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LECOM embryology > Q1-intro, ovul, fert, implant, and embryonic period > Flashcards

Q1-intro, ovul, fert, implant, and embryonic period Flashcards

1
Q

what is the leading cause of infant mortality

A

birth defects

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2
Q

what are characteristics of fetal alcohol syndrome

A

thin upper lip, small mid face, short palpebral fissures, flat philtrum

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3
Q

what occurs during early development phase

A

fertilization, implantation, gastrulation, formation of placenta, determination of body axes

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4
Q

what occurs during embryonic period (broad)

A

formation of major organs and systems

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5
Q

define epigenetics

A

heritable changes in gene expression

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6
Q

define genetic imprinting

A

only one allele expressed in parent specific manner

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7
Q

what disorder occurs when the maternal genes on critical region of long arm of chromosome 15 are deleted

A

angelman’s syndrome

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8
Q

what disorder occurs when the paternal genes in the critical region of the long arm of chromosome 15 are deleted

A

prader-willi

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9
Q

what disorder occurs when a piece of chromosome 5 is missing

A

Cri-du-chat syndrome

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10
Q

what are errors in genetic programming/tissues

A

malformation

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11
Q

what occurs when genetically normal tissues forced into abnormal shaped by mechanical/environmental forces

A

deformations

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12
Q

what happens when already formed tissues experience a specific insult

A

disruptions

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13
Q

what happens when one anomaly leads to another

A

sequence

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14
Q

what is the predominant cause of down syndrome

A

when nondisjunction occurs in female gametes

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15
Q

what is the predominant cause of Turner’s syndrome

A

nondisjunction of male gametes

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16
Q

where does oogenesis occur

A

cortex of ovary

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17
Q

when does the first meiotic division of oogenesis begin

A

12th fetal week

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18
Q

what is the likely diagnosis for someone who has mental retardation, craniofacial abnormalities, epicentral folds and flat face?

A

trisomy 21

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19
Q

what is the likely diagnosis for someone who has intellectual disability, congenital heart defects, low set ears and flexion of fingers

A

trisomy 18

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20
Q

what is the likely diagnosis for someone who has intellectual disability, holoprosencephaly, congenital heart defects, deafness, cleft lip and palate?

A

trisomy 13

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21
Q

Name this stage of mitosis: chromosomes contrast and condense; chromatids begin to join by the centromere

A

prophase

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22
Q

name this stage of mitosis: chromatids become distinguishable

A

prometaphase

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23
Q

name this stage of mitosis: chromosomes line up at the equatorial plate and doubled structure is evident (mitotic spindles are present)

A

metaphase

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24
Q

name this stage of mitosis: centromere divides followed by migration of chromatids of to opposite poles of the spindle

A

anaphase

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25
Q

name this stage of mitosis: chromosomes uncoil and lengthen, nuclear envelope reforms and cytoplasm divides

A

telophase

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26
Q

define primordial follicle

A

primary oocyte + follicular cells

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27
Q

_______ are spermatogonia that undergo a limited number of mitotic divisions

A

Type A spermatogonia

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28
Q

______ are spermatogonia that undergo division to form primary spermatocytes

A

type B spermatogonia

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29
Q

what do theca internal cells secrete and what is it converted into (and by who)

A

secrete androstenedione and is converted to estrogen by granulosa cells

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30
Q

what do theca externa cells do

A

they are fibroblasts that form part of the stroma of the ovary

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31
Q

what happens to the egg after ovulation if it does NOT get fertilized

A

it will die and become the corpus albicans

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32
Q

what is the zone pellucida created by (the interaction between what?)

A

interaction between primary oocyte and granulosa cell

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33
Q

what type of follicle immediately precedes ovulation

A

graafian follicle

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34
Q

where does fertilization typically occur

A

ampulla of uterine tube

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35
Q

________ is a reaction that removes glycoproteins from the plasma membrane that is overlying the acrosome (making sperm fertile)

A

capacitation

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36
Q

what reaction must occur for sperm to get through the zone pellucida

A

acrosome reaction

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37
Q

what reaction occurs in order to prevent polyspermy, in which a calcium wave spreads out

A

cortical reaction

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38
Q

what reaction occurs by the occyte when it releases cortical granules making the zone pellucid impenetrable

A

zona reaction

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39
Q

what day does the morula form

A

day 3

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40
Q

where does the trophoblast come from

A

cells of the blastocyst wall (

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41
Q

what does the trophoblast form

A

fetal membranes and the placenta

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42
Q

where do embryonic stem cells typically reside

A

inner cell mass

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43
Q

what maintains the uterus in the secretory phase during implantation

A

progesterone and estrogen that is secreted by the corpus luteum

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44
Q

define hydatiform mole

A

trophoblast with only paternal genes that secretes high levels of hCG (that comes from the syncytiotrophoblast)

45
Q

what is the most common location for an abdominal ectopic pregnancy

A

rectouterine cavity (pouch of douglas)

46
Q

_____ is when the placenta covers the internal os

A

placenta previa

47
Q

______ is when the placenta grows through the endometrium to the myometrium

A

placenta accreta

48
Q

______ is when the placenta grows into the myometrium

A

placenta increta

49
Q

_______ is when the placenta grows into the perimetrium

A

placenta percreta

50
Q

________ is when the placenta separates partially or totally from the uterine wall

A

placenta abruptio

51
Q

what does the trophoblast differentiate into

A

cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast

52
Q

what does the inner cell mass differentiate into

A

epiblast and hypoblast

53
Q

what does the amniotic cavity grow within

A

epiblast

54
Q

hypoblast is______ while the epiblast is _______

A

ventral; dorsal

55
Q

what day does the lacunae form in the syncytiotrophoblast

A

day 9

56
Q

when do maternal blood vessels enlarge into sinusoids

A

9th day

57
Q

what cells form the primitive yolk sac

A

hypoblast cells

58
Q

what occurs in order for uteroplacental circulation to occur and on what day

A

sinusoids and lacunae fuse on day 11-12

59
Q

where does the extra embryonic mesoderm form

A

between inner surface of cytotrophoblast and outer surface of primitive yolk sac

60
Q

when does the primitive yolk sac diminish

A

after the large chorionic cavity forms within the splanchnic and somatic layers of the extra embryonic mesoderm

61
Q

what day does the cytotrophoblast form villi

A

13th day

62
Q

when does the secondary (definitive) yolk sac begin

A

on day 13 when the hypoblast cells migrate along the exocoelomic cavity

63
Q

what 2 cavities are formed during the “week of 2s”

A

amniotic cavity and yolk sac

64
Q

what secretes gonadotrophins

A

anterior lobe of the pituitary gland

65
Q

what surge at the middle of the cycle leads to ovulation

A

LH surge

66
Q

what type of cell do granulosa cells become after ovulation

A

lutein cells

67
Q

what are the stages that the endometrium goes through

A

follicular, secretory/progestional and menstrual

68
Q

what type of pregnancy is it when the blastocyst develops in the ovary proper

A

primary ovary pregnancy

69
Q

what 2 layers does the embryoblast divide into

A

epiblast and hypoblast

70
Q

_____ occurs when the forebrain is small, 2 lateral ventricles are merged into single ventricle and eyes are close together (hypotelorism)

A

holoprosencephaly

71
Q

_____occurs when there is insufficient mesoderm t is formed in the caudal-most region of the embryo (hypoplasia and fusion of lower limbs, vertebral abnormalities, renal a genesis, imperforate anus, abnormal genitalia)

A

caudal dysgenesis (sirenomelia)

72
Q

____ occurs when remnants of the primitive streak persist in the sacrococcygeal region and contain all 3 germ layers

A

sacrococcygeal teratomas

73
Q

______ occurs when the positioning of all organs is reversed in a mirror image

A

situs inversus

74
Q

______ occurs when there is discordant organ positioning with respect to symmetry with at least one organ (lateral defects because of failure to properly establish L-R axis) and have higher risk of midline malformations and congenital heart failure

A

situs ambiguous or heterotaxy

75
Q

______ occurs when the neural tube fails to close in the cranial region and most of the brain fails to form

A

anencephaly

76
Q

______ occurs when there are abnormally dense collections of capillary blood vessels that form most common tumors in babies; facial lesions may be focal or diffuse)

A

capillary hemangioma

77
Q

what genes form the anterior-posterior body axis prior to and during gastrulation

A

Homeobox or HOX

78
Q

what end of the embryo to epiblast cells migrate through the primitive streak

A

caudal

79
Q

what is the first thing the mesodermal cells go through the primitive streak to form

A

notochordal process (then the plate in the midline of the cranial end of the embryo)

80
Q

when does the notochordal plate become the notochord

A

when it detaches form the endoderm

81
Q

what does the notochord develop into?

A

Nucleus pulposus

82
Q

define vasculogenesis

A

blood vessels form from blood islands

83
Q

what induces mesoderm cells to form hemangioblasts in vasculogenesis?

A

FGF2

84
Q

what induces hemangioblasts to form blood cells in the center of the island and peripheral vessels

A

VEGF

85
Q

what is the formation of blood vessels sprouting from blood vessels

A

angiogenesis

86
Q

what is the main stimulator in the proliferation of endothelial cells that line vessels (in angiogenesis)

A

VEGF

87
Q

when does the capillary system become established in the embryo?

A

when the heart begins to beat

88
Q

what is the order of neurulation?

A

ectoderm dorsal to notochord forms a crest, then a plate, then a groove, then the neural tube

89
Q

what gives rise to the CNS

A

neural tube

90
Q

when does cranial closure of the neural fold at the cranial end occur

A

day 25

91
Q

when does caudal closure of the neural fold occur

A

day 28

92
Q

what disorder involves the vertebral arch missing, no neural protrusions and tufts of hair associated with the skin

A

SB occulta

93
Q

what disorder involves meninges protruding out of the NT

A

SB meningiocoele

94
Q

what disorder involves the spinal cord and meninges protruding out of the NT

A

SB myelomeningiocoele

95
Q

how do neural crest cells migrate

A

laterally away from the neural tube

96
Q

what gives rise to the PNS

A

neural crest

97
Q

what gives rise to the anterior pituitary gland

A

surface ectoderm

98
Q

what gives rise to the posterior pituitary gland

A

neural tube

99
Q

what disorder is a congenital anomaly of an a ganglionic segment of intestine due to the neural crest cells inability to colonize the colon?

A

Hirschsprung’s disease

100
Q

what gradients ventralize the mesoderm to form the intermediate and lateral plate mesoderm

A

BMP and Wnt

101
Q

what does the paraxial mesoderm give rise to

A

notochord and somites

102
Q

what do the ventral and medial walls of somites form

A

sclerotomes

103
Q

what do sclerotomes form

A

axial bone and cartilage (and CT of limbs)

104
Q

what cells form myotome

A

dorsomedial and ventrolateral cells

105
Q

what does myotome split into

A

epaxial (back) and hypaxial (lateral and ventral body wall) muscles

106
Q

what does lateral plate mesoderm split into

A

somatic (parietal) and splanchnic (visceral) mesoderm

107
Q

what is splanchnic mesoderm associated with

A

endoderm

108
Q

what is somatic mesoderm associated with

A

ectoderm

109
Q

what does the intermediate mesoderm give rise to

A

excretory ducts of urinary system and gonads

LECOM embryology (11 decks)

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