapular rash all over the body, preceded by a fever, cough, runny nose or conjunctivitis and grey spots (Koplik’s spots) inside the cheeks.

197
Q

Scarlet fever presentation

A

Sore throat
Headache
Fever.

198
Q

What is scarlet fever caused by?

A

Streptococcal infection

199
Q

What is Potters syndrome

A

describes the typical physical appearance caused by pressure in utero due to oligohydramnios, classically due to bilateral renal agenesis.

200
Q

Measles management

A

The illness is self-limiting, but because of the possible complications, routine immunisation is encouraged. It is caused by the measles virus.

201
Q

What are features o an innocent murmur

A
Localised with no radiation
May vary with posture
Soft systolic murmur with no diastolic component
No heaves or thrills
Asymptomatic
No added sounds
202
Q

How is definitive diagnosis of Hirschprung’s disease done

A

Take a biopsy at least 1.5 cm above the pectinate line

203
Q

Management of intussusception

A
Rectal air insufflation or contrast enema (only to be performed if child is stable)
Operative reduction indicated if –
Failure of non-operative management
Peritonitis or perforation is present
Haemodynamically unstable
204
Q

What is Ebsteins anomaly

A

Small RV and large RA