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PRTTEST5 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Fordyce granules are:
    a. Epithelial inclusion cysts
    b. Found on the buccal and lingual aspects of the alveolus
    c. Ectopic sebaceous glands
    d. Remnants of the dental lamina
A

c. Ectopic sebaceous glands

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2
Q
  1. If a dried radiography were processed a second time, its
    appearance would show.
    a. Increased contrast and density
    b. Increased contrast only
    c. No change in contrast or density
    d. Decreased contrast and density
    e. Increased density only
A

c. No change in contrast or density

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3
Q
  1. You are performing full-mouth extractions for a patient when he starts to
    complain of tinnitus, circumoral numbness, and appear drowsy. What do you
    do next?

a. You continue with the procedure because the patient is likely anxious.

b. Discontinue the procedure and send the patient home

c. The patient is probably feeling some pain and is anxious. The patient needs more local anesthetic

d. Discontinue the procedure; monitor the patient for local anesthetic toxicity

A

d. Discontinue the procedure; monitor the patient for local anesthetic toxicity

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4
Q
  1. In decreasing order of frequency, what is the correct sequence for
    mandible fractures?
    a. Symphyseal/parasymphyseal>body>angle>ramus>coronoid>alveolar
    b. Symphyseal/parasymphyseal>condyle> alveolar>coronoid
    c. Symphyseal/parasymphyseal>angle> body>condyle
    d. Symphyseal/parasymphyseal>ramus> angle>coronoid
A

b. Symphyseal/parasymphyseal>condyle> alveolar>coronoid

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5
Q
  1. Elongation (the most common error) can be caused by:
    a. Too little vertical angulation
    b. The film is not parallel to the long axis
    c. The occlusal plane is not parallel to the floor
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

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6
Q
  1. What is the recommended distance (in feet) that the operator
    should stand from the patient while taking radiographs?
    a. 2 feet
    b. 4 feet
    c. 6 feet
    d. 8 feet
A

c. 6 feet

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7
Q
  1. The image of the coronoid process of the mandible often appears in
    periapical x-rays of:
    a. The incisor region of the mandible
    b. The molar region of the mandible
    c. The incisor region of the maxilla
    d. The molar region of the maxilla
A

d. The molar region of the maxilla

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8
Q
  1. After your film has been processed, you notice it appears too dark
    in color. The least likely cause is:
    a. The film is overdeveloped
    b. The temperature of the solutions was too hot
    c. The temperature of the solutions was too cold
    d. None of the above
A

c. The temperature of the solutions was too cold

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9
Q
  1. A dentist removes a maxillary premolar and notices that she has created an
    oroantral communication, which is 4mm in diameter. Which of the following is an
    appropriate treatment?
    a. No surgical treatment
    b. Figure-of-eight sutures to maintain integrity of the blood clot within the
    socket
    c. Requires a buccal fat pad flap advancement
    d. Tongue flap advancement
A

b. Figure-of-eight sutures to maintain integrity of the blood clot within the
socket

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10
Q
  1. What is the initial force direction with forceps placed on a
    tooth for a successful extraction?
    a. Apical
    b. Buccal
    c. Palatal
    d. Occlusally
A

a. Apical

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11
Q
  1. Dental elevators are used for which of the following
    purposes?
    a. To retract the gingival crest tissue
    b. To reflect a full mucoperiosteal flap
    c. To engage the tooth apical to the cementoenamel junction
    d. To engage the tooth coronal to the cementoenamel junction
A

c. To engage the tooth apical to the cementoenamel junction

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following diseases would contraindicate the placement of
    dental implants in an elderly patient?
    a. None
    b. Dementia
    c. Hypertension
    d. Hypercholesterolemia
    e. Atrial fibrillation
A

b. Dementia

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13
Q
  1. How much bone is recommended at a minimum on the facial and
    palatal surfaces of the implant to support the ideal orofacial implant
    position?
    a. 0.25 mm
    b. 0.5 mm
    c. 1.0 mm
    d. 2.0 mm
A

c. 1.0 mm

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14
Q
  1. What is the maximum torque that should not be exceeded when
    inserting the implant fixture?
    a. 25 Ncm
    b. 35 Ncm
    c. 45 Ncm
    d. 50 Ncm
A

b. 35 Ncm

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15
Q
  1. A well-circumscribed, white patch in the mandibular facial sulcus
    appears secondary to placing aspirin in the area. The most probable
    diagnosis is:
    a. Hyperkeratosis of the oral mucosa
    b. Hyperplasia of the oral mucosa
    c. Hypertrophy of the oral mucosa
    d. Necrosis of the oral mucosa
A

d. Necrosis of the oral mucosa

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16
Q
  1. A patient receives a tentative diagnosis of central giant cell granuloma. For
    definitive diagnosis, serum calcium level should be determined to distinguish
    between granuloma and:
    a. Osteopetrosis
    b. Fibrous dysplasia
    c. Paget disease of bone
    d. Hyperparathyroidism
    e. Osteogenesis imperfecta
A

d. Hyperparathyroidism

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17
Q
  1. Examination of a 3 –year old boy reveals a fracture of his right leg, blue
    sclera, deafness and a peculiarly shaped head.
    Opalescent dentin is found
    in many of his primary teeth. The most probable clinical diagnosis is:

a. Osteopetrosis
b. Marfan syndrome
c. Osteogenesis imperfecta
d. Cleidocranial dysostosis
e. Infantile cortical hyperostosis

A

c. Osteogenesis imperfecta 3Bs - Brittle bone, Blue Sclera, Bingi

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18
Q
  1. A patient who has a white blood cell count of more than 100,000/cc most likely is suffering from

a. Leukemia - leukocytosis - abnormal
b. Polycythemia - inc, in RBC
c. Leucopenia - dec, in WBC
d. Pernicious anemia - B12 deficiency

A

a. Leukemia = leukocytosis - abnormal

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19
Q
  1. Hairy tongue is characterized by hypertrophy of which of the following papillae?
    a. Foliate
    b. Filiform - no taste buds-most abundant
    c. Fungiform - w/ taste buds
    d. Circumvallate - least numerous
A

b. Filiform

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20
Q
  1. What are the common rules to follow to have an accurate radiographic image formation when taking x-rays?

a. Using the correct focal spot size - [smaller, sharper]

b. Placing the film close enough to prevent distortion - [bisecting - lesser O-F, lesser
mag]

c. Cutting down the amount of divergent x-rays reaching the object by using the longest target-film distance - [16 inches]

d. 90-degree angle of the central ray of the x-ray in relation to the film [paralleling, more target-object, lesser mag]

e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

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21
Q
  1. A periapical film of tooth #9 was obtained in preparation for a root canal and an
    initial measurement for length of the canal was performed. After initial debridement
    of the canal was performed, another x-ray was captured with the initial root length
    measured and it appears that the file is approximately 4 mm from the apex. How
    could we have obtained a more accurate initial length measurement?

a. Increasing the vertical angulation of the cone in relation to the film
b. Decreasing the vertical angulation of the cone in relation to the film
c. Decreasing the horizontal angulation of the cone in relation to the film
d. Increasing the horizontal angulation of the cone in relation to the film

A

b. Decreasing the vertical angulation of the cone in relation to the film

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22
Q
  1. In trying to reduce the amount of low-quality, long-wavelength
    x-rays from exiting the cone, what is commonly added to the
    cone for added filtration?
    a. Aluminum disks
    b. Tin disks
    c. Thicker glass
    d. Different color plastics
A

a. Aluminum disks

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23
Q
  1. All of the following cells in the body are relatively resistant to damage by radiation except:
    a. Muscle cells - [most radiorestant(DECKS) - Fixed post mitotic cells]
    b. Mucosal cells -
    c. Nerve cells
    d. Mature bone
A

b. Mucosal cells - [vegetative intermitotic cells =divides regularly]

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24
Q
  1. Extraction wounds heal by which method?
    a. Primary intention - [close reapprox. w/ Suture]
    b. Secondary intention
    c. Tertiary intention - w/ graft
    d. None of the above
A

b. Secondary intention

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25
Q
  1. Which peripheral nerve fibers are the thickest?

a. Motor fibers
b. Pain fibers
c. Autonomic fibers
d. Proprioception fibers
e. Touch fibers

A

  1. Pain
    2.Temperature
  2. touch
  3. pressure
  4. Skeletal muscle
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26
Q
  1. A process characterized by the fusion of the surface of a dental implant to the surrounding bone to be used readily as an anchor for tooth:

a. Transosseous - penetrates jaw bore
b. Subperiosteal - [below periosleum, above bone;”rides on”bone]
c. Endosseous - into the jaw bore
d. Osseointegration
e. None of these

A

d. Osseointegration

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27
Q
  1. A type of implant that are surgically inserted into the jaw bone:
    a. Transosseous
    b. Subperiosteal
    c. Endosseous
    d. Osteointegration
    e. None of these
A

c. Endosseous

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28
Q
  1. A type of implant that are surgically inserted into the jaw bone penetrating the entire jaw emerging opposite the entry site usually at the bottom of the chin.
    a. Transosseous.
    b. Subperiosteal
    c. Endosseous
    d. Osteointegration
    e. None of these.
A

a. Transosseous.

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29
Q
  1. Salient radiographic finding showing perpendicular bone trabeculation radiating outwardly describe as “hair-on-end” effect and generalized osteoporosis.
    a. Aplastic anemia. -[ ↓ RBS]
    b. Sickle-cell anemia -[ HBS]
    c. Polycythemia - [↑ RBC]
    d. Pernicious anemia - [b12 deficiency]
    e. None
A

b. Sickle-cell anemia

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30
Q
  1. A radiograph of the TMJ will not show.
    a. Lipping of the condyle.
    b. The articular eminence
    c. The meniscus
    d. Fracture of the neck of the condyle.
    e. None
A

e. None

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31
Q
  1. Which electron has the greatest binding energy to the
    nucleus?
    a. J-shell electron
    b. K-shell electron
    c. The meniscus
    d. Fracture of the neck of the condyle
    e. None
A

b. K-shell electron

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32
Q
  1. If the mental foramen is superimposed over the apex of a root, it maybe mistaken as:

a. Odontoma - [radiopaque]
b. Rarefaction due to infection -[radiolucent]
c. Cementoma - [radiopaque]
d. Supernumerary teeth - [radiopaque]

A

b. Rarefaction due to infection

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33
Q
  1. A unilocular radiolucent lesion in the area of a missing tooth
    to where should have development is termed.
    a. Cementoma -[ radiopaque]
    b. Fissural cyst -[non-odontogenic]
    c. Immature central fibroma -[caused by trauma]
    d. Primordial cyst
A

d. Primordial cyst

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34
Q
  1. Which of the following is a hardening agent in film
    processing?
    a. A. Acetic acid - [acidifier-neutralizers basic developer]
    b. Potassium bromide -[ restrainer/anti-fog]
    c. Potassium alum - [shrinks and hardens emulsion]
    d. Potassium hydroxide
    e. None
A

c. Potassium alum

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35
Q
  1. For five days, a 25-year old man has had painful oral ulceration. Several reddish macular lesion are present on his face and hands, most of which have a ring-like or bull’s eye appearance. He had “cold
    sores” two weeks earlier. Tentative diagnosis is:

a. Lichen planus.
b. Aphthous ulcers.
c. Pityriasis rosea.
d. Verruca vulgaris
e. Erythema multiforme

A

e. Erythema multiforme

Lichen planus. - —whitelesion=Wickham Strine
Aphthous ulcers. —- reddish
Pityriasis rosea. —raised, sadly rashes
Verruca vulgaris —wark, camiplower-like
Erythema multiforme —prior recurrent herpetic episode

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36
Q
  1. Which palpation method is used to examine the floor of the
    mouth?
    a. Bimanual
    b. Bidigital
    c. Digital
    d. Circular
A

a. Bimanual

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37
Q
  1. Physical examination of a 28-year-old man reveals an extensive, smooth enlargement of the body of the mandible in the molar region. The patient states that the enlargement has been present for two years and has slowly and steadily increase in size. The most probable clinical diagnosis is:
    a. Osteosarcoma
    b. Ameloblastoma.
    c. Osteomyelitis
    d. Osteitis deformans
A

b. Ameloblastoma.

Osteosarcoma ~pain-sunburst
Ameloblastoma. - soap bubble
Osteomyelitis - pain - motheaten
Osteitis deformans - pain-cotton wool

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38
Q
  1. A 56-year-old man has had a lesion on the floor of his mouth for six weeks without significant clinical change. Examination shows a 2-
    cm lesion in the area of the submandibular duct. Which of the following should be performed to confirm the clinical diagnosis?

a. Punch biopsy
b. Incisional biopsy
c. Excisional biopsy
d. Exfoliative cytology

A

b. Incisional biopsy - >1cm

c. Excisional biopsy - <1cm
d. Exfoliative cytology - only an adjunct

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39
Q
  1. A patient on propylthiouracil therapy requires oral surgery. A routine preoperative laboratory report indicates a hematocrit value of 45%, serve neutroperia, reduce myeloblasts in the bone marrow and coagulation time of 8 minutes. The primary hazard to this patient:
    a. Hypoxia
    b. Infection
    c. Hemorrhage
    d. Thyroid crisis
    e. Uremic poisoning
A

b. Infection

Hypoxia — decrese o2 and bleeding time: 2 - 4 mins
Thyroid crisis – epinephrine
Uremic poisoning - - end-stage renal ds.

**propylthiouracil therapy - tx For pxt w/ hyperthyroidism

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40
Q
  1. A patient gives a history of bruising easily, nocturia, excessive
    thirst and a low resistance to infection. The patient is likely to be
    suffering from:
    a. Diabetes insipidus
    b. Diabetes mellitus
    c. Glomerulonephritis
    d. Lupus erythematosus
    e. Thrombocytopenic purpura
A

b. Diabetes mellitus
**
a. Diabetes insipidus — hyposecretion 0F ADH
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Glomerulonephritis –↓ urination
d. Lupus erythematosus - - SLE
e. Thrombocytopenic purpura – - platelets

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41
Q
  1. The ideal bone graft should do each of the following, except:
    a. Induce osteogenesis
    b. Produce an immunologic response.
    c. Withstand mechanical forces.
    d. Become replace by host bone
A

b. Produce an immunologic response.

42
Q
  1. Which of the following describe the use of hydroxyapatite for alveolar ridge augmentation?

a. Hydroxyapatite is considered to be osteoinductive (bone forming)

b. Granule migration and excessive augmentation are common problems with hydroxyapatite materials.

c. Compaction or compression of hydroxyapatite after augmentation generally does not occur.

d. Patients with hydroxyapatite augmentation to the anterior maxilla should be without their maxillary prosthesis for a minimum of one month

A

a. Hydroxyapatite is considered to be osteoinductive (bone forming)

43
Q
  1. The success of a free gingival graft procedure depends upon which of the following?

a. The graft being immobilized at the recipient’s site.
b. The donor tissue being as thick as possible and containing periosteum.
c. A thick blood clot remaining between the recipient and donor tissue.
d. A periosteal fenestration being present

A

a. The graft being immobilized at the recipient’s site.

44
Q
  1. Which of the following will most likely cause an autogenous tooth transplant to fall during the third year?
    a. Development of root carries.
    b. Ankylosis of the tooth.
    c. An inflammatory resorption of supporting bone **-3wks post -trauma
    d. An idiopathic chronic progressive root resorption
A

d. An idiopathic chronic progressive root resorption

45
Q
  1. When removing an impacted third molar, a dentist divides (sections) the tooth for each of the following reasons, except:

a. To shorten the surgical procedure.
b. To minimize the amount of bone to be removed.
c. To allow the tooth to be delivered to the occlusal aspect.
d. To minimize exertion of force necessary to remove the
tooth

A

c. To allow the tooth to be delivered to the occlusal aspect

46
Q
  1. Which of the following is a principle of alveoloplasty?
    a. Undercuts that interferes with the seating of the dentures should be remove.
    b. The remaining ridge should be as broad as possible, even if some undercuts exist.
    c. Sharp bony projection need to be smooth as the will round off in a few days during the healing process.
    d. Both A&B
    e. Both B&C
A

d. Both A&B

47
Q
  1. Excisional biopsy is most appropriate for which of the following conditions?
    a. A 1-cm exophytic mass on buccal mucosa.
    b. A 2-cm painless ulcer of ten weeks’ duration.
    c. A 3-cm submucosal indurated lump.
    d. A leukoplakic area covering most of the buccal mucosa.
A

a. A 1-cm exophytic mass on buccal mucosa.

**b,c,d are fr incisional biopsy

48
Q
  1. White patch can be rubbed off and is found on the labial or buccal mucosa is:
    a. Pachyderma oris.
    b. Leukoplakia.
    c. Lichen planus.
    d. Ptyalism
    e. None of these
A

c. Lichen planus – Wickham Striae

Pachyderma oris. –whitelesion-cannotbe rubbed OFF
Leukoplakia. —whitelesion-cannotbe rubbed OFF
Ptyalism – - hypersalivation

leukoedema - disappears
when stretched

49
Q

Bony exostosis found on the hard palate:
a. Smoker’s patch.
b. Stomatitis nicotina.
c. Torus palatinus.
d. None of these

A

c. Torus palatinus.

50
Q
  1. Translucent bluish lesion at the ducts of submandibular and sublingual glands and is often caused by trauma is:
    a. Ranula
    b. Dermoid cysts.
    c. Ludwig’s angina.
    d. Sialolithiasis.
    e. None of these
A

a. Ranula — mucoceles - floor of the mouth - midline
***
b. Dermoid cysts. — sebaceous glands, hair follicles and sweatglands

c. Ludwig’s angina. — odonogenic infection = 3S (Sublingual,Submandi, Submental)
d. Sialolithiasis. – (sialolith/salivary store) – b;pck
e. None of these

51
Q
  1. Administration of aspirin should be avoided in patient taking anticoagulants because:
    a. It decreases anticoagulant effect.
    b. It over sedates the patient.
    c. It increases the anticoagulant effect.
    d. It causes gastritis.
    e. None
A

c. It increases the anticoagulant effect. —risk for hemorrhage

52
Q
  1. An appropriate time for definitive dental care after myocardial
    infarction is:
    a. One month.
    b. Three months
    c. One year.
    d. Never!!
A

c. One year.

53
Q
  1. A disorder caused by injury-included brain damage or damage from ethanol. Having symptoms like patients seemed frightened with contortion or extremities and/or blank stare
    a. Seizure.
    b. Hyperventilation
    c. Vasovagal syncope
    d. Anaphylaxis.
    e. Foreign body aspiration
A

a. Seizure.

grand mal-tonic-clonic
petit mal-absence

3 phases ofseizure
1. Aura-alteration ofsenses
2. Iris - seizure
3. Post lctal - recovery

**status epilepticus - 5 mins-grand mal

54
Q
  1. Condition of patient characterized by talkativeness, confusion, slurring of speech and anxiety, dizziness, blurred vision and headache.
    a. Seizure
    b. Syncope
    c. Hyperventilation
    d. Anesthetic toxicity
    e. None of them
A

d. Anesthetic toxicity

55
Q
  1. The route examination of a health 20-year-old man discloses around, brown lesion, 3 mm in diameter, on his lower lip. The lesion is solitary, asymptomatic and flat. Its duration is unknown
    which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
    a. Blue nevus.
    b. Compound nevus – slightly elevated
    c. Focal melanosis
    d. Malignant melanoma – irregularlyshaped
    e. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome – cafe-au-laut spots, blue-gray, brown
A

c. Focal melanosis

56
Q
  1. Which projection is best for examining zygomatic arch fractures?
    a. Waters projection – maxillary sinus, Frontal & ethmoidal sinuses
    b. Submentovertex projection
    c. Reverse Towne projection – condylar neck Fracture
    d. Lateral cephalometric projection – ortho
A

b. Submentovertex projection

57
Q
  1. For maxillary extractions, the upper jaw should be
    a. Below the height of the operator’s shoulder
    b. Above the height of the operator’s shoulder
    c. At the same height of the operator’s shoulder
    d. It makes no difference where the patient’s upper jaw is in
    relation to the operator’s shoulder
A

c. At the same height of the operator’s shoulder

58
Q
  1. All of the following are cardinal signs of postoperative osteitis
    except
    a. Throbbing, radiating pain
    b. Bilateral lymphadenopathy
    c. Fetid odor
    d. Bad taste
    e. Poorly healed extraction site
A

b. Bilateral lymphadenopathy – no infection

59
Q
  1. The following may be used as irrigants during or after tooth
    extraction except
    a. Normal saline
    b. Chlorhexidine
    c. Distilled water
    d. None of the above
A

c. Distilled water
***
a. Normal saline - isotonic
b. Chlorhexidine - after
c. Distilled water – - hypotonic soln
d. None of the above

60
Q
  1. After properly placing the forceps on a tooth, a rotating movement in addition to luxation should be used to extract
    a. Maxillary central incisors only
    b. Maxillary incisors and canines only –=curved distally
    c. All maxillary and mandibular anterior teeth
    d. All third molars
    e. All teeth
A

a. Maxillary central incisors only

61
Q
  1. A 50-year-old man has a maxillary second molar that is the only remaining posterior tooth on that side. It has served as an abutment, but now it must be extracted. Care must be taken during the extraction to prevent
    a. Postoperative osteitis
    b. Displacement into the infratemporal fossa
    c. Removing the floor of the maxillary sinus with the tooth
    d. Pushing the palatal root into the nasal cavity
A

c. Removing the floor of the maxillary sinus with the tooth

a. Postoperative osteitis – after exO
b. Displacement into the infratemporal fossa – -too Far
d. Pushing the palatal root into the nasal cavity – -too Far

62
Q
  1. Following the removal of a lower molar tooth, the patient complains of numbness of the lip on the same side even after 10 days have passed. The dentist should explain that

a. All lower molar extractions result in temporary numbness and that it will get better

b. There must have been an infection at the root ends and that the numbness will disappear when the wound is completely healed

c. Numbness is a sign of a tumor and the patient should see a specialist

d. The nerve was traumatized during the extraction and will heal in a month or so

e. The patient didn’t follow postoperative instructions and an infection developed following the extraction

A

d. The nerve was traumatized during the extraction and will heal in a month or s

63
Q
  1. The ideal time to remove impacted third molars is
    a. When the root is fully formed
    b. When the root is approximately two-thirds formed
    c. Makes no difference how much of the root is formed
    d. When the root is approximately one-third formed
A

b. When the root is approximately two-thirds formed

64
Q
  1. Mandibular impacted third molars are classified according to the following except

a. Relation of the impaction to the ramus
b. Relation of the impaction to the long axis of the second
mandibular molar
c. Depth of the impaction in the mandible
d. Direction of the crown of the impaction in relation to the
occlusal table
e. Relation of the impacted molar to the inferior alveolar canal

A

e. Relation of the impacted molar to the inferior alveolar canal
**
a. Relation of the impaction to the ramus – Pell and Gregory Class 123

b. Relation of the impaction to the long axis of the second mandibular molar – angulations, winter’s
c. Depth of the impaction in the mandible – winter’s, Pell +Gregory
d. Direction of the crown of the impaction in relation to the occlusal table

65
Q
  1. How long should one wait before obtaining a biopsy of an oral
    ulcer?
    a. 4 days
    b. 7 days
    c. 14 days
    d. 30 days
A

c. 14 days

66
Q
  1. Procedure done after tooth extraction to reduce the width of the socket & undercuts:
    a. simple alveoloplasty
    b. alveolar compression
    c. alveolectomy
    d. molding
    e. all of these
A

b. alveolar compression

67
Q
  1. The most common complication of an open fracture is:
    a. nonunion
    b. infection
    c. malunion
    d. crepitation
    e. poor alignment of the fracture
A

b. infection

**d. crepitation – S/Sx of Fracture

68
Q
  1. The beak of an extraction forceps is designed so that most of the extraction pressure is transmitted to the
    a. Root of the tooth
    b. Crown of the tooth
    c. Cemento-enamel junction
    d. Dentino-enamel junction
    e. Alveolar bone
A

a. Root of the tooth

69
Q
  1. Which of the following is sometimes referred to as Guerin’s fracture?
    a. Le Fort I
    b. Le Fort II
    c. Le Fort III
    d. All of these
    e. None
A

a. Le Fort I
–Guerin’s ecchymosis -palate,
– horizontal, transmaxillary

b. Le Fort II - pyramidal
c. Le Fort III
- craniofacial dysjunction/ separation, racoon eyes

70
Q
  1. A process characterized by the fusion of the surface of a dental implant to the surrounding bone to be used readily as an anchor for tooth:
    a. transosseous
    b. subperiosteal
    c. endosseous
    d. osteointegration
A

d. osteointegration

71
Q
  1. Histologically, what type of malignancy displays a characteristic “starry-sky” appearance?

a. Hodgkin’s disease
b. Burkitt’s lymphoma
c. Acute myelogenous leukemia
d. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

A

b. Burkitt’s lymphoma
**
a. Hodgkin’s disease – Reed-sternberg cells
b. Burkitt’s lymphoma
c. Acute myelogenous leukemia – Auer rods
d. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia – lymphoblasts - can appear as smudge cells

72
Q
  1. Also known as the leukemia of childhood
    a. AML
    b. CML
    c. ALL
    d. CLL
A

c. ALL – -most responsive to treat -> good prognosis
**
a. AML - most aggressive and malignant
b. CML - Philadelphia chromosomes = translocation 9 and 22
d. CLL – -least malignant = most common

73
Q
  1. Generalized gingival hyperplasia is a common side effect of the following drugs EXCEPT
    a. Cyclosporine
    b. Nifedipine
    c. Losartan
    d. Phenytoin
A

c. Losartan = angiotensin II receptor blocker
**

a. Cyclosporine – = immuno suppresant drug
b. Nifedipine – =calcium-channel blocker
d. Phenytoin – =anti-convulsant

74
Q
  1. The odontogenic neoplasm, which is composed of loose, primitive-appearing connective tissue that resembles dental pulp, microscopically is known as
    a. Odontoma
    b. Ameloblastoma
    c. Ameloblastic fibroma
    d. Ameloblastic fibro-odontoma
    e. Odontogenic myxoma
A

e. Odontogenic myxoma – honeycomb

a. Odontoma
–compound -miniature teeth
–complex - mass
b. Ameloblastoma – enamel organ (resembles)
c. Ameloblastic fibroma, and d. Ameloblastic fibro-odontoma—- myxomatous ct lesion containing strands of epithelium

75
Q
  1. On a routine radiographic exam, a well-defined radiolucent lesion was seen in the body of the mandible of a 17-year-old boy.
    At the time of operation, it proved to be an empty cavity. This is
    a(an)
    a. Osteoporotic bone marrow
    b. Aneurysmal bone cyst
    c. Odontogenic keratocyst
    d. Static bone cyst
    e. Traumatic bone cyst
A

e. Traumatic bone cyst – scalloped margins bet. root of teeth (radiographically
*** a,b,c,d – Lining and fluid - filled

76
Q
  1. Bilateral, asymptomatic, cyst like radiolucent lesions, occurring in the bone at the angles of the mandible in a 7-yr old child is most likely related to a condition called
    a. Cherubism
    b. Static bone cavities
    c. Embryonic bone cyst
    d. Latent bone cyst
    e. Idiopathic bone cavities
A

a. Cherubism

77
Q
  1. Which of the following is a potential sequela of an acute periapical abscess?

a. Central giant cell granuloma
b. Peripheral giant cell granuloma
c. Osteosarcoma
d. Periapical granuloma
e. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia

A

d. Periapical granuloma
**
a. Central giant cell granuloma – = teeth are vital
b. Peripheral giant cell granuloma – =soft tissue -local irritations
c. Osteosarcoma – genetic alterations
e. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia –teeth are vital

78
Q
  1. Soap bubble radiolucency of the mandible:
    a. ameloblastoma
    b. fibrous dysplasia [———ground glass]
    c. compound odontoma [—-tooth like -> radiopaque w/ radiolucent border]
    d. dentigerous cyst [radiolucent w/ well circumscribed radiopaque border]
A

a. ameloblastoma

79
Q
  1. Teeth with high degree of amberlike translucency and a variety of colors from yellow to blue gray and crowns readily wear:

a. Amelogenesis imperfecta
b. Dentin dysplasia
c. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
d. Odontodysplasia
e. None of these

A

c. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
**
Type 1: osteogenesis imperfectd
Type 2: Hereditary opalescentdentine
Type 3: brandywine type= shell-like;multiple pulp exposure

a. Amelogenesis imperfecta
*TYPE 1 - hypoplastic - low quantity, normal hardness
*TYPE 2 - hypomaturation - normal quantime, abnormal hardness
*TYPE 3 - hypocalcified - normal quantity, soft and chalky
b. Dentin dysplasia
-type 1 - radicularly –short root
-type 2 - coronally – thistle tube
d. Odontodysplasia
– ghost teeth= short roots, open apical foramina,
enlarged pulp chamber

80
Q
  1. The bone on dental film has the appearance of being finelytrabeculated almost ground glass in effect, with diffuse areas of osteoporosis and osteosclerosis giving a cotton wool appearance. The patient probably has:

a. Hand-schuller-christian disease – punched out, multiple myeloma

b. Gaucher’s disease – soap bubble app, and Erlenmeyer Flask deformity

c. Paget’s disease

d. Hyperparathyroidism – ground glass *fibrous dysplasia

e. None of the above

A

c. Paget’s disease

81
Q
  1. The heating filament in the cathode is controlled by the
    a. Timer
    b. Step Down Transformer
    c. Voltmeter
    d. Kilovoltage
A

b. Step Down Transformer
**
main socket = 110-220v
↓
step down = 3 - 5v
transformer
↓
tungsten THERMIONIC
Filament EMISSION
↓
electron
cloud

82
Q
  1. The cathode in the x-ray tube consists of a tungsten filament surrounded by a
    a. Silver focusing cup
    b. Titanium focusing cup
    c. Molybdenum focusing cup
    d. Vanadium focusing cup
A

c. Molybdenum focusing cup

83
Q
  1. The area from which x-rays emanate is called the:
    a. Target
    b. Focal spot – -anode
    c. Intensifying screen
    d. Cone
A

b. Focal spot

84
Q
  1. An indicator of the quality of an x-ray beam:
    a. mA – quantity
    b. Machine output – quantity
    c. Half-value layer
    d. Exposure time – quantity
A

c. Half-value layer – -half value layer, good quality of xray

85
Q
  1. Of the ff. the shorter wavelength is given off by:
    a. radar
    b. visible light
    c. radio waves
    d. electric wave
A

b. visible light

86
Q
  1. The boiling electrons at the cathode when the tungsten filament is heated is known as the
    a. Thermal energy
    b. Electron thermal kinetic movement
    c. Thermo-electrical diffusion
    d. Thermionic emission
A

d. Thermionic emission

87
Q
  1. The effective focal spot
    a. Is always larger than the actual focal spot
    b. Is in reality circular in shape
    c. Is always variable function of the target-object distance
    d. Is always less than the actual focal spot
A

d. Is always less than the actual focal spot **1mmx3mm

88
Q
  1. The advantage of the paralleling technique over the bisecting-angle technique is:

a. the increased anatomic accuracy of the radiographic image

b. the increase object-film distance

c. the greater the magnification of the image

d. that the central ray is perpendicular to an imaginary line drawn through half the angle between the long axis of the
teeth and the film — bisecting angle technique

A

a. the increased anatomic accuracy of the radiographic image

89
Q
  1. Radiographic film emulsion is:
    a. cellulose acetate
    b. hydroquinone
    c. sodium thiosulfate
    d. gelatin and silver bromide
    e. calcium tungsten
A

d. gelatin and silver bromide
**
a. cellulose acetate —— used as film base in photography
b. hydroquinone ——-developer -> reducing agent
c. sodium thiosulfate —-Fixer -> Fixing agent and sodium ammonium
e. calcium tungsten ——-used to manufacture intensifying screens

90
Q
  1. The component of developer that gives detail to the radiographic image is:

a. hydroquinone —- reducing agent
b. sodium carbonate —- accelerator /activator
c. sodium sulfite – —- perservative
d. potassium bromide —- restrainer / anti-fog
e. none of these

A

a. hydroquinone

91
Q
  1. Which of the ff is a hardening agent in film processing?
    a. acetic acid
    b. potassium alum
    c. potassium bromide
    d. potassium hydroxide
    e. none
A

b. potassium alum

92
Q
  1. Collimation of a beam refers to be:
    a. selective removal of soft radiation from the beam
    b. selective removal of hard radiation from the beam
    c. reduction of the beam diameter
    d. none of these
A

c. reduction of the beam diameter

93
Q
  1. When taking a bite wing film, the direction and angulation of the central ray is:
    a. 5° above the horizontal plane
    b. 10° to the left of vertical plane
    c. 10° above the horizontal plane
    d. 10° below the horizontal plane
    e. 10° to the right of vertical plane
A

c. 10° above the horizontal plane

94
Q
  1. ALARA means:
    a. As little as reasonably achievable
    b. As low as reasonably applicable
    c. As little as reasonably applicable
    d. As low as reasonably achievable
A

d. As low as reasonably achievable — principle of optimization

95
Q
  1. Which of the following is an indicator of the quality of an x-ray beam?
    a. Milliamperage
    b. H and D curve
    c. Exposure time
    d. Machine output
    e. Half-value layer
A

e. Half-value layer

96
Q
  1. Which of the following converts electrons into x-rays?
    a. Positive anode
    b. Negative anode
    c. Positive cathode
    d. Negative cathode — supplies electrons necessary to generate xrays
A

a. Positive anode

97
Q
  1. After developing her bitewings, a dentist realizes that she has too much overlap between the contacts of adjacent teeth. This is an error caused by:
    a. Too much vertical angulation – foreshortening
    b. Too little vertical angulation – elongation
    c. Incorrect horizontal angulation
    d. Beam not aimed at center of film – cone cut
A

c. Incorrect horizontal angulation

98
Q
  1. This white lesion is caused by persistent low- grade friction or trauma to the oral mucosa.
    a. Focal keratosis
    b. Nicotine stomatitis - red lesions
    c. Cheek chewing
    d. Follicular Keratosis
A

a. Focal keratosis

99
Q
  1. While taking radiographic exposure, you did not place the central beam on the film in the patient’s mouth. What will show on
    the resulting film?
    a. Decreased vertical height of the tooth —- - foreshortened
    b. Conecut
    c. Root tip cut
    d. Shortened image
A

b. Conecut

100
Q
  1. A palatal lesion in denture wearers that appears as multiple
    inflamed small projections in the vault area is called
    a. Hyperkeratosis
    b. Papillary hyperplasia
    c. Papilloma
    d. Epulis fissuratum
A

b. Papillary hyperplasia

fmd (14 decks)

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