PSYCH 500-503 Flashcards

1
Q

In classical conditioning, what two things are paired together to produce a learned response?

A

Conditioned stimulus (e.g. bell) with an unconditioned stimulus (e.g. food)

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2
Q

Is the learned response in classical conditioning usually voluntary or involuntary?

A

Involuntary

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3
Q

What type of conditioning typically deals with voluntary responses?

A

Operant conditioning

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4
Q

In operant conditioning, how is a particular action elicited?

A

Either because it produces a punishment or a reward

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5
Q

What are the 4 types of operant conditioning?

A
  1. Positive reinforcement
  2. Negative reinforcement
  3. Punishment
  4. Extinction
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6
Q

What is the difference between positive reinforcement and negative reinforcement?

A

In positive reinforcement, the behavior brings about reward whereas in negative reinforcement, the behavior brings about removal of punishment (aversive stimulus).

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7
Q

What is punishment?

A

Repeated application of aversive stimulus to extinguish unwanted behavior

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8
Q

What is extinction?

A

Discontinuation of reinforcement (positive or negative) eventually eliminates behavior?

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9
Q

Does extinction occur in operant conditioning, classical conditioning, both, or neither?

A

Both

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10
Q

Patient starts to see psychiatrist as a parent figure. What is this an example of?

A

Transference - when patient projects feelings about formative or other important persons onto the physician

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11
Q

Patient reminds physician of younger sibling. What is this an example of?

A

Countertransference - when doctor projects feelings about formative or other important persons onto patient

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12
Q

What are ego defenses?

A

Unconscious mental processes used to resolve conflict and prevent undesirable feelings (e.g. anxiety, depression)

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13
Q

What are the two subcategories of ego defenses?

A

Mature and Immature

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14
Q

What are the 4 mature defenses?

A

Mnemnoic: Mature adults wear a SASH

  1. Altruism
  2. Humor
  3. Sublimation
  4. Suppression
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15
Q

What are the 13 immature defenses?

A

MNEMONIC: Immature idiots fail at speaking professionally, 4 real (4 R’s) dude (think dud3 - 3’D’s).

Identification
Isolation (of affect)
Fixation
Acting Out
Splitting
Projection

4 Rationalization
Reaction formation
Regression
Repression

Dissociation
Denial
Displacement

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16
Q

What type of ego defense is a tantrum an example of?

A

Acting out - expressing unacceptable feelings and thoughts through actions

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17
Q

When a patient avoids emotional stress via a temporary, drastic change in personality, memory, consciousness, or motor behavior, what is this called? What can this progress to?

A

Dissociation

Extreme forms can result in dissociative identity disorder (multiple personality)

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18
Q

What is denial?

A

Avoiding the awareness of some painful reality

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19
Q

Which patients are especially prone to exhibit denial?

A

Newly diagnosed AIDS and cancer patients

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20
Q

A mother yells at her child because her husband yelled at her. What is this an example of?

A

Displacement - transferring avoided ideas and feelings to some neutral person or object

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21
Q

A man who wants another woman thinks his wife is cheating on him. What is this an example of?

A

Projection - attributing an unacceptable internal impulse to an external source

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22
Q

What is the difference between displacement and projection?

A

Displacement - expressing a feeling that was given to you onto someone or something else; i.e. a displaced reaction

Contrast this with projection - where the feelings you are projecting are your own feelings that arose organically (not really a reaction per se)

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23
Q

What is the difference between fixation and regression?

A

Fixation - partially REMAINING at a more childish level of develop

Regression - turning back the maturational clock and GOING BACK to earlier modes of dealing with the world

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24
Q

What is identification?

A

Modeling behavior after another person who is more powerful (though not necessarily admired)

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25
Q

What is it called when you separate feelings from ideas and events?

A

Isolation of affect

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26
Q

Define rationalization.

A

Proclaiming logical reasons for actions actually performed for other reasons, usually to avoid self-blame

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27
Q

A patient with libidinous thoughts enter a monastery. What is this an example of?

A

Reaction formation - replacing a warded-off idea or feeling by an unconsciously derived emphasis on its opposite.

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28
Q

What is the mature response version of reaction formation?

A

Sublimation

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29
Q

A patient does not recall a conflictual or traumatic experience. What is this an example of?

A

Repression - involuntary withholding an idea or feeling from conscious awareness

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30
Q

How does repression differ from suppression?

A

Repression is involuntary whereas suppression is an intentional withholding of an idea or feeling from conscious awareness

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31
Q

What immature defense is commonly seen in borderline personality disorder?

A

Splitting - believing that people are either all good or all bad at different times due to intolerance of ambiguity

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32
Q

What feeling is being alleviated in altruism? How?

A

Guilt by demonstrating unsolicited generosity toward others

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33
Q

What is humor?

A

Appreciating the amusing nature of an anxiety-provoking or adverse situation

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34
Q

In sublimation, what is an unacceptable wish replaced with?

A

A course of action that is similar to the wish but does not conflict with one’s value system

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35
Q

What are the 4 W’s of infant deprivation (of affection)?

A
  1. Weak - decreased muscle tone, weight loss, physical illness
  2. Wordless - poor language skills
  3. Wanting (socially) - poor socialization skills, anaclitic depression
  4. Wary - lack of basic trust
36
Q

What is anaclitic depression?

A

Infant is withdrawn/unresponsive

37
Q

After how much time can infant deprivation lead to irreversible changes?

A

> 6 months

38
Q

What is the extreme consequence of infant deprivation?

A

Death

39
Q

What do we look for in physical abuse in children?

A

Mnemonic: PHYSICAL

Pattern marks/bruising 
Healed fractures (spiral)
Your mom (usually biological mother)
Subdural hematomas
"I" Problems (eye - retinal hemorrhage or detachment)
Cigarette burns
Abuse
Lung cage (rib fractures)
40
Q

80% of child abuse victims are under what age?

A

< 3

41
Q

What are signs of sexual abuse in children?

A
  1. Genital, anal, or oral trauma
  2. STD’s
  3. UTI’s
42
Q

Are the abusers in child sexual abuse typically known to the victim? What gender are they?

A

Typically males known to the victim

43
Q

What age range does the peak incidence of child sexual abuse occur during?

A

9-12

44
Q

What is the most common form of child maltreatment?

A

Child neglect - failure to provide a child with adequate food, shelter, supervision, education, and/or affection

45
Q

What two things must be reported to local child protective services?

A

Child abuse and child neglect

46
Q

What are some signs of child neglect?

A

Smelly, Small, Shy:

Poor hygiene, malnutrition/failure to thrive, withdrawal and/or impaired social/emotional development

47
Q

What are the 3 types of amnesia?

A
  1. Retrograde
  2. Anterograde
  3. Dissociative
48
Q

Contrast retrograde vs. anterograde amnesia.

A

Retrograde - can’t remember things BEFORE a CNS insult

Anterograde - can’t remember things AFTER a CNS insult (i.e. no new memories)

49
Q

What causes Korsakoff amnesia and is it typically anterograde or retrograde amnesia?

A

Anterograde amnesia (although may also include some retrograde) that is caused by thiamine deficiency and the associated destruction of mammillary bodies

50
Q

A patient comes in and exhibits confabulations. What condition are you suspicious of? What else would be notable on social history?

A

Korsakoff amnesia

Often associated with alcoholics

51
Q

What does AO x 3 stand for and in what order are they typically lost?

A

Alert and oriented to person, place, time

Order of loss: time > place > person

52
Q

A patient experiencing severe trauma or stress is unable to recall important personal information. What is this called?

A

Dissociative amnesia

53
Q

What is dissociative fugue?

A

Abrupt travel or wandering during a period of dissociative amnesia, associated with traumatic circumstances

54
Q

What are some causes of loss of orientation?

A

Mnemonic: LOST AO

Loss of electrolytes or fluid
hypOglycemia
Substances (drugs)
Trauma

Alcohol
Om nom noms (nutrient) deficiency

55
Q

What characterizes pervasive developmental disorders?

A

Difficulties with language and failure to acquire or early loss of social skills

56
Q

What are 2 pervasive developmental disorders?

A
  1. Autism spectrum disorder

2. Rett disorder

57
Q

What is the only neurotransmitter imbalance in Alzheimer disease?

A

Decreased ACh

58
Q

What is the only neurotransmitter imbalance in Schizophrenia?

A

Increased dopamine

59
Q

Of the pervasive developmental disorders, which one is more common in boys and which one is more common in girls?

A

Autism - boys

Rett- girls

60
Q

Why does Rett disorder almost exclusively affect girls?

A

An X-linked disorder that causes affected males to die in utero or shortly after birth

61
Q

What the symptoms in Rett disorder?

A

Mnemonic: RETT

wRinging of hands
Etaxia
Talk less (loss of verbal abilities)
Time stops (loss of development)

+ intellectual disability

62
Q

When does Rett disorder typically present?

A

Ages 1-4

63
Q

What are symptoms characterizing autism spectrum disorder?

A

Mnemonic: AUTISM

Awkward (poor social interactions)
Under 4 (typically diagnosed in early childhood)
Twice (does things twice - repetitive/ritualized behaviors)
Interests restricted
Solitary (communication deficits)
Mental retardation (intellectual deficits may OR may not accompany autism)
64
Q

What are the neurotransmitter changes seen in anxiety?

A

Decreased: GABA, 5-HT
Increased: NE

65
Q

What are the neurotransmitter changes seen in depression?

A

Decreased: NE
Increased: 5-HT, dopamine

66
Q

What are the neurotransmitter changes seen in Huntington disease?

A

Decreased: GABA, ACh
Increased: dopamine

67
Q

What are the neurotransmitter changes seen in Parkinson disease?

A

Decreased: dopamine
Increased: 5-HT, ACh

68
Q

What is conduct disorder?

A

Repetitive and pervasive behavior violating the basic rights of others (e.g. physical aggression, destruction of property, theft)

69
Q

What can conduct disorder progress to after age 18?

A

Antisocial personality disorder

70
Q

Define attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder.

A

Limited attention span and poor impulse control characterized by hyperactivity and/or inattention in multiple settings

71
Q

At what age is the typical onset of ADHD?

A

< 12

72
Q

Is the intelligence of people with ADHD impaired?

A

Normal intelligence but often coexists with difficulties in school

73
Q

Does ADHD typically continue into adulthood?

A

50% of cases

74
Q

What are some of the treatments for ADHD?

A

Methylphenidate, amphetamines, atomoxetine, behavioral interventions (reinforcement, reward)

75
Q

What neuroanatomic findings are associated with ADHD?

A

Decreased frontal lobe volume/metabolism

76
Q

What is oppositional defiant disorder?

A

Enduring pattern of hostile, defiant behavior toward authority figures in the absence of serious violations of social norms

77
Q

What characterizes Tourette syndrome?

A

Sudden, rapid, recurrent, nonrhythmic, stereotyped motor and vocal tics that persist for > 1 year

78
Q

When is the onset of Tourette syndrome?

A

< 18

79
Q

What is involuntary obscene speech called in Tourette and what is its incidence?

A

Coprolalia - found only in 10-20% of patients

80
Q

How common is Tourette syndrome?

A

0.1 - 1.0% in the general population

81
Q

What are two other disorders that Tourette is associated with?

A

OCD and ADHD

82
Q

How do we treat Tourette?

A

Antipsychotics and behavioral therapy

83
Q

What is separation anxiety disorder?

A

Overwhelming fear of separation from home or loss of attachment figure

84
Q

How do we treat separation anxiety disorder?

A

SSRI’s and relaxation techniques/behavioral interventions

85
Q

When is the typical onset of separation anxiety disorder?

A

7-9