Psychology terms 2025 Flashcards

1
Q

Psychology

A

The scientific study of the mind and behavior.

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2
Q

Confirmation Bias

A

The tendency to favor information that confirms existing beliefs.

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3
Q

Hindsight Bias

A

The tendency to believe, after learning an outcome, that one would have foreseen it.

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4
Q

Overconfidence

A

The tendency to be more confident than correct—to overestimate the accuracy of one’s beliefs and judgments.

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5
Q

Empirical Evidence

A

Information acquired by observation or experimentation.

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6
Q

Scientific Method

A

A systematic approach to research where a problem is identified, relevant data is gathered, a hypothesis is formulated from these data, and the hypothesis is empirically tested.

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7
Q

Hypothesis

A

A testable prediction, often implied by a theory.

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8
Q

Falsifiable

A

Capable of being disproved by experimental results.

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9
Q

Peer Review

A

A process by which something proposed (as for research or publication) is evaluated by a group of experts in the appropriate field.

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10
Q

Replication

A

The action of repeating a study, using the same methods to see if the original results can be consistently reproduced.

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11
Q

Reliability

A

The consistency of a research study or measuring test.

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12
Q

Validity

A

The extent to which a test measures or predicts what it is supposed to.

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13
Q

The American Psychological Association (APA)

A

A professional organization representing psychologists in the United States.

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14
Q

Quantitative Data

A

Information about quantities; that is, information that can be measured and written down with numbers.

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15
Q

Qualitative Data

A

Descriptive information, which often comes from interviews, focus groups, or artistic depictions such as photographs.

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16
Q

Likert Scales

A

A psychometric scale commonly used in questionnaires, and is the most widely used scale in survey research.

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17
Q

Structured Interviews

A

A quantitative research method where the interviewer a set sequence of questions.

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18
Q

Survey Technique

A

A research technique that involves the collection of information from a sample of individuals through their responses to questions.

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19
Q

Wording Effect

A

The effect that question phrasing and order have on survey data.

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20
Q

Social Desirability Bias

A

A tendency to give socially approved answers to questions about oneself.

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21
Q

Self-report bias

A

the tendency for individuals to misrepresent their thoughts, feelings, or behaviors when answering questions or providing information about themselves.

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22
Q

Third Variable Problem

A

A form of confounding in which a third variable leads to a mistaken causal relationship between two others.

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23
Q

Scatterplot

A

A graphical representation of the values of two variables for a set of data.

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24
Q

Correlation Coefficient

A

A statistical index of the relationship between two things (from -1 to +1). REMEMBER! Correlation is NOT causation. Correlations predict.

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25
Q

Single-Blind Study

A

A study in which the participants do not know whether they are in the control group or the experimental group but the researchers do.

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26
Q

Double-Blind Study

A

A study in which neither the participants nor the experimenters know who is receiving a particular treatment.

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27
Q

Placebo effect

A

the phenomenon where individuals experience improvement in their condition solely because they believe they are receiving a beneficial treatment,

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28
Q

Placebo group

A

The group that receives the placebo; the control group

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29
Q

Placebo Condition

A

A condition in which treatment is not administered but the subject believes that it is administered.

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30
Q

Sample

A

A subset of individuals from a larger population, used to conduct research.

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31
Q

Representative Sample

A

A sample that accurately reflects the characteristics of the population as a whole.

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32
Q

Random Sample

A

A sample that fairly represents a population because each member has an equal chance of inclusion.

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33
Q

Sample Bias

A

A bias that occurs when a sample is collected in such a way that some members of the intended population are less likely to be included than others.

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34
Q

Generalizability

A

The extent to which the results of a study can be generalized or extended to others.

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35
Q

Negative Correlation

A

A relationship between two variables in which the variables move in opposite directions. For example, as one variable increases, the other decreases, indicating an inverse relationship.

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36
Q

Positive Correlation

A

A relationship between two variables in which both variables move in the same direction. For example, as one variable increases, the other also increases, indicating a direct relationship.

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37
Q

Directionality problem

A

the difficulty in determining which variable in a correlational study causes changes in the other, even when a correlation exists. CORRELATION DOES NOT EQUAL CAUSATION

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38
Q

Experimental Method

A

A method of research where the researcher manipulates one variable, and controls/randomizes the rest of the variables.

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39
Q

Independent Variable

A

The variable that is manipulated or controlled by the researcher.

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40
Q

Dependent Variable

A

The variable that is tested and measured in an experiment.

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41
Q

Confounding Variable

A

A variable that influences both the dependent variable and independent variable causing a spurious association.

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42
Q

Operational Definitions

A

Specifically defining a variable in terms of how it is measured or manipulated in a study.

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43
Q

Experimental Group

A

The group in an experiment that receives the variable being tested.

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44
Q

Control Group

A

The group in an experiment that does not receive the test variable.

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45
Q

Random Assignment

A

Assigning participants to experimental and control groups by chance, thus minimizing preexisting differences between those assigned to the different groups.

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46
Q

Experimenter Bias

A

A process where the scientists performing the research influence the results, in order to portray a certain outcome.

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47
Q

Statistics

A

A branch of mathematics dealing with the collection, analysis, interpretation, and presentation of masses of numerical data.

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48
Q

Descriptive Statistics

A

Statistics that summarize the data collected in a study.

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49
Q

Inferential Statistics

A

Statistics that allow one to make predictions and inferences about a population based on a sample of data.

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50
Q

Measure of Central Tendency

A

A statistical measure that identifies a single value as representative of an entire distribution.

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51
Q

Mean

A

The average of a set of numerical values.

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52
Q

Median

A

The middle value in a list of numbers.

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53
Q

Mode

A

The value that appears most often in a set of data.

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54
Q

Range

A

The difference between the highest and lowest values in a dataset.

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55
Q

Normal Curve

A

A bell-shaped curve that represents a distribution of values, frequencies, or probabilities so that most measurements are concentrated around the middle.

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56
Q

Standard Deviation

A

A measure of the amount of variation or dispersion in a set of values.

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57
Q

Percentile Rank

A

The percentage of scores in its frequency distribution that are equal to or lower than it.

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58
Q

Bimodal Distribution

A

A distribution that shows two different peaks or modes in the frequency of occurrences.

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59
Q

Statistical Significance

A

This tells us if the result of an experiment is probably true or just happened by chance. It checks if what we found in our experiment would happen often, or is rare when we think nothing special is going on.

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60
Q

Effect Sizes

A

This measures how big the impact of something is in an experiment. For example, it tells us how much a medicine really helps compared to not using the medicine at all.

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61
Q

Ethical guidelines

A

Guidelines protecting participants, ensuring informed consent, maintaining confidentiality, and minimizing harm, while also considering the use of deception and debriefing

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62
Q

Regression to the Mean

A

The phenomenon that if a variable is extreme on its first measurement, it will tend to be closer to the average on its second measurement.

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63
Q

Positive Skew

A

This happens when more numbers in a list are on the lower side, but a few really high numbers stretch the average higher.

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64
Q

Negative Skew

A

This is when more numbers in a list are on the higher side, but a few really low numbers pull the average down.

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65
Q

Institutional Review Boards (IRB)

A

A committee that reviews and approves research involving human subjects, ensuring that ethical standards are met.

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66
Q

Informed Consent

A

Permission granted with the knowledge of the possible consequences, typically that which is given by a patient to a doctor for treatment with full knowledge of the possible risks and benefits.

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67
Q

Informed Assent

A

Agreement by a minor or other parties not able to give legal consent to participate in the activity.

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68
Q

Confidentiality

A

The requirement that private or sensitive information is not disclosed without the consent of the person who provided it.

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69
Q

Deception

A

The act of misleading or wrongly informing someone about the true nature of a situation.

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70
Q

Confederates

A

Individuals who appear to be participants in a study but are actually part of the research team.

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71
Q

Debriefing

A

Providing participants in a study with a full explanation of the study after its completion, including the purpose and any deceptions used.

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72
Q

Naturalistic Observation (Research method one)

A

Observations of subjects in their natural environments without any manipulation.

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73
Q

Case Study (Research method two)

A

Intensive study of a single individual or group to explore specific phenomena.

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74
Q

Survey Technique

A

Uses questionnaires to collect data on various aspects from a large group of people.

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75
Q

Correlational Research (Research method three)

A

Examines the relationship between two or more variables to determine association.

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76
Q

Experimental Method (Research method four)

A

Manipulates one variable to determine its effect on another variable.

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77
Q

Meta Analysis (Research method five)

A

A statistical analysis that combines the results of multiple scientific studies.

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78
Q

Longitudinal Research

A

Research in which the same people are restudied and retested over a long period.

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79
Q

Evolutionary Perspective

A

Looks at how human behaviors helped our ancestors survive and reproduce.

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80
Q

Natural Selection

A

Process where traits that enhance survival and reproduction are passed on more frequently.

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81
Q

Nature

A

The influence of genetic factors on traits and behaviors.

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82
Q

Nurture

A

The influence of environmental factors on traits and behaviors.

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83
Q

Twin Studies

A

Research comparing the similarities between identical and fraternal twins to understand the influence of genetics versus environment.

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84
Q

Adoption Studies

A

Studies that compare biologically related people, including those raised apart, to understand genetic influences.

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85
Q

Family Studies

A

Research looking at behavioral traits in families to determine how much is genetic versus environmental.

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86
Q

Heredity

A

The passing of traits from parents to offspring through genes.

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87
Q

Genetic Predisposition

A

The likelihood of developing certain traits or disorders based on genetics.

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88
Q

Eugenics

A

A controversial and unethical movement aimed at improving the genetic composition of humans through selective breeding.

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89
Q

Cerebral Cortex

A

The outer layer of the brain, involved in complex mental processes such as thinking.

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90
Q

Frontal Lobes

A

Involved in decision-making, problem-solving, and controlling behavior.

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91
Q

Prefrontal Cortex

A

Part of the frontal lobes involved in planning complex behaviors and expressing personality.

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92
Q

Executive Functioning

A

Higher order processes including planning, organizing, and regulating behavior.

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93
Q

Motor Cortex

A

Controls voluntary movements.

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94
Q

Parietal Lobes

A

Processes sensory information like touch and spatial awareness.

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95
Q

Somatosensory Cortex

A

Area of the brain that processes sensory input from various body parts.

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96
Q

Occipital Lobes

A

Responsible for vision.

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97
Q

Temporal Lobes

A

Involved in hearing, memory, and understanding language.

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98
Q

Corpus Callosum

A

Thick band of nerve fibers that connects the two brain hemispheres.

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99
Q

Brainstem

A

Supports basic life functions, including heart rate, breathing, and sleeping.

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100
Q

Medulla

A

Part of the brainstem that controls vital life-sustaining functions like heartbeat and breathing.

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101
Q

Reticular Activating System

A

Regulates wakefulness and sleep-wake transitions.

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102
Q

Cerebellum

A

Coordinates voluntary movements like posture, balance, and coordination.

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103
Q

Limbic System

A

Involved in emotion, motivation, and memory.

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104
Q

Reward Center

A

Brain areas that regulate the experience of pleasure.

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105
Q

Thalamus

A

Relay motor and sensory signals to the cerebral cortex.

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106
Q

Hypothalamus

A

Regulates body temperature, hunger, thirst, and other homeostatic systems.

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107
Q

Pituitary Gland

A

The master gland of the endocrine system that regulates other glands.

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108
Q

Hippocampus

A

Essential for learning and memory.

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109
Q

Amygdala

A

Involved in emotion processing, particularly fear and aggression.

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110
Q

Nervous System

A

The body’s communication network consisting of nerve cells.

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111
Q

Central Nervous System

A

Consists of the brain and spinal cord.

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112
Q

Peripheral Nervous System

A

The sensory and motor neurons that connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body.

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113
Q

Autonomic Nervous System

A

Controls involuntary bodily functions.

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114
Q

Sympathetic Nervous System

A

Activates the body’s resources during stress and emergencies.

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115
Q

Parasympathetic Nervous System

A

Conserves energy and restores the body to a calm state.

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116
Q

Somatic Nervous System

A

Controls voluntary movements.

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117
Q

Neurons

A

Nerve cells that transmit information throughout the body.

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118
Q

Glial Cells

A

Support cells in the nervous system.

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119
Q

Motor Neurons

A

Carry signals from the spinal cord to muscles to produce movement.

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120
Q

Sensory Neurons

A

Carry signals from body parts to the central nervous system.

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121
Q

Interneurons

A

Connect sensory and motor neurons and carry impulses between them.

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122
Q

Reflex Arc

A

The nerve pathway involved in a reflex action.

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123
Q

Neural Transmission

A

The process by which neurons communicate with each other.

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124
Q

Threshold

A

The level of stimulation required to trigger a neural impulse.

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125
Q

Action Potential

A

A neural impulse; a brief electrical charge that travels down an axon.

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126
Q

All-or-Nothing Principle

A

The rule that neurons are either on or off.

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127
Q

Depolarization

A

A decrease in the electrical charge across a cell membrane.

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128
Q

Refractory Period

A

A period immediately following stimulation during which a nerve or muscle is unresponsive to further stimulation.

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129
Q

Resting Potential

A

The state of the neuron when not firing a neural impulse.

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130
Q

Reuptake

A

The absorption by a presynaptic nerve ending of a neurotransmitter that it has secreted.

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131
Q

Consciousness

A

The awareness of internal and external stimuli.

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132
Q

Circadian Rhythm (Sleep/Wake Cycle)

A

The body’s natural 24-hour cycle, affecting sleep and wakefulness.

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133
Q

Jet Lag

A

Fatigue caused by travel across different time zones, disrupting the circadian rhythm.

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134
Q

Shift Work

A

Employment with work hours scheduled at non-standard times.

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135
Q

NREM Stage 1

A

The initial stage of sleep, characterized by light sleep and slow eye movement.

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136
Q

Hypnagogic Sensations

A

Feelings of falling or hearing strange noises as one falls asleep during NREM Stage 1.

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137
Q

NREM Stage 2

A

The second stage of sleep, where body temperature drops and heart rate slows.

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138
Q

NREM Stage 3

A

The deepest and most restorative sleep stage; includes slow-wave sleep.

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139
Q

REM Sleep

A

A sleep stage marked by rapid eye movement and dreaming; brain waves are similar to wakefulness.

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140
Q

REM Rebound

A

The tendency for REM sleep to increase following REM sleep deprivation.

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141
Q

Activation-Synthesis (Dreams)

A

A theory suggesting dreams are caused by the brain’s attempt to make sense of neural activity during sleep.

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142
Q

Consolidation Theory (Dreams)

A

The theory that dreams help to cement memories and learning.

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143
Q

Memory Consolidation

A

The process by which temporary memories are converted into a stable form.

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144
Q

Restoration of Resources

A

The theory that sleep helps to restore physical and mental resources depleted during wakefulness.

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145
Q

Insomnia

A

Difficulty falling or staying asleep.

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146
Q

Narcolepsy

A

A disorder characterized by sudden and uncontrollable episodes of deep sleep.

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147
Q

REM Sleep Behavior Disorder

A

A sleep disorder where individuals act out vivid dreams with physical movements.

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148
Q

Sleep Apnea

A

A disorder where breathing repeatedly stops and starts during sleep.

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149
Q

Somnambulism

A

Sleepwalking, typically occurring during deep sleep.

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150
Q

Psychoactive Drugs

A

Substances that affect the mind, altering consciousness, perception, or mood.

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151
Q

Agonists

A

Drugs that increase the action of a neurotransmitter.

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152
Q

Antagonists

A

Drugs that block the action of a neurotransmitter.

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153
Q

Reuptake Inhibitors

A

Drugs that block the reabsorption of neurotransmitters, increasing their levels.

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154
Q

Stimulants

A

Drugs that increase brain activity, such as caffeine and cocaine.

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155
Q

Caffeine

A

A mild stimulant found in coffee, tea, and some sodas.

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156
Q

Cocaine

A

A powerful stimulant that affects the central nervous system.

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157
Q

Depressants

A

Substances that reduce neural activity and slow body functions, like alcohol.

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158
Q

Alcohol

A

A depressant that is commonly used and socially accepted but can impair reasoning and motor skills.

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159
Q

Hallucinogens

A

Drugs that cause perceptual distortions and heightened sensory experiences.

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160
Q

Marijuana

A

A commonly used hallucinogen that also has some depressant and stimulant effects.

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161
Q

Opioids

A

Drugs that act on the nervous system to relieve pain; includes heroin.

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162
Q

Heroin

A

An opioid drug that causes euphoria but is highly addictive and dangerous.

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163
Q

Tolerance

A

A condition in which more of a drug is needed to achieve the same effect.

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164
Q

Addiction

A

A psychological and physical inability to stop consuming a chemical, drug, activity, or substance.

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165
Q

Withdrawal

A

Symptoms that occur after stopping or reducing intake of a drug to which one has become addicted.

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166
Q

Sensation

A

The process by which sensory receptors receive and represent stimulus energies from our environment.

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167
Q

Transduction

A

The conversion of one form of energy into another. In sensory processing, it refers to transforming stimulus energies into neural impulses.

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168
Q

Perception

A

The process of organizing and interpreting sensory information, enabling us to recognize meaningful objects and events.

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169
Q

Absolute Threshold

A

The minimum stimulus intensity required to detect a stimulus 50% of the time.

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170
Q

Just-noticeable Difference (JND)

A

The smallest difference in stimulus intensity that a specific sense can detect.

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171
Q

Sensory Adaptation

A

Adjustment in sensory capacity after prolonged exposure to unchanging stimuli.

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172
Q

Weber’s Law

A

The principle that to perceive their difference, two stimuli must differ by a constant proportion, not a constant amount.

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173
Q

Synesthesia

A

A condition in which one sense is simultaneously perceived as if by one or more additional senses.

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174
Q

Retina

A

The light-sensitive layer of tissue at the back of the eye.

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175
Q

Blind Spot

A

The point at which the optic nerve leaves the eye, creating a ‘blind’ spot because no receptor cells are located there.

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176
Q

Visual Nerve

A

Another term for the optic nerve that carries neural impulses from the eye to the brain.

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177
Q

Lens

A

The transparent structure behind the pupil that changes shape to help focus images on the retina.

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178
Q

Accommodation

A

The process by which the eye’s lens changes shape to focus near or far objects on the retina.

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179
Q

Nearsightedness

A

A condition in which nearby objects are seen more clearly than distant objects.

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180
Q

Farsightedness

A

A condition in which far objects are seen more clearly than near objects.

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181
Q

Photoreceptors

A

Cells in the retina that respond to light.

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182
Q

Rods

A

Photoreceptors that detect black, white, and gray; necessary for peripheral and twilight vision.

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183
Q

Cones

A

Photoreceptors that detect color and detail, functioning in daylight or well-lit conditions.

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184
Q

Trichromatic Theory

A

The theory that the retina contains three different color receptors—one most sensitive to red, one to green, one to blue—which, when stimulated in combination, can produce the perception of any color.

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185
Q

Opponent-process Theory

A

The theory that opposing retinal processes enable color vision.

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186
Q

Afterimages

A

Images that occur when a visual sensation persists for a brief time even after the original stimulus is removed.

187
Q

Fovea

A

The central focal point in the retina, around which the eye’s cones cluster.

188
Q

Ganglion Cells

A

Neurons that relay information from the retina to the brain via the optic nerve.

189
Q

Wavelength

A

The distance between successive peaks of a wave, typically used in physics and communications to specify wave frequencies.

190
Q

Pitch

A

A tone’s experienced highness or lowness; depends on frequency.

191
Q

Amplitude

A

The height of a wave, determining the loudness of sounds.

192
Q

Loudness

A

A sound’s intensity.

193
Q

Pitch Perception

A

How high or low a sound seems.

194
Q

Place Theory

A

The theory that links the pitch we hear with the place where the cochlea’s membrane is stimulated.

195
Q

Volley Theory

A

The theory that frequencies of sound are coded by the rate of firing of neurons in the auditory nerve.

196
Q

Frequency Theory

A

The theory that the rate of nerve impulses traveling up the auditory nerve matches the frequency of a tone, enabling us to sense its pitch.

197
Q

Sound Localization

A

The process by which the location of sound is determined.

198
Q

Conduction Deafness

A

Hearing loss caused by damage to the mechanical system that conducts sound waves to the cochlea.

199
Q

Sensorineural Deafness

A

Hearing loss caused by damage to the cochlea’s receptor cells or to the auditory nerves.

200
Q

Hindbrain

A

The lowest segment of the brain, primarily involved in the regulation of basic bodily functions and consisting of the cerebellum, medulla, pons, and reticular formation.

201
Q

Midbrain

A

The middle segment of the brain, involved with motor control, vision, hearing, arousal, sleep, temperature regulation, and the transmission of sensory information.

202
Q

Forebrain

A

The highest segment of the brain, consisting of the thalamus, hypothalamus, hippocampus, amygdala, and cerebrum.

203
Q

Perception

A

The process of organizing and interpreting sensory information to make it meaningful.

204
Q

Bottom-up Processing

A

Analysis that starts at the sensory level and works up to higher levels of processing.

205
Q

Top-down Processing

A

Information processing guided by higher-level mental processes, as when we construct perceptions drawing on our experience and expectations.

206
Q

Schema

A

A concept or framework that organizes and interprets information.

207
Q

Perceptual Set

A

A predisposition to perceive things in a certain way.

208
Q

Gestalt Psychology

A

An approach to psychology that emphasizes that the whole is different from the sum of its parts.

209
Q

Closure

A

The perceptual tendency to fill in gaps in order to perceive a complete image.

210
Q

Proximity

A

Objects that are close to each other tend to be perceived as belonging together.

211
Q

Similarity

A

Objects that are similar in appearance are more likely to be perceived as belonging together.

212
Q

Figure and Ground

A

The organization of the visual field into objects (figures) that stand out from their surroundings (ground).

213
Q

Attention

A

Focusing awareness on a narrowed range of stimuli or events.

214
Q

Selective Attention

A

The focusing of conscious awareness on a particular stimulus.

215
Q

Cocktail Party Effect

A

The ability to focus one’s auditory attention on a particular stimulus while filtering out a range of other stimuli, much like tuning into a single voice at a noisy party.

216
Q

Inattentional Blindness

A

Failing to see visible objects when our attention is directed elsewhere.

217
Q

Change Blindness

A

Failing to notice changes in the environment.

218
Q

Binocular Depth Cues

A

Depth cues, such as retinal disparity, that depend on the use of two eyes.

219
Q

Retinal Disparity

A

A binocular cue for perceiving depth: By comparing images from the retinas in the two eyes, the brain computes distance—the greater the disparity (difference) between the two images, the closer the object.

220
Q

Convergence

A

A binocular cue for perceiving depth; the extent to which the eyes converge inward when looking at an object.

221
Q

Monocular Depth Cues

A

Depth cues, such as interposition and linear perspective, available to either eye alone.

222
Q

Relative Size

A

If two objects are known to be of similar size, we perceive the one that casts a smaller retinal image as farther away.

223
Q

Texture Gradient

A

The tendency for textured surfaces to appear to become smaller and finer as distance from the viewer increases.

224
Q

Linear Perspective

A

Parallel lines, such as railroad tracks, appear to converge with distance. The more the lines converge, the greater their perceived distance.

225
Q

Interposition

A

If one object partially blocks our view of another, we perceive it as closer.

226
Q

Perceptual Constancies

A

Perceiving objects as unchanging (having consistent shapes, size, and color) even as illumination and retinal images change.

227
Q

Availability Heuristic

A

Estimating the likelihood of events based on their availability in memory; if instances come readily to mind (perhaps because of their vividness), we presume such events are common.

228
Q

Mental Set

A

A tendency to approach a problem in one particular way, often a way that has been successful in the past.

229
Q

Priming

A

The activation, often unconsciously, of certain associations, thus predisposing one’s perception, memory, or response.

230
Q

Framing

A

The way an issue is posed; how an issue is framed can significantly affect decisions and judgments.

231
Q

Gambler’s Fallacy

A

The fallacy of thinking that future probabilities are altered by past events, when in reality they are unchanged. The fallacy lies in the belief that a departure from what occurs on average or in the short term will be corrected in the short term.

232
Q

Sunk-cost Fallacy

A

Making decisions about a current situation based on what one has previously invested in the situation.

233
Q

Executive Functions

A

Higher order thinking processes that include planning, organizing, inhibition, and decision-making.

234
Q

Creativity

A

The ability to produce novel and valuable ideas.

235
Q

Divergent Thinking

A

Expanding the number of possible problem solutions; creative thinking that diverges in different directions.

236
Q

Convergent Thinking

A

Narrowing the available problem solutions to determine the single best solution.

237
Q

Functional Fixedness

A

The tendency to think of things only in terms of their usual functions; an impediment to problem solving.

238
Q

Testing Effect

A

Enhanced performance on a memory test caused by being tested on the material to be remembered.

239
Q

Metacognition

A

Thinking about thinking. It refers to the processes used to plan, monitor, and assess one’s understanding and performance.

240
Q

Intelligence

A

Mental quality consisting of the ability to learn from experience, solve problems, and use knowledge to adapt to new situations.

241
Q

Apparent Movement

A

The perception that a stationary object is moving.

242
Q

Prototypes

A

A mental image or best example of a category. Matching new items to a prototype provides a quick and easy method for sorting items into categories.

243
Q

Assimilation

A

Interpreting new experiences in terms of existing schemas.

244
Q

Accommodation

A

Adapting one’s current understandings (schemas) to incorporate new information.

245
Q

Algorithms

A

A methodical, logical rule or procedure that guarantees solving a particular problem. Contrasts with the usually speedier—but also more error-prone—use of heuristics.

246
Q

Heuristics

A

A simple thinking strategy that often allows us to make judgments and solve problems efficiently; usually speedier but also more error-prone than algorithms.

247
Q

Representativeness Heuristic

A

Judging the likelihood of things in terms of how well they seem to represent, or match, particular prototypes; may lead us to ignore other relevant information.

248
Q

Construct Validity

A

The extent to which there is evidence that a test measures a particular hypothetical construct.

249
Q

Predictive Validity

A

The success with which a test predicts the behavior it is designed to predict; it is assessed by computing the correlation between test scores and the criterion behavior.

250
Q

Reliability

A

The extent to which a test yields consistent results, as assessed by the consistency of scores on two halves of the test, on alternative forms of the test, or on retesting.

251
Q

Test-Retest Reliability

A

A method for determining the reliability of a test by comparing a test taker’s scores on the same test taken on separate occasions.

252
Q

Split-Half Reliability

A

A measure of reliability in which a test is split into two parts and an individual’s scores on both halves are compared.

253
Q

Stereotype Threat

A

A self-confirming concern that one will be evaluated based on a negative stereotype.

254
Q

Stereotype Lift

A

When awareness of positive expectations improves performance on tasks.

255
Q

Flynn Effect

A

The rise in average IQ scores that has occurred over the decades in many nations.

256
Q

Achievement Tests

A

Tests designed to assess what a person has learned.

257
Q

Aptitude Tests

A

Tests designed to predict a person’s future performance; aptitude is the capacity to learn.

258
Q

Fixed Mindset

A

The belief that abilities are fixed and unchangeable.

259
Q

Growth Mindset

A

The belief that abilities can be developed through dedication and hard work.

260
Q

Explicit Memory

A

Memory of facts and experiences that one can consciously know and “declare.”

261
Q

Episodic Memory

A

The ability to recall and mentally re-experience specific episodes from one’s personal past.

262
Q

Semantic Memory

A

Memory for factual information.

263
Q

Implicit Memory

A

Retention of learned skills or classically conditioned associations independent of conscious recollection.

264
Q

Procedural Memory

A

A type of implicit memory that involves motor skills and behavioral habits.

265
Q

g (General Intelligence)

A

A factor that, according to Spearman and others, underlies specific mental abilities and is therefore measured by every task on an intelligence test.

266
Q

Multiple Intelligences

A

Theory proposed by Howard Gardner that suggests that there are eight distinct spheres of intelligence.

267
Q

Intelligence Quotient (IQ)

A

Defined originally as the ratio of mental age (ma) to chronological age (ca) multiplied by 100 (thus, IQ = ma/ca × 100). On contemporary intelligence tests, the average performance for a given age is assigned a score of 100.

268
Q

Mental Age

A

A measure of intelligence test performance devised by Binet; the chronological age that most typically corresponds to a given level of performance. Thus, a child who does as well as the average 8-year-old is said to have a mental age of 8.

269
Q

Chronological Age

A

The age of an individual expressed as time elapsed since birth.

270
Q

Standardization

A

Defining uniform testing procedures and meaningful scores by comparison with the performance of a pretested group.

271
Q

Multi-Store Model of Memory

A

A model that describes memory as consisting of three distinct stages: sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory.

272
Q

Sensory Memory

A

The immediate, very brief recording of sensory information in the memory system.

273
Q

Iconic Memory

A

A momentary sensory memory of visual stimuli; a photographic or picture-image memory lasting no more than a few tenths of a second.

274
Q

Echoic Memory

A

A momentary sensory memory of auditory stimuli; if attention is elsewhere, sounds and words can still be recalled within 3 or 4 seconds.

275
Q

Short-Term Memory

A

Activated memory that holds a few items briefly, such as the seven digits of a phone number while dialing, before the information is stored or forgotten.

276
Q

Long-Term Memory

A

The relatively permanent and limitless storehouse of the memory system. Includes knowledge, skills, and experiences.

277
Q

Automatic Processing

A

Unconscious encoding of incidental information, such as space, time, and frequency, and of well-learned information, such as word meanings.

278
Q

Effortful Processing

A

Encoding that requires attention and conscious effort.

279
Q

Encoding

A

The processing of information into the memory system—for example, by extracting meaning.

280
Q

Storage

A

The retention of encoded information over time.

281
Q

Retrieval

A

The process of getting information out of memory storage.

282
Q

Levels of Processing Model

A

This model of memory suggests that memory retention is directly related to the depth of mental processing, with deeper processing producing better recall.

283
Q

Shallow Encoding

A

Processing information based on its surface characteristics.

284
Q

Deep Encoding

A

Processing information based on its meaning.

285
Q

Structural Encoding

A

Shallow processing that emphasizes the physical structure of the stimulus.

286
Q

Phonemic Encoding

A

Encoding of sounds, especially the sounds of words.

287
Q

Prospective Memory

A

Remembering to perform a future action at the appropriate time that you previously intended to accomplish.

288
Q

Long-term Potentiation

A

An increase in a cell’s firing potential after brief, rapid stimulation. Believed to be a neural basis for learning and memory.

289
Q

Working Memory Model

A

An updated version of short-term memory that involves conscious, active processing of incoming auditory and visual-spatial information, and of information retrieved from long-term memory.

290
Q

Central Executive

A

The part of working memory that directs attention and processing.

291
Q

Phonological Loop

A

The part of working memory that holds and processes verbal and auditory information.

292
Q

Visuospatial Sketchpad

A

The part of working memory that holds and processes visual and spatial information.

293
Q

Massed Practice

A

Cramming information all at once. It is less effective than spreading learning over time.

294
Q

Distributed Practice

A

Spreading out study sessions over time with breaks in between. This practice leads to better memorization and recall.

295
Q

Serial Position Effect

A

Our tendency to recall best the last and first items in a list.

296
Q

Primacy Effect

A

The tendency to remember words at the beginning of a list especially well.

297
Q

Recency Effect

A

The tendency to remember words at the end of a list especially well.

298
Q

Maintenance Rehearsal

A

Repeating stimuli in their original form to retain them in short-term memory.

299
Q

Elaborative Rehearsal

A

The linking of new information to material that is already known

300
Q

Memory Retention

A

The ability to retain information over time through the storage and retrieval of information.

301
Q

Autobiographical Memory

A

A special form of episodic memory, consisting of a person’s recollections of his or her life experiences.

302
Q

Retrograde Amnesia

A

An inability to retrieve information from one’s past.

303
Q

Anterograde Amnesia

A

An inability to form new memories.

304
Q

Alzheimer’s Disease

A

A progressive and irreversible brain disorder characterized by gradual deterioration of memory, reasoning, language, and, finally, physical functioning.

305
Q

Infantile Amnesia

A

The inability to remember events from early childhood.

306
Q

Retrieval

A

The process of getting information out of memory storage.

307
Q

Recall

A

A measure of memory in which the person must retrieve information learned earlier, as on a fill-in-the-blank test.

308
Q

Recognition

A

A measure of memory in which the person need only identify items previously learned, as on a multiple-choice test.

309
Q

Retrieval Cues

A

Stimuli that aid the recall or recognition of information stored in memory.

310
Q

Context-Dependent Memory

A

Improved recall of specific episodes or information when the context present at encoding and retrieval are the same.

311
Q

Semantic Encoding

A

The encoding of meaning, including the meaning of words.

312
Q

Mnemonic Devices

A

Memory aids, especially those techniques that use vivid imagery and organizational devices.

313
Q

Method of Loci

A

A mnemonic device that involves imagining placing items you want to remember along a route you know well, or in specific locations in a familiar room or building.

314
Q

Chunking

A

Organizing items into familiar, manageable units; often occurs automatically.

315
Q

Categories

A

Grouping items into categories that share similar characteristics.

316
Q

Hierarchies

A

Systems in which concepts are arranged from more general to more specific classes.

317
Q

Spacing Effect

A

The tendency for distributed study or practice to yield better long-term retention than is achieved through massed study or practice.

318
Q

Memory Consolidation

A

The neural storage of a long-term memory.

319
Q

Proactive Interference

A

The disruptive effect of prior learning on the recall of new information.

320
Q

Retroactive Interference

A

The disruptive effect of new learning on the recall of old information.

321
Q

Tip-of-the-Tongue Phenomenon

A

The temporary inability to remember something you know, accompanied by a feeling that it’s just out of reach.

322
Q

Repression

A

In psychoanalytic theory, the basic defense mechanism that banishes from consciousness anxiety-arousing thoughts, feelings, and memories.

323
Q

Misinformation Effect

A

Incorporating misleading information into one’s memory of an event.

324
Q

Source Amnesia

A

Attributing to the wrong source an event we have experienced, heard about, read about, or imagined. Also called source misattribution.

325
Q

Constructive Memory

A

Memory that is constructed from inferences as well as input information, which can be affected by biases and other influences.

326
Q

Memory Consolidation

A

The process by which memories become stable in the brain.

327
Q

Imagination Inflation

A

A memory phenomenon in which vividly imagining an event markedly increases confidence that the event actually occurred.

328
Q

Mood-Congruent Memory

A

The tendency to recall experiences that are consistent with one’s current good or bad mood.

329
Q

State-Dependent Memory

A

The theory that information learned in a particular state of mind (e.g., depressed, happy, somber) is more easily recalled when in that same state of mind.

330
Q

Testing Effect

A

Enhanced performance on a memory test caused by being tested on the material to be remembered.

331
Q

Metacognition

A

Thinking about thinking. It refers to the processes used to plan, monitor, and assess one’s understanding and performance.

332
Q

The Forgetting Curve

A

A graph showing retention and forgetting over time.

333
Q

Encoding Failure

A

The failure to process information into memory.

334
Q

Behavioral Perspective

A

Focuses on observable behaviors and the ways they’re learned.

335
Q

Associative Learning

A

Learning that involves connecting certain stimuli or events that occur together in the environment.

336
Q

Habituation (Non-Associative Learning)

A

Decreased response to a repeated stimulus over time.

337
Q

Classical Conditioning

A

A learning process that pairs a neutral stimulus with a stimulus that elicits a reflexive response until the neutral stimulus alone elicits that response.

338
Q

Unconditioned Stimulus (UCS)

A

A stimulus that naturally and automatically triggers a response without conditioning.

339
Q

Unconditioned Response (UR)

A

The natural reaction to an unconditioned stimulus.

340
Q

Conditioned Stimulus (CS)

A

A previously neutral stimulus that, after becoming associated with the unconditioned stimulus, eventually comes to trigger a conditioned response.

341
Q

Conditioned Response (CR)

A

A learned response to a previously neutral stimulus that becomes conditioned.

342
Q

Acquisition

A

The initial stage in classical conditioning during which association between a neutral stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus is learned.

343
Q

Extinction

A

The diminishing of a conditioned response when the conditioned stimulus no longer follows the unconditioned stimulus.

344
Q

Spontaneous Recovery

A

The reappearance, after a pause, of an extinguished conditioned response.

345
Q

Stimulus Discrimination

A

Learning to respond only to the original stimulus, and not to other similar stimuli.

346
Q

Stimulus Generalization

A

The tendency to respond to stimuli that are similar to the conditioned stimulus.

347
Q

Higher-Order Conditioning

A

A procedure in which the conditioned stimulus in one conditioning experience is paired with a new neutral stimulus, creating a second (often weaker) conditioned stimulus.

348
Q

Counterconditioning

A

A behavior therapy procedure that uses classical conditioning to evoke new responses to stimuli that are triggering unwanted behaviors.

349
Q

Taste Aversion

A

The intense dislike and/or avoidance of particular foods that have been associated with nausea or discomfort.

350
Q

One-Trail Conditioning

A

Conditioning that occurs with only one pairing of a neutral stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus.

351
Q

Biological Preparedness

A

The propensity of living beings to learn certain associations, such as taste and nausea, with only one or few pairings due to the survival value of the learning.

352
Q

Operant Conditioning

A

A method of learning that occurs through rewards and punishments for behavior.

353
Q

The Law of Effect

A

Thorndike’s principle that behaviors followed by favorable consequences become more likely, and behaviors followed by unfavorable consequences become less likely.

354
Q

Reinforcement

A

In operant conditioning, any event that strengthens the behavior it follows.

355
Q

Primary Reinforcers

A

Events that are inherently reinforcing because they satisfy biological needs.

356
Q

Secondary Reinforcers

A

Events that acquire reinforcing qualities through their association with primary reinforcers.

357
Q

Reinforcement Discrimination

A

Occurs when an organism learns to make a response in the presence of one stimulus but not another.

358
Q

Reinforcement Generalization

A

The spread of a response to stimuli similar to the one that was conditioned.

359
Q

Punishment

A

An event that tends to decrease the behavior that it follows.

360
Q

Positive Reinforcement

A

Increasing behaviors by presenting positive stimuli, such as food.

361
Q

Negative Reinforcement

A

Increasing behaviors by stopping or reducing negative stimuli, such as shock.

362
Q

Positive Punishment

A

The administration of a stimulus to decrease the probability of a behavior’s recurring.

363
Q

Negative Punishment

A

The removal of a stimulus to decrease the probability of a behavior’s recurring.

364
Q

Shaping

A

A conditioning paradigm used primarily in the experimental analysis of behavior.

365
Q

Instinctive Drift

A

The tendency of an animal to revert to instinctive behaviors that interfere with a conditioned response.

366
Q

Superstitious Behavior

A

Behavior that increases in frequency because its occurrence is accidentally paired with the delivery of a reinforcer.

367
Q

Reinforcement Schedules

A

A rule stating which instances of a behavior will be reinforced.

368
Q

Continuous Reinforcement

A

Reinforcing the desired response every time it occurs.

369
Q

Partial Reinforcement

A

Reinforcing a response only part of the time; results in slower acquisition of a response but much greater resistance to extinction than does continuous reinforcement.

370
Q

Fixed Interval

A

A reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response only after a specified time has elapsed.

371
Q

Variable Interval

A

A reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response at unpredictable time intervals.

372
Q

Fixed Ratio

A

A reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response only after a specified number of responses.

373
Q

Variable Ratio

A

A reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response after an unpredictable number of responses.

374
Q

Learned Helplessness

A

The hopelessness and passive resignation an animal or human learns when unable to avoid repeated aversive events.

375
Q

Social Learning Theory

A

The theory that we learn social behavior by observing and imitating and by being rewarded or punished.

376
Q

Vicarious Conditioning

A

Learning that occurs through observing the reactions of others to an environmental stimulus.

377
Q

Insight Learning

A

A form of problem solving in which the organism develops a sudden insight into or understanding of a problem’s solution.

378
Q

Latent Learning

A

Learning that occurs but is not apparent until there is an incentive to demonstrate it.

379
Q

Cognitive Maps

A

A mental representation of the layout of one’s environment.

380
Q

Developmental Psychology

A

The study of continuity and change across the life span.

381
Q

Stability and Change

A

The debate regarding which traits persist through the lifespan and which change.

382
Q

Nature and Nurture

A

The longstanding discussion about the relative importance of genetics (nature) and environment (nurture) in their influence on behavior and mental processes.

383
Q

Continuous Development

A

The view that development is a cumulative process: gradually improving on existing skills.

384
Q

Discontinuous Development

A

The view that development takes place in unique stages, which happen at specific times or ages.

385
Q

Cross-sectional Research

A

A study in which people of different ages are compared with one another.

386
Q

Teratogens

A

Agents, such as chemicals and viruses, that can reach the embryo or fetus during prenatal development and cause harm.

387
Q

Milestones

A

Important markers of development such as walking, talking, and grasping objects.

388
Q

Prenatal Development

A

The process that occurs between the formation of the zygote and birth.

389
Q

Fine Motor Coordination

A

The ability to make movements using the small muscles in our hands and wrists.

390
Q

Gross Motor Coordination

A

The ability to make movements using the large muscles in our arms, legs, and torso.

391
Q

Maturation

A

Biological growth processes that enable orderly changes in behavior, relatively uninfluenced by experience.

392
Q

Reflexes

A

Automatic responses to sensory stimuli, like the knee-jerk response.

393
Q

Rooting Reflex

A

A baby’s tendency, when touched on the cheek, to turn toward the touch, open the mouth, and search for the nipple.

394
Q

Visual Cliff

A

A laboratory device for testing depth perception in infants and young animals.

395
Q

Critical Periods

A

An optimal period shortly after birth when an organism’s exposure to certain stimuli or experiences produces proper development.

396
Q

Sensitive Periods

A

Times in development when a person is particularly open to certain kinds of experiences.

397
Q

Imprinting

A

The process by which certain animals form strong attachments during an early-life critical period.

398
Q

Growth Spurt

A

A rapid increase in height and weight that occurs during puberty.

399
Q

Puberty

A

The period of sexual maturation, during which a person becomes capable of reproducing.

400
Q

Primary Sex Characteristics

A

The body structures (ovaries, testes, and external genitalia) that make sexual reproduction possible.

401
Q

Secondary Sex Characteristics

A

Nonreproductive sexual traits, such as female breasts and hips, male voice quality, and body hair.

402
Q

Menarche

A

The first menstrual period.

403
Q

Spermarche

A

The first ejaculation.

404
Q

Menopause

A

The natural cessation of menstruation that also marks the end of reproductive capacity in women.

405
Q

Jean Piaget

A

A Swiss psychologist known for his theory of cognitive development that describes how children construct a mental model of the world.

406
Q

Schemas

A

Frameworks that help organize and interpret information.

407
Q

Assimilation

A

The process by which new information is incorporated into pre-existing schemas.

408
Q

Accommodation

A

The process by which schemas are altered to fit new information.

409
Q

Sensorimotor Stage

A

The stage (from birth to about 2 years of age) during which infants know the world mostly in terms of their sensory impressions and motor activities.

410
Q

Object Permanence

A

The awareness that things continue to exist even when not perceived.

411
Q

Preoperational Stage

A

The stage (from about 2 to 6 or 7 years of age) during which a child learns to use language but does not yet comprehend the mental operations of concrete logic.

412
Q

Mental Symbols

A

Objects or events that a child knows and can think about, even if they are not physically present.

413
Q

Pretend Play

A

Play that involves making up and acting out a scenario; typically observed during the preoperational stage.

414
Q

Conservation

A

The principle (which Piaget believed was a part of concrete operational reasoning) that properties such as mass, volume, and number remain the same despite changes in the forms of objects.

415
Q

Reversibility

A

The ability to recognize that numbers or objects can be changed and returned to their original condition.

416
Q

Animism

A

The belief that objects that are inanimate have feelings, thoughts, and have the mental characteristics and qualities of living things.

417
Q

Egocentrism

A

The preoperational child’s difficulty taking another’s point of view.

418
Q

Theory of Mind

A

The ability to understand that others have their own thoughts and perspectives.

419
Q

Concrete Operational Stage

A

The stage of cognitive development (from about 7 to 11 years of age) during which children gain the mental operations that enable them to think logically about concrete events.

420
Q

Formal Operational Stage

A

The stage of cognitive development (normally beginning about age 12) during which people begin to think logically about abstract concepts.

421
Q

Lev Vygotsky

A

A psychologist known for his sociocultural theory of cognitive development, emphasizing how culture and social interactions guide cognitive development.

422
Q

Scaffolding

A

A technique used by a teacher to adapt their support methods to fit the student’s current level of performance, gradually decreasing the guidance as the student becomes more competent.

423
Q

Zone of Proximal Development

A

The difference between what a learner can do without help and what they can do with help.

424
Q

Ecological Systems Theory

A

A theory introduced by Bronfenbrenner that explains how the inherent qualities of a child and their environment interact to influence how they will grow and develop.

425
Q

Microsystem

A

The environment where an individual lives. These contexts include the person’s family, peers, school, and neighborhood. It is the immediate environment in which a person is operating.

426
Q

Mesosystem

A

The relations between microsystems or connections between contexts.

427
Q

Exosystem

A

External environmental settings that only indirectly affect development, such as parent’s workplace.

428
Q

Macrosystem

A

The larger cultural context, including socioeconomic status, wealth, poverty, and ethnicity.

429
Q

Chronosystem

A

The patterning of environmental events and transitions over the life course, as well as sociohistorical circumstances.

430
Q

Authoritarian Parenting

A

A parenting style characterized by high demands and low responsiveness. Parents with an authoritarian style have very high expectations of their children, yet provide very little in the way of feedback and nurturance.

431
Q

Authoritative Parenting

A

A parenting style characterized by high responsiveness and high demands. Authoritative parents are responsive to the child’s emotional needs while having high standards.

432
Q

Permissive Parenting

A

A type of parenting style characterized by low demands with high responsiveness. Permissive parents tend to be very loving, yet provide few guidelines and rules.

433
Q

Attachment Styles

A

Patterns of attachment, defined as lasting psychological connectedness between human beings.

434
Q

Secure Attachment

A

An attachment style characterized by trust, a lack of concern with being abandoned, and the view that one is worthy and well liked.

435
Q

Insecure Attachment

A

An attachment style characterized by a concern that others will not reciprocate one’s desire for intimacy, resulting in higher-than-average levels of anxiety and avoidance.

436
Q

Avoidant Attachment

A

An attachment style characterized by difficulty developing intimate relationships because previous attempts to be intimate have been rebuffed.

437
Q

Anxious Attachment

A

An attachment style characterized by a concern that others will not reciprocate one’s desire for intimacy, resulting in frequent anxiety.

438
Q

Disorganized Attachment

A

An attachment style characterized by a lack of clear attachment behavior, signals, and responses.

439
Q

Temperament

A

Basic emotional style that appears early in development and is largely genetic in origin.

440
Q

Separation Anxiety

A

Emotional distress seen in many infants when they are separated from people with whom they have formed an attachment.

441
Q

Contact Comfort

A

The physical and emotional comfort that an infant receives from being in physical contact with its mother.

442
Q

Parallel Play

A

Activity in which children play side by side without interacting.

443
Q

Pretend Play

A

Play involving imaginary people and situations; also called fantasy play, dramatic play, or imaginative play.

444
Q

Imaginary Audience

A

Adolescents’ belief that they are the focus of everyone else’s attention and concern.

445
Q

Personal Fable

A

Adolescents’ belief that they are special and unique, so much so that none of life’s difficulties or problems will affect them regardless of their behavior.

446
Q

Social Clock

A

The culturally preferred timing of social events such as marriage, parenthood, and retirement.

447
Q

Emerging Adulthood

A

A period from about age 18 to the mid-twenties, when many in Western cultures are no longer adolescents but have not yet achieved full independence as adults.

448
Q

Stage Theory of Psychosocial Development (Erikson)

A

A theory that identifies eight stages in which a healthy developing individual should pass through from infancy to late adulthood.

449
Q

Trust vs. Mistrust

A

The first stage of Erik Erikson’s theory centers around the infant’s basic needs being met by the parents.

450
Q

Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt

A

The second stage of Erik Erikson’s stages of human development in which toddlers develop independence and personal agency.

451
Q

Initiative vs. Guilt

A

The third stage of Erik Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development, where the child finds independence in planning, playing, and other activities.

452
Q

Industry vs. Inferiority

A

The fourth stage of Erik Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development. The stage occurs during childhood between the ages of approximately six and eleven.

453
Q

Identity vs. Role Confusion

A

The fifth stage of Erik Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development. This stage plays an essential role in developing a sense of personal identity which will continue to influence behavior and development for the rest of a person’s life.

454
Q

Intimacy vs. Isolation

A

The sixth stage of Erik Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development. This stage explores relationships leading toward longer-term commitments with someone other than a family member.

455
Q

Generativity vs. Stagnation

A

Erik Erikson’s seventh stage of psychosocial development, wherein middle-aged adults find meaning in contributing to the development of younger individuals.

456
Q

Integrity vs. Despair

A

The eighth and final stage of Erik Erikson’s stage theory of psychosocial development, occurring in late adulthood. This stage involves reflecting on one’s life and either moving into feeling satisfied and happy with one’s life or feeling a deep sense of regret.

457
Q

Adverse Childhood Experiences (ACEs)

A

Potentially traumatic events that occur in childhood (0-17 years) such as experiencing violence, abuse, or neglect, witnessing violence in the home or community, or having a family member attempt or die by suicide.

458
Q

Achievement (adolescent development)

A

Typically refers to the attainment of educational qualifications, professional development, or success in a particular career or field.

459
Q

Diffusion (adolescent development)

A

In terms of identity development, refers to an apathy toward identity exploration; no commitment to roles or ideologies.

460
Q

Foreclosure (adolescent development)

A

The identity status of a person who has not engaged in any identity experimentation and has established an identity based on the choices or values of others.

461
Q

Moratorium (adolescent development)

A

The identity status of individuals who are in the midst of an identity crisis but who have not made a clear commitment to an identity.

462
Q

Possible Selves

A

The component of self-concept that involves individuals’ ideas of what they might become, what they would like to become, and what they are afraid of becoming.

463
Q

Modeling

A

Learning by observing and imitating the behaviors of others.

464
Q

Convenience sampling

A

involves selecting participants based on their availability and accessibility to the researcher.