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PRTTEST 6 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A patient presents to your office with the following current medication list:
    warfarin, aspirin, and clotrimazole. Before beginning the procedure you had
    planned, you decide it is worthwhile to look up further information on these
    drugs. Warfarin is metabolized in the liver and has a volume of distribution of
    approximately 0.14 L/kg. You are slightly concerned that this patient may
    experience increased bleeding because of these properties along with the
    concomitant medications he is taking. Which of the following properties of a
    drug is the least likely to contribute to a significant adverse interaction with
    another drug?
    a. The drug has a low therapeutic index
    b. The drug has minimal protein binding
    c. The drug undergoes extensive cytochrome P450 metabolism
    d. The drug is an enzyme inducer
    e. The drug has a low volume of distribution
A

b. The drug has minimal protein binding

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2
Q

with the alpha receptors in the eye, which response listed below
would you, except?
a. Miosis (contraction of the pupil) –(parasympa)
b. Mydriasis (dilation of the pupil) –(sympa)
c. Neither of the above; norepinephrine and epinephrine do
not stimulate or combine with alpha receptors in the eye

A

b. Mydriasis (dilation of the pupil)

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3
Q
  1. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococci are most likely to be
    inhibited by which drug?
    a. Amoxicillin
    b. Clarithromycin
    c. Clindamycin
    d. Vancomycin
    e. Penicillin V
A

d. Vancomycin –red man syndrome

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an action of diazepam?
    a. Antianxiety
    b. Anti-inflammatory
    c. Sedative
    d. Antispasticity
A

b. Anti-inflammatory

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5
Q
  1. The ratio of LD50 and ED50 is:
    a. Potency
    b. Toxicity Index
    c. Efficacy
    d. Therapeutic index
A

d. Therapeutic index

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6
Q
  1. What is the mechanism of the analgesic action of aspirin?
    a. Stimulates μ opioid receptors
    b. Blocks histamine H2 receptors
    c. Inhibits cyclooxygenase
    d. Inhibits lipoxygenase
    e. Blocks sodium channels in nerves
A

c. Inhibits cyclooxygenase

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following compounds after being metabolized to
    form ACETAMINOPHEN is an active analgesic and antipyretic
    agent?
    a. Propoxyphene
    b. Aminopyrine
    c. ASA
    d. Phenacitin
    e. Phenylbutazone
A

d. Phenacitin

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8
Q
  1. You received a call from the emergency department at your local hospital concerning a pediatric patient that you recently treated. The patient is a 6-year-old boy who was brought to the emergency department in a comatose state. His parents state that he recently visited your office for extraction of a grossly decayed primary tooth. The parents state that they had given him a few pain pills to help with the discomfort following the extraction. Physical examination of the boy revealed “comatose, hepatomegaly, and yellow sclera.” A computerized tomography (CT) scan revealed cerebral edema. Laboratory results showed elevated alanine aminotransferase (ALT), aspartate aminotransferase (AST), and prothrombin time (PT). The emergency department physician believes that treatment with the antidote N-acetylcysteine is necessary but has called you to confirm whether you prescribed any medications. What agent is most likely involved in the symptoms of this patient?

a. Aspirin
b. Acetaminophen
c. Codeine
d. Celecoxib
e. Ibuprofen

A

b. Acetaminophen

**
a. Aspirin— administration of platelet concentrate
c. Codeine –naloxone
d. Celecoxib –NSAIDS
e. Ibuprofen – NSAIDS

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9
Q
  1. Penicillin V is ideally given
    a. Orally
    b. Subcutaneously
    c. Intravenously
    d. None of the above
A

a. Orally

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following refers to potency of drug?

a. The strength of a drug in relation to its usage
b. The ability of the drug to produce an effect
c. The amount of drug needed to produce an action
d. The amount of drug required to produce a given maximal effect
–

A

c. The amount of drug needed to produce an action

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11
Q
  1. Streptomycin and other aminoglycosides inhibit bacterial
    protein synthesis by binding to:
    a. DNA
    b. Messenger RNA
    c. 30s ribosomal particle
    d. 50s subunit
A

c. 30s ribosomal particle

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12
Q
  1. Nitrous oxide is used during conscious sedation. The maximum NO2-O2 mixture should be:
    a. 95% NO2, 5% O2
    b. 70% NO2, 30% O2
    c. 70% O2, 30% NO2
    d. 50% NO2, 50% O2
A

b. 70% NO2, 30% O2

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13
Q
  1. What is the antibiotic classification of Tetracycline?
    a. Bacteriostatic
    b. Bactericidal
    c. All of the above
    d. None of the above
A

a. Bacteriostatic

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14
Q
  1. Which drug is often combined with sulfamethoxazole for the
    treatment of respiratory tract and urinary tract infections?
    a. Amoxicillin
    b. Ciprofloxacin
    c. Clindamycin
    d. Metronidazole
    e. Trimethoprim
A

e. Trimethoprim

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15
Q
  1. Identify the enzyme whose inhibition is most responsible for
    the cell wall synthesis inhibitory effect of penicillin G.
    a. β-lactamase
    b. DNA gyrase
    c. Nitro reductase
    d. Transglycosylase
    e. Transpeptidase
A

e. Transpeptidase

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16
Q
  1. Clavulanic acid offers an advantage therapeutically because
    it has what action?
    a. It inhibits Streptococci at a low minimum inhibitory
    concentration (MIC).
    b. It inhibits transpeptidase.
    c. It inhibits penicillinase.
    d. It inhibits anaerobes at a low MIC.
    e. It inhibits DNA gyrase.
A

c. It inhibits penicillinase.

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17
Q
  1. Areas anesthetized by Nasopalatine nerve block
    a. Bilateral posterior molars
    b. Unilateral canine
    c. Bilateral canine
    d. Unilateral posterior molars
A

c. Bilateral canine

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18
Q
  1. Nitrates and nitrites have what effect on blood vessel smooth
    muscle?
    a. Increase in the level of intracellular calcium
    b. Increase in the level of cyclic guanosine monophosphate
    (cGMP)
    c. Antagonism at α1-adrenergic receptors
    d. Antagonism at β-adrenergic receptors
    e. Inhibition of L-type calcium channels
A

b. Increase in the level of cyclic guanosine monophosphate
(cGMP)

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following is a method of true mandibular nerve
    block?
    a. Lingual Nerve Block
    b. Akinosi Technique
    c. Classical IAN Block
    d. Gow-Gates Technique
A

d. Gow-Gates Technique

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20
Q
  1. All of the following statement is true regarding NSAIDs,
    except:
    a. Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cox-1 and cox-2
    cyclooxygenases
    b. All NSAIDs, except aspirin, are reversible inhibitors of cox-1
    and cox-2 cyclooxygenases
    c. Prostaglandin synthesis is rarely affected
    d. They are used for inflammation, analgesia, and antipyrexia
A

c. Prostaglandin synthesis is rarely affected

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21
Q
  1. The following are the nerves to be anesthetized when
    extracting tooth #26, except
    a. Greater Palatine Nerve
    b. Lesser Palatine Nerve
    c. Middle Superior Alveolar Nerve
    d. Posterior Superior Alveolar Nerve
A

b. Lesser Palatine Nerve

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22
Q
  1. Which class of antihypertensive drug most effectively reduces
    the release of renin from the kidney?
    a. β-adrenergic receptor blockers
    b. ACE inhibitors
    c. α-adrenergic receptor blockers
    d. Calcium channel blockers
    e. Angiotensin II receptor blockers
A

a. β-adrenergic receptor blockers

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23
Q
  1. The use of H2 histamine receptor blockers is most clinically
    useful at what cell type?
    a. Beta cells of the pancreas
    b. Basophils
    c. Mast cells
    d. Juxtaglomerular cells
    e. Parietal cells
A

e. Parietal cells

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24
Q
  1. What is the clinical setting for the use of ketorolac by the oral
    route?
    a. For severe pain
    b. For initial treatment of pain
    c. To continue therapy after an IV or IM dose of ketorolac
    d. Only in combination with an opioid
    e. Only in combination with an NSAID
A

c. To continue therapy after an IV or IM dose of ketorolac

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25
Q
  1. The following effects result from what type of pharmacological
    agent?
    * Tachycardia
    * Lower blood pressure
    * Vasodilation
    * Orthostatic hypotension
    a. Alpha adrenergic receptor blocker (alpha blocker)
    b. Beta adrenergic receptor blocker (beta blocker)
    c. Muscarinic cholinergic blocker (muscarinic blocker)
    d. Nicotinic cholinergic blocker (nicotinic blocker
A

a. Alpha adrenergic receptor blocker (alpha blocker)

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26
Q
  1. A patient presents to your office for a surgical extraction. Following the procedure, you prescribe the patient tylenol #3 (acetaminophen + codeine). The patient is taking several other drugs concurrently. Which of the following drugs is most likely to inhibit the effectiveness of
    codeine?
    a. Terazosin
    b. Glipizide
    c. Lisinopril
    d. Fluoxetine
    e. Lithium
A

d. Fluoxetine

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27
Q
  1. Duration of action of bupivacaine
    a. 4 hours
    b. 2 hours
    c. 10 hours
    d. 8 hours
A

c. 10 hours

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28
Q
  1. Brand name of mepivacaine
    a. Carbocaine
    b. Marcaine
    c. Cocaine
    d. Metacaine
A

a. Carbocaine

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29
Q
  1. Of the following, which is clinically significant adverse
    reaction due to metoprolol?
    a. Drowsiness
    b. Hallucinations
    c. Arthralgia
    d. Dry mouth
A

a. Drowsiness

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30
Q
  1. All of the following are centrally acting antihypertensives,
    except:
    a. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
    b. Clonidine (Catapres)
    c. Tolazoline (Priscoline)
    d. Guanabenz (Wytension)
    e. Guanfacine (Tenex)
A

c. Tolazoline (Priscoline)

–Moderate alpha 2 selective antagomit

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31
Q
  1. After taking Drug X for 5 days, steady free blood levels average
    about 20 ug/mL. Drug Z is then introduced while the patient continues to take Drug X, and the free blood levels of Drug X increase to 100
    ug/mL. What could have accounted for this?
    a. Drug Z is a liver microsomal enzyme inducer
    b. Drugs X and Z formed a chelation product in the intestine
    c. Drug Z increased the glomerular filtration rate
    d. Drug Z has a positive inotropic and chronotropic effect
    e. Drugs X and Z are highly bound to plasma proteins
A

e. Drugs X and Z are highly bound to plasma proteins

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32
Q
  1. What substance produces all of the following physiologic actions?
    * Constrict arteriolar blood vessels (vasoconstriction)
    * Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle (bronchodilation)
    * Decrease blood volume in nasal tissues
    * Causes a hypertensive response
    * Produces physiological actions opposite to that of histamine
    a. Epinephrine
    b. Bradykinin
    c. Acetylcholine
    d. Serotonin
A

a. Epinephrine
***
b. Bradykinin — promotes inflammation -> Vasodilation

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33
Q
  1. Which of the following patterns on the use of drugs refers to a
    decrease response to a drug?
    a. Dependence
    b. Cross dependence
    c. Tolerance
    d. Withdrawal
A

c. Tolerance

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34
Q
  1. Which of the most preferable antibiotic form the treatment of
    non-penicillinase producing gram positive staphylococcal
    infections?
    a. Clindamycin
    b. Penicillin VK
    c. Ampicillin
    d. Cefaclor
A

b. Penicillin VK

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35
Q
  1. Which of the following has the broadest spectrum of action, activity against gram positive and gram-negative bacteria?
    a. Tetracycline
    b. Clindamycin
    c. Erythromycin
    d. Ampicillin
A

d. Ampicillin
***
b and c both gram +

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36
Q
  1. The heart is generally considered to have predominantly
    which type of adrenergic receptors?
    a. Alpha 1 receptors
    b. Beta 1 receptors
    c. Alpha 2 receptors
    d. Beta 2 receptors
A

b. Beta 1 receptors —heart
***
a. Alpha 1 receptors –blood vessels (skin)

c. Alpha 2 receptors –blood vessels
d. Beta 2 receptors
-lungs

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37
Q
  1. Many people use herbal supplements as alternate therapy for a variety
    of conditions. It is important for physicians and dentists to know what
    medications their patients are taking, including herbal supplements. St.
    John’s Wort is an example of a supplement commonly used to relieve
    depression. The simultaneous ingestion of the herbal St. John’s Wort has been shown to decrease the half-life of oral contraceptives because St. John’s Wort:
    a. Blocks the active secretion of oral contraceptive
    b. Induces CYP-3A4 in the gut and liver
    c. Increases stomach acidity
    d. Blocks both estrogen and progesterone receptors
    e. Decreases serotonin levels in the brain
A

b. Induces CYP-3A4 in the gut and liver

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38
Q
  1. A 55-year-old female patient was referred to your office by her physician
    because she is preparing to receive an infusion of zoledronic acid. Her physician
    told her to see a dentist to determine if she has any teeth that may need to be
    extracted in the near future. If so, these should be extracted prior to the infusion
    because of the risk of poor bone healing (osteonecrosis) that sometimes occurs in
    patients receiving infusions of zoledronic acid. Prior to the infusion, the patient was
    taking an oral form of this type of drug. What is another major side effect of the oral
    form that her physician may have warned her about?
    a. Anemia
    b. Xerostomia
    c. Edema
    d. Esophageal perforation
    e. Orthostatic hypotension
A

d. Esophageal perforation
–=invitation of the esophagus -> perforation
**
a. Anemia
-cephalosporins and penicillins, levodopa, methyldopa, quinidine

b. Xerostomia
–antihistamines, anticholinergic, antidepressants, anti-HAN, anti-psychotic

c. Edema
–chemotherapy agents,corticosteroids

e. Orthostatic hypotension
–alpha 1 receptor blocker

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39
Q
  1. Which of the following organisms is usually sensitive to
    clindamycin?
    a. Candida albicans
    b. Klebsiella pneumoniae
    c. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
    d. Streptococcus viridans
    e. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
A

d. Streptococcus viridans

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40
Q
  1. Pharmaceutical agents that bring about tissue responses
    resembling those produced by stimulation of the sympathetic
    nervous system are called?
    a. Cholinomimetic
    b. Antiadrenergic
    c. Anticholinergic
    d. Sympathomimetic
A

d. Sympathomimetic

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41
Q
  1. Agent of choice for anesthetizing patients without plasma
    cholinesterase enzyme
    a. Pontocaine
    b. Ravocaine
    c. Prilocaine
    d. Tetracaine
A

c. Prilocaine

42
Q
  1. What type of antibiotics are sulfonamides?
    a. Bacteriostatic
    b. Bactericidal
    c. Neutral
    d. PABA
A

a. Bacteriostatic

43
Q
  1. Using Articaine reduces the risk for toxicity because:

a. It is biotransformed through plasma cholinesterase
b. Biotransformation through the liver is better
c. Its action and properties are very similar to lidocaine
d. Its biotransformation occurs both in the general circulation
and in the liver

A

d. Its biotransformation occurs both in the general circulation
and in the liver

44
Q
  1. In patients with malignant hyperthermia, which anesthetic is
    recommended?
    a. Propoxycaine
    b. Lidocaine
    c. Etidocaine
    d. Mepivacaine
A

a. Propoxycaine

45
Q
  1. The local anesthetic agent with the shortest duration of action is:
    a. Novocaine
    b. Propoxycaine
    c. Lidocaine
    d. Nesacaine - [chloroprocaine]
A

a. Novocaine
– =Procaine -shortest acting LA

**shortest acting amide: mepivacaine
longest acting amide: bupivacaine

46
Q
  1. The patient developed an allergy following injection of an
    amide type of local anesthetic. The most likely result is a reaction
    to:
    a. Lidocaine
    b. Contamination
    c. Methylparaben
    d. Epinephrine
A

c. Methylparaben

47
Q
  1. The metabolite of Prilocaine which can produce
    methemoglobinemia:
    a. Gamma-toluidine
    b. Beta-toluidine
    c. Ortho-toluidine
    d. Levo-toluidine
A

c. Ortho-toluidine

48
Q
  1. A dentist administers 1.8 ml of a 2% solution of lidocaine.
    How many mg of lidocaine did the patient receive
    a. 3.6
    b. 9
    c. 18
    d. 36
    e. 180
A

d. 36

49
Q
  1. According to AHA guidelines, the maximum # of carpules of
    local anesthetic containing 1:200,000 epinephrine that can be
    used in a patient with cardiovascular disease is
    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
    e. 11
A

d. 4

50
Q
  1. A recently introduced local anesthetic agent is claimed by the
    manufacturer to be several times as potent as procaine. The product is
    available in 0.05% buffered aqueous solution in 1.8 ml cartridge. The
    maximum amount recommended for dental anesthesis over a 4-hour period
    is 30 mg. the amount is contained in approximately how many cartridges?
    a. 1-9
    b. 10-18
    c. 19-27
    d. 28-36
    e. Greater than 36
A

d. 28-36

51
Q
  1. Which one of the following is true regarding paroxetine?

a. It specifically inhibits serotonin reuptake
b. It is used to treat mania
c. It can be safely taken with monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)
d. GI upset is not a common side effect
e. Sexual dysfunction is rarely reported

A

a. It specifically inhibits serotonin reuptake

52
Q
  1. Continuous infusion of medication A is given to a 65-kg patient.
    The pharmacokinetic parameters are as follows: clearance =
    9mL/min/kg, volume of distribution =65 L, half-life=4 hours. How long
    will it take for the medication level to reach 93.75% of steady state?
    a. 8 hours
    b. 10 hours
    c. 14 hours
    d. 16 hours
    e. 18 hours
A

d. 16 hours

53
Q
  1. Which one of the following benzodiazepines does not require
    Phase I metabolism by the liver?
    a. Alprazolam
    b. Oxazepam
    c. Midazolam
    d. Triazolam
    e. Diazepam
A

b. Oxazepam
–useful in pxts w/ liver failure

54
Q
  1. Your 55-year-old male patient is scheduled for three quadrants of periodontal surgery. Each surgical procedure is scheduled 4 weeks apart. This patient is allergic to penicillin and has a history of a mitral valve prolapse. On the basis of the current guidelines, which prescription would be most appropriate to adequately premedicate this patient for all of his visits?
    a. Amoxicillin 2-g tablets; Disp: 3 tablets; Sig: take 1 tablet 30–60 minutes prior to dental procedure
    b. Amoxicillin 2-g tablets; Disp: 6 tables; Sig: take 2 tablets 30–60 minutes prior to dental procedure
    c. Clindamycin600-mgtablets; Disp: 3 tablets; Sig: take 1 tablet 30–60minutespriortodental procedure
    d. Clindamycin600-mgtablets; Disp: 6 tablets; Sig: take 2 tablets 30–60 minutes prior to dental
    procedure
    e. No prescription necessary
A

e. No prescription necessary

55
Q
  1. N-acetylcysteine is used as an antidote for overdose of which
    of the following medications?
    a. Acetaminophen
    b. Ibuprofen
    c. Celecoxib
    d. Indomethacin
    e. Naproxen
A

a. Acetaminophen

56
Q
  1. Naloxone antagonizes the therapeutic and toxic effects of
    which drug?
    a. Acetaminophen
    b. Aspirin
    c. Carbamazepine
    d. Fentanyl
    e. Ibuprofen
A

d. Fentanyl

57
Q
  1. What is the approximate elimination half-time for penicillin V?
    a. 0.5 hour
    b. 2 hours
    c. 4 hours
    d. 8 hours
    e. 12 hours
A

a. 0.5 hour—-due to rapid excretion of penicillin in the urine

58
Q
  1. Pick the organism that is usually clinically sensitive to
    clarithromycin but not to penicillin V.
    a. Streptococcus viridans
    b. Leptotrichia buccalis
    c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
    d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    e. Streptococcus pyogenes
A

c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
– lacks cell wall

59
Q
  1. Most drug molecules are absorbed into the tissue by way of ___.
    a. Blood circulation
    b. Lipid solubility
    c. Water solubility
    d. Carrier specificity
A

b. Lipid solubility

60
Q
  1. What is the reaction of drugs that cannot be explained by
    known mechanism?
    a. Idiosyncracy
    b. Allergic reaction
    c. Teratogenic effects
    d. Adverse effects
A

a. Idiosyncracy

61
Q
  1. What does HAART stands for?
    a. Highly Accurate Antiretroviral therapy
    b. Human Activated Antiretroviral Therapy
    c. Histiocyte Active Antiretroviral Treatment
    d. Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy
A

d. Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy

62
Q
  1. Which drugs tend to concentrate in body compartments of
    high pH?
    a. Permanently charged drugs
    b. Drugs that are not charged
    c. Weak organic acids
    d. Weak organic bases
    e. Inorganic ions
A

c. Weak organic acids

63
Q
  1. Drug agonists having the same intrinsic activity also have the
    same _____.
    a. Maximal effect
    b. Potency
    c. Receptor affinity
    d. Therapeutic index
    e. Aqueous solubility
A

a. Maximal effect

64
Q
  1. Which drug poses the greatest risk of a cardiac arrhythmia
    when administered at the same time as epinephrine?
    a. Desflurane
    b. Halothane
    c. Isoflurane
    d. Propofol
    e. Sevoflurane
A

b. Halothane—
sensitizes the heeart to epi and other catecholamines

65
Q
  1. According to Malamed, the maximum local anesthetic dose of
    lidocaine (with or without vasoconstrictor) is _____.
    a. 1.5 mg/kg
    b. 2.0 mg/kg
    c. 4.4 mg/kg
    d. 7.0 mg/kg
A

c. 4.4 mg/kg

66
Q
  1. The optimal volume of local anesthetic solution delivered for a
    true anterior superior alveolar (ASA) nerve block is usually about
    _____.
    a. 0.5 mL
    b. 1.0 mL
    c. 1.5 mL
    d. 1.8 mL
A

b. 1.0 mL

67
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs is most commonly employed in
    an attack of angina pectoris?
    a. Sodium nitrate
    b. Epinephrine
    c. Theophylline
    d. Nitroglycerin
    e. Isosorbide dinitrate
A

b. Epinephrine

68
Q
  1. The local anesthetic agent that is most appropriate for use in
    most children is _____.
    a. 3% mepivacaine
    b. 2% mepivacaine with 1:20,000 levonordefrin
    c. 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine
    d. 0.5% bupivacaine with 1:200,000 epinephrine
A

c. 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine
***
d. 0.5% bupivacaine with 1:200,000 epinephrine
– Not FDA-approved to be used in children

69
Q
  1. How is the therapeutic index of a drug calculated?
    a. The therapeutic dose is divided by the toxic base.
    b. Half the toxic dose is divided by half the therapeutic dose.
    c. The maximum tolerated dose is divided by the minimum therapeutic dose.
    d. The lethal dose for 50 per cent of animals is divided by the therapeutic
    dose for 50 per cent of animals.
A

d. The lethal dose for 50 per cent of animals is divided by the therapeutic
dose for 50 per cent of animals.

70
Q
  1. Which of the following local anesthetics causes the least
    amount of vasodilation?
    a. Lidocaine
    b. Mepivacaine
    c. Bupivacaine
    d. Articaine
A

b. Mepivacaine

71
Q
  1. If a local anesthetic has a low pKa, then it will usually have a
    _____.
    a. Greater potency
    b. Higher degree of protein binding
    c. Faster onset of action
    d. Greater vasodilating potential
A

c. Faster onset of action

72
Q
  1. The primary effect produced by digitalis at therapeutic dose
    levels is
    a. a slowing of the cardiac rate.
    b. a decrease in the venous pressure.
    c. a decrease in cardiac enlargement.
    d. an increase in the force of myocardial contraction
A

d. an increase in the force of myocardial contraction

73
Q
  1. Anticipating correct administration of the (long) buccal injection, what
    areas will be anesthetized?
    a. Soft tissues and periosteum buccal to the mandibular molar teeth
    b. Soft tissues and periosteum lingual to the mandibular molar teeth
    c. Soft tissues and periosteum lingual to the mandibular premolar teeth
    d. Soft tissues and periosteum buccal to the mandibular premolar teeth
A

a. Soft tissues and periosteum buccal to the mandibular molar teeth

74
Q
  1. The cholinergic effect of pilocarpine is due to
    a. reversible inactivation of acetylcholinesterase at the postganglionic
    synapse.
    b. irreversible inactivation of acetylcholinesterase at the postganglionic
    synapse.
    c. direct action upon the cholinergic receptor site.
    d. stimulation of release of acetylcholine from the nerve terminal
A

c. direct action upon the cholinergic receptor site.

75
Q
  1. Prilocaine hydrochloride four per cent is supplied in a 1.8 ml.
    cartridge. It is recommended that 600 mg. not be exceeded in a
    two-hour period. This amount is contained in approximately
    a. 4 cartridges.
    b. 8 cartridges.
    c. 12 cartridges.
    d. 16 cartridges
A

b. 8 cartridges.

76
Q
  1. Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to cause
    depression of the bone marrow?
    a. Streptomycin
    b. Penicillin G
    c. Tetracycline
    d. Chloramphenicol
    e. Amphotericin B
A

d. Chloramphenicol
–gray baby syndrome

77
Q
  1. Which drug has an antibacterial spectrum that is limited to
    anaerobes?
    a. Amoxicillin
    b. Clarithromycin
    c. Clindamycin
    d. Gentamicin
    e. Metronidazole
A

e. Metronidazole

78
Q

what areas will be anesthetized?
a. Soft tissues and periosteum buccal to the mandibular molar teeth
b. Soft tissues and periosteum lingual to the mandibular molar teeth
c. Soft tissues and periosteum lingual to the mandibular premolar teeth
d. Soft tissues and periosteum buccal to the mandibular premolar teeth

A

a. Soft tissues and periosteum buccal to the mandibular molar teeth

79
Q
  1. When methohexital is used to induce general anesthesia, the
    initial effect wears off within a short time and the patient
    awakens. This occurs because the drug is
    a. detoxified.
    b. biotransformed.
    c. eliminated from the body.
    d. redistributed from the brain
A

d. redistributed from the brain

80
Q
  1. Lidocaine is more widely used than procaine in routine dental
    practice because lidocaine
    a. is a vasoconstrictor.
    b. does not cause CNS stimulation.
    c. causes fewer allergic reactions.
    d. is less likely to cause cardiovascular collapse.
    e. is 50 times more potent as a local anesthetic
A

c. causes fewer allergic reactions.

81
Q
  1. Nystatin may be used to treat oral infections due to
    a. Herpesvirus.
    b. Candida albicans.
    c. Treponema pallidum.
    d. Streptococcus pyogenes.
    e. Bacteroides melaninogenicus
A

b. Candida albicans.

82
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs would be useful in treating the
    dermatologic manifestations of an allergic response?
    a. Diazepam
    b. Atropine
    c. Chlorpheniramine
    d. Hexylresorcinol
    e. Phenoxybenzamine
A

c. Chlorpheniramine
= H1 antagonist
**
a. Diazepam = anticonvulsant
b. Atropine–anticholinergic dmg -> muscarinic blocker
d. Hexylresorcinol–:Found in topical applications for minor skin infections
e. Phenoxybenzamine =Alpha adrenergic blocker

83
Q
  1. If a narcotic agent were chosen for intravenous sedation,
    which of the following drugs should be available as the
    antagonist of choice?
    a. Naloxone
    b. Doxapram
    c. Pentazocine
    d. Fentanyl
A

a. Naloxone

84
Q
  1. B1-adrenergic blocking agents will antagonize which of the
    following actions of epinephrine?
    a. Glycogenolysis
    b. Cardiac acceleration
    c. Vasoconstriction in gastrointestinal vasculature
    d. Vasodilatation of skeletal muscle vasculature
A

b. Cardiac acceleration

85
Q
  1. Malignant hyperthermia is a pharmacogenetic disease of
    skeletal muscle. Characteristically patients with this disease:
    a. Have congenital heart disease
    b. Suffer from arteriosclerosis
    c. Have no signs or symptoms except during an anesthetic
    d. Have sickle-cell anemia
A

c. Have no signs or symptoms except during an anesthetic

86
Q
  1. Horace Wells was known for:
    a. The invention of the first gas apparatus
    b. Being the father of modern anesthesia
    c. The first successful use of ether in surgery and being the first
    anesthesiologist
    d. Devising the cartridge system of loading syringes
A

b. Being the father of modern anesthesia
***
a. The invention of the first gas apparatus =Frederick William Hewitt
c. The first successful use of ether in surgery and being the first
anesthesiologist – William T.G. Morton

d. Devising the cartridge system of loading syringes – Harvey Cook

87
Q
  1. The first sensation lost after injection of a local anesthetic to a
    mixed nerve
    a. Pressure
    b. Pain
    c. Temperature
    d. Proprioception
A

b. Pain
**
1. Pain
2. temperature
3. Touch
4. Pressure
5. Skeletal muscle tone

88
Q
  1. The only local anesthetic which causes vasoconstriction is
    a. Propoxycaine
    b. Cocaine
    c. Benzocaine
    d. Mepivacaine
A

b. Cocaine

89
Q
  1. Minimum Effective Dose is:
    a. the minimum amount of drug to have the desired effect
    b. the maximum amount of drug given without lethal effects
    c. the dose required to kill half the members of a tested
    population
    d. the amount of drug required to produce a response in 50% of
    the population
A

a. the minimum amount of drug to have the desired effect
**
b, – maximum effective
dose
c, – -medial lethal dose
d,– median effective dose

90
Q
  1. Clark’s rule:

a. [(Weight in lbs) x (Adult dose)] / 150
b. [(Age in Months) x (Adult Dose)] / 150
c. (BSA / 1.73) x adult dose
d. [(Age in Years / Age in Years) + 12] x (Adult Dose)

A

a. [(Weight in lbs) x (Adult dose)] / 150
**
b,– Fried’s rule
c,– body surface area rule
d,– young’s rule

91
Q
  1. Thick viscous liquid containing large amount of sugar:
    a. spirit
    b. tincture
    c. suspension
    d. syrup
    e. elixir
A

d. syrup
**
a,– distilled beverage containing ethanol w/o sugar
b,– alcoholic extractor soln of non-volatile substance
c,– heterogenous fluid containing solid particles that are sufficiently large For sedimentation
e,– sweet flavored liquid containing alcohol

92
Q
  1. Dissociative anesthesia is a unique method of pain control
    that reduces anxiety and produces a trancelike state in which the
    person is not asleep, but rather feels separated from his or her
    body. The primary medication used is:
    a. Demerol
    b. Ketamine
    c. Pentobarbital
    d. Promethazine hydrochloride
A

b. Ketamine
–general anesthesia =10-30 mins, pain control

93
Q
  1. Epinephrine and levonordefrin are added to local anesthetics
    because of their:
    a. Ability to increase the potency of the local anesthetic
    b. Ability to decrease the pain (burning) caused by the injection of the local anesthetic
    c. Vasoconstrictive properties
    d. Ability to decrease the possibility of an allergic reaction to the
    local anesthetic
A

c. Vasoconstrictive properties

94
Q
  1. Which statement best describes the mechanism of action of
    local anesthetics on the nerve axon?
    a. Decreases sodium uptake through sodium channels of the axon
    b. Increases potassium outflow from inside to outside the nerve
    c. Increases the membrane’s permeability to sodium
    d. Increases the excitability of the nerve axon
A

a. Decreases sodium uptake through sodium channels of the axon

95
Q
  1. Which form of a local anesthetic can readily penetrate tissue
    membranes?
    a. Ionized form
    b. Nonionized free-base form
    c. Both ionized and nonionized forms
    d. None of the above
A

b. Nonionized free-base form

96
Q
  1. Which component of a lidocaine local anesthetic solution
    causes an allergy?
    a. Water
    b. Bisulfites
    c. Lidocaine
    d. Epinephrine (vasoconstrictor)
A

b. Bisulfites

97
Q
  1. When phentolamine mesylate (Ora Verse) is given after a
    dental procedure to reverse the local anesthetics effects,
    approximately how fast is the return to normal nerve sensation
    compared to the normal time for the anesthetic to wear off?

a. 1O% decrease in the time for normal sensation to return
b. 25% decrease in the time for normal sensation to return
c. 50% decrease in the time for normal sensation to return
d. 80% decrease in the time for normal sensation to return

A
98
Q
  1. What is the contraindication of metronidazole?
    a. SABE
    b. Tachycardia
    c. Hypertension
    d. Trichomoniasis
A

c. Hypertension —- Flagyl iV= sodium =14 mEq

99
Q
  1. Which antihypertensive drug also increases bradykinin
    levels?
    a. Candesartan
    b. Furosemide
    c. Lisinopril
    d. Metoprolol
    e. Nifedipine
A

c. Lisinopril =ACEpril
**
a. Candesartan = angiotensin 2 blocker
b. Furosemide
= loop diuretics

d. Metoprolol
–beta blocker
e. Nifedipine
–Calcium channel blocker

100
Q
  1. Inhibiting a-glucosidase and reducing glucose absorption from the gastrointestinal tract is the mechanism of action of which
    drug?
    a. Acarbose
    b. Acetoheximide
    c. Glyburide
    d. Metformin
    e. Pioglitazone
A

a. Acarbose –prevent breakdown of Starch into sugar
**
b,c,d,e — oral hypoglycemic agents – Stimulate pancreas –insulin

fmd (14 decks)

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