PRTTEST 6 Flashcards
- A patient presents to your office with the following current medication list:
warfarin, aspirin, and clotrimazole. Before beginning the procedure you had
planned, you decide it is worthwhile to look up further information on these
drugs. Warfarin is metabolized in the liver and has a volume of distribution of
approximately 0.14 L/kg. You are slightly concerned that this patient may
experience increased bleeding because of these properties along with the
concomitant medications he is taking. Which of the following properties of a
drug is the least likely to contribute to a significant adverse interaction with
another drug?
a. The drug has a low therapeutic index
b. The drug has minimal protein binding
c. The drug undergoes extensive cytochrome P450 metabolism
d. The drug is an enzyme inducer
e. The drug has a low volume of distribution
b. The drug has minimal protein binding
with the alpha receptors in the eye, which response listed below
would you, except?
a. Miosis (contraction of the pupil) –(parasympa)
b. Mydriasis (dilation of the pupil) –(sympa)
c. Neither of the above; norepinephrine and epinephrine do
not stimulate or combine with alpha receptors in the eye
b. Mydriasis (dilation of the pupil)
- Methicillin-resistant Staphylococci are most likely to be
inhibited by which drug?
a. Amoxicillin
b. Clarithromycin
c. Clindamycin
d. Vancomycin
e. Penicillin V
d. Vancomycin –red man syndrome
- Which of the following is not an action of diazepam?
a. Antianxiety
b. Anti-inflammatory
c. Sedative
d. Antispasticity
b. Anti-inflammatory
- The ratio of LD50 and ED50 is:
a. Potency
b. Toxicity Index
c. Efficacy
d. Therapeutic index
d. Therapeutic index
- What is the mechanism of the analgesic action of aspirin?
a. Stimulates μ opioid receptors
b. Blocks histamine H2 receptors
c. Inhibits cyclooxygenase
d. Inhibits lipoxygenase
e. Blocks sodium channels in nerves
c. Inhibits cyclooxygenase
- Which of the following compounds after being metabolized to
form ACETAMINOPHEN is an active analgesic and antipyretic
agent?
a. Propoxyphene
b. Aminopyrine
c. ASA
d. Phenacitin
e. Phenylbutazone
d. Phenacitin
- You received a call from the emergency department at your local hospital concerning a pediatric patient that you recently treated. The patient is a 6-year-old boy who was brought to the emergency department in a comatose state. His parents state that he recently visited your office for extraction of a grossly decayed primary tooth. The parents state that they had given him a few pain pills to help with the discomfort following the extraction. Physical examination of the boy revealed “comatose, hepatomegaly, and yellow sclera.” A computerized tomography (CT) scan revealed cerebral edema. Laboratory results showed elevated alanine aminotransferase (ALT), aspartate aminotransferase (AST), and prothrombin time (PT). The emergency department physician believes that treatment with the antidote N-acetylcysteine is necessary but has called you to confirm whether you prescribed any medications. What agent is most likely involved in the symptoms of this patient?
a. Aspirin
b. Acetaminophen
c. Codeine
d. Celecoxib
e. Ibuprofen
b. Acetaminophen
**
a. Aspirin— administration of platelet concentrate
c. Codeine –naloxone
d. Celecoxib –NSAIDS
e. Ibuprofen – NSAIDS
- Penicillin V is ideally given
a. Orally
b. Subcutaneously
c. Intravenously
d. None of the above
a. Orally
- Which of the following refers to potency of drug?
a. The strength of a drug in relation to its usage
b. The ability of the drug to produce an effect
c. The amount of drug needed to produce an action
d. The amount of drug required to produce a given maximal effect
–
c. The amount of drug needed to produce an action
- Streptomycin and other aminoglycosides inhibit bacterial
protein synthesis by binding to:
a. DNA
b. Messenger RNA
c. 30s ribosomal particle
d. 50s subunit
c. 30s ribosomal particle
- Nitrous oxide is used during conscious sedation. The maximum NO2-O2 mixture should be:
a. 95% NO2, 5% O2
b. 70% NO2, 30% O2
c. 70% O2, 30% NO2
d. 50% NO2, 50% O2
b. 70% NO2, 30% O2
- What is the antibiotic classification of Tetracycline?
a. Bacteriostatic
b. Bactericidal
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
a. Bacteriostatic
- Which drug is often combined with sulfamethoxazole for the
treatment of respiratory tract and urinary tract infections?
a. Amoxicillin
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Clindamycin
d. Metronidazole
e. Trimethoprim
e. Trimethoprim
- Identify the enzyme whose inhibition is most responsible for
the cell wall synthesis inhibitory effect of penicillin G.
a. β-lactamase
b. DNA gyrase
c. Nitro reductase
d. Transglycosylase
e. Transpeptidase
e. Transpeptidase
- Clavulanic acid offers an advantage therapeutically because
it has what action?
a. It inhibits Streptococci at a low minimum inhibitory
concentration (MIC).
b. It inhibits transpeptidase.
c. It inhibits penicillinase.
d. It inhibits anaerobes at a low MIC.
e. It inhibits DNA gyrase.
c. It inhibits penicillinase.
- Areas anesthetized by Nasopalatine nerve block
a. Bilateral posterior molars
b. Unilateral canine
c. Bilateral canine
d. Unilateral posterior molars
c. Bilateral canine
- Nitrates and nitrites have what effect on blood vessel smooth
muscle?
a. Increase in the level of intracellular calcium
b. Increase in the level of cyclic guanosine monophosphate
(cGMP)
c. Antagonism at α1-adrenergic receptors
d. Antagonism at β-adrenergic receptors
e. Inhibition of L-type calcium channels
b. Increase in the level of cyclic guanosine monophosphate
(cGMP)
- Which of the following is a method of true mandibular nerve
block?
a. Lingual Nerve Block
b. Akinosi Technique
c. Classical IAN Block
d. Gow-Gates Technique
d. Gow-Gates Technique
- All of the following statement is true regarding NSAIDs,
except:
a. Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cox-1 and cox-2
cyclooxygenases
b. All NSAIDs, except aspirin, are reversible inhibitors of cox-1
and cox-2 cyclooxygenases
c. Prostaglandin synthesis is rarely affected
d. They are used for inflammation, analgesia, and antipyrexia
c. Prostaglandin synthesis is rarely affected
- The following are the nerves to be anesthetized when
extracting tooth #26, except
a. Greater Palatine Nerve
b. Lesser Palatine Nerve
c. Middle Superior Alveolar Nerve
d. Posterior Superior Alveolar Nerve
b. Lesser Palatine Nerve
- Which class of antihypertensive drug most effectively reduces
the release of renin from the kidney?
a. β-adrenergic receptor blockers
b. ACE inhibitors
c. α-adrenergic receptor blockers
d. Calcium channel blockers
e. Angiotensin II receptor blockers
a. β-adrenergic receptor blockers
- The use of H2 histamine receptor blockers is most clinically
useful at what cell type?
a. Beta cells of the pancreas
b. Basophils
c. Mast cells
d. Juxtaglomerular cells
e. Parietal cells
e. Parietal cells
- What is the clinical setting for the use of ketorolac by the oral
route?
a. For severe pain
b. For initial treatment of pain
c. To continue therapy after an IV or IM dose of ketorolac
d. Only in combination with an opioid
e. Only in combination with an NSAID
c. To continue therapy after an IV or IM dose of ketorolac
- The following effects result from what type of pharmacological
agent?
* Tachycardia
* Lower blood pressure
* Vasodilation
* Orthostatic hypotension
a. Alpha adrenergic receptor blocker (alpha blocker)
b. Beta adrenergic receptor blocker (beta blocker)
c. Muscarinic cholinergic blocker (muscarinic blocker)
d. Nicotinic cholinergic blocker (nicotinic blocker
a. Alpha adrenergic receptor blocker (alpha blocker)
- A patient presents to your office for a surgical extraction. Following the procedure, you prescribe the patient tylenol #3 (acetaminophen + codeine). The patient is taking several other drugs concurrently. Which of the following drugs is most likely to inhibit the effectiveness of
codeine?
a. Terazosin
b. Glipizide
c. Lisinopril
d. Fluoxetine
e. Lithium
d. Fluoxetine
- Duration of action of bupivacaine
a. 4 hours
b. 2 hours
c. 10 hours
d. 8 hours
c. 10 hours
- Brand name of mepivacaine
a. Carbocaine
b. Marcaine
c. Cocaine
d. Metacaine
a. Carbocaine
- Of the following, which is clinically significant adverse
reaction due to metoprolol?
a. Drowsiness
b. Hallucinations
c. Arthralgia
d. Dry mouth
a. Drowsiness
- All of the following are centrally acting antihypertensives,
except:
a. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
b. Clonidine (Catapres)
c. Tolazoline (Priscoline)
d. Guanabenz (Wytension)
e. Guanfacine (Tenex)
c. Tolazoline (Priscoline)
–Moderate alpha 2 selective antagomit
- After taking Drug X for 5 days, steady free blood levels average
about 20 ug/mL. Drug Z is then introduced while the patient continues to take Drug X, and the free blood levels of Drug X increase to 100
ug/mL. What could have accounted for this?
a. Drug Z is a liver microsomal enzyme inducer
b. Drugs X and Z formed a chelation product in the intestine
c. Drug Z increased the glomerular filtration rate
d. Drug Z has a positive inotropic and chronotropic effect
e. Drugs X and Z are highly bound to plasma proteins
e. Drugs X and Z are highly bound to plasma proteins
- What substance produces all of the following physiologic actions?
* Constrict arteriolar blood vessels (vasoconstriction)
* Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle (bronchodilation)
* Decrease blood volume in nasal tissues
* Causes a hypertensive response
* Produces physiological actions opposite to that of histamine
a. Epinephrine
b. Bradykinin
c. Acetylcholine
d. Serotonin
a. Epinephrine
***
b. Bradykinin — promotes inflammation -> Vasodilation
- Which of the following patterns on the use of drugs refers to a
decrease response to a drug?
a. Dependence
b. Cross dependence
c. Tolerance
d. Withdrawal
c. Tolerance
- Which of the most preferable antibiotic form the treatment of
non-penicillinase producing gram positive staphylococcal
infections?
a. Clindamycin
b. Penicillin VK
c. Ampicillin
d. Cefaclor
b. Penicillin VK
- Which of the following has the broadest spectrum of action, activity against gram positive and gram-negative bacteria?
a. Tetracycline
b. Clindamycin
c. Erythromycin
d. Ampicillin
d. Ampicillin
***
b and c both gram +
- The heart is generally considered to have predominantly
which type of adrenergic receptors?
a. Alpha 1 receptors
b. Beta 1 receptors
c. Alpha 2 receptors
d. Beta 2 receptors
b. Beta 1 receptors —heart
***
a. Alpha 1 receptors –blood vessels (skin)
c. Alpha 2 receptors –blood vessels
d. Beta 2 receptors
-lungs
- Many people use herbal supplements as alternate therapy for a variety
of conditions. It is important for physicians and dentists to know what
medications their patients are taking, including herbal supplements. St.
John’s Wort is an example of a supplement commonly used to relieve
depression. The simultaneous ingestion of the herbal St. John’s Wort has been shown to decrease the half-life of oral contraceptives because St. John’s Wort:
a. Blocks the active secretion of oral contraceptive
b. Induces CYP-3A4 in the gut and liver
c. Increases stomach acidity
d. Blocks both estrogen and progesterone receptors
e. Decreases serotonin levels in the brain
b. Induces CYP-3A4 in the gut and liver
- A 55-year-old female patient was referred to your office by her physician
because she is preparing to receive an infusion of zoledronic acid. Her physician
told her to see a dentist to determine if she has any teeth that may need to be
extracted in the near future. If so, these should be extracted prior to the infusion
because of the risk of poor bone healing (osteonecrosis) that sometimes occurs in
patients receiving infusions of zoledronic acid. Prior to the infusion, the patient was
taking an oral form of this type of drug. What is another major side effect of the oral
form that her physician may have warned her about?
a. Anemia
b. Xerostomia
c. Edema
d. Esophageal perforation
e. Orthostatic hypotension
d. Esophageal perforation
–=invitation of the esophagus -> perforation
**
a. Anemia
-cephalosporins and penicillins, levodopa, methyldopa, quinidine
b. Xerostomia
–antihistamines, anticholinergic, antidepressants, anti-HAN, anti-psychotic
c. Edema
–chemotherapy agents,corticosteroids
e. Orthostatic hypotension
–alpha 1 receptor blocker
- Which of the following organisms is usually sensitive to
clindamycin?
a. Candida albicans
b. Klebsiella pneumoniae
c. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
d. Streptococcus viridans
e. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Streptococcus viridans
- Pharmaceutical agents that bring about tissue responses
resembling those produced by stimulation of the sympathetic
nervous system are called?
a. Cholinomimetic
b. Antiadrenergic
c. Anticholinergic
d. Sympathomimetic
d. Sympathomimetic
- Agent of choice for anesthetizing patients without plasma
cholinesterase enzyme
a. Pontocaine
b. Ravocaine
c. Prilocaine
d. Tetracaine
c. Prilocaine
- What type of antibiotics are sulfonamides?
a. Bacteriostatic
b. Bactericidal
c. Neutral
d. PABA
a. Bacteriostatic
- Using Articaine reduces the risk for toxicity because:
a. It is biotransformed through plasma cholinesterase
b. Biotransformation through the liver is better
c. Its action and properties are very similar to lidocaine
d. Its biotransformation occurs both in the general circulation
and in the liver
d. Its biotransformation occurs both in the general circulation
and in the liver
- In patients with malignant hyperthermia, which anesthetic is
recommended?
a. Propoxycaine
b. Lidocaine
c. Etidocaine
d. Mepivacaine
a. Propoxycaine
- The local anesthetic agent with the shortest duration of action is:
a. Novocaine
b. Propoxycaine
c. Lidocaine
d. Nesacaine - [chloroprocaine]
a. Novocaine
– =Procaine -shortest acting LA
**shortest acting amide: mepivacaine
longest acting amide: bupivacaine
- The patient developed an allergy following injection of an
amide type of local anesthetic. The most likely result is a reaction
to:
a. Lidocaine
b. Contamination
c. Methylparaben
d. Epinephrine
c. Methylparaben
- The metabolite of Prilocaine which can produce
methemoglobinemia:
a. Gamma-toluidine
b. Beta-toluidine
c. Ortho-toluidine
d. Levo-toluidine
c. Ortho-toluidine
- A dentist administers 1.8 ml of a 2% solution of lidocaine.
How many mg of lidocaine did the patient receive
a. 3.6
b. 9
c. 18
d. 36
e. 180
d. 36
- According to AHA guidelines, the maximum # of carpules of
local anesthetic containing 1:200,000 epinephrine that can be
used in a patient with cardiovascular disease is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 11
d. 4
- A recently introduced local anesthetic agent is claimed by the
manufacturer to be several times as potent as procaine. The product is
available in 0.05% buffered aqueous solution in 1.8 ml cartridge. The
maximum amount recommended for dental anesthesis over a 4-hour period
is 30 mg. the amount is contained in approximately how many cartridges?
a. 1-9
b. 10-18
c. 19-27
d. 28-36
e. Greater than 36
d. 28-36
- Which one of the following is true regarding paroxetine?
a. It specifically inhibits serotonin reuptake
b. It is used to treat mania
c. It can be safely taken with monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)
d. GI upset is not a common side effect
e. Sexual dysfunction is rarely reported
a. It specifically inhibits serotonin reuptake
- Continuous infusion of medication A is given to a 65-kg patient.
The pharmacokinetic parameters are as follows: clearance =
9mL/min/kg, volume of distribution =65 L, half-life=4 hours. How long
will it take for the medication level to reach 93.75% of steady state?
a. 8 hours
b. 10 hours
c. 14 hours
d. 16 hours
e. 18 hours
d. 16 hours
- Which one of the following benzodiazepines does not require
Phase I metabolism by the liver?
a. Alprazolam
b. Oxazepam
c. Midazolam
d. Triazolam
e. Diazepam
b. Oxazepam
–useful in pxts w/ liver failure
- Your 55-year-old male patient is scheduled for three quadrants of periodontal surgery. Each surgical procedure is scheduled 4 weeks apart. This patient is allergic to penicillin and has a history of a mitral valve prolapse. On the basis of the current guidelines, which prescription would be most appropriate to adequately premedicate this patient for all of his visits?
a. Amoxicillin 2-g tablets; Disp: 3 tablets; Sig: take 1 tablet 30–60 minutes prior to dental procedure
b. Amoxicillin 2-g tablets; Disp: 6 tables; Sig: take 2 tablets 30–60 minutes prior to dental procedure
c. Clindamycin600-mgtablets; Disp: 3 tablets; Sig: take 1 tablet 30–60minutespriortodental procedure
d. Clindamycin600-mgtablets; Disp: 6 tablets; Sig: take 2 tablets 30–60 minutes prior to dental
procedure
e. No prescription necessary
e. No prescription necessary
- N-acetylcysteine is used as an antidote for overdose of which
of the following medications?
a. Acetaminophen
b. Ibuprofen
c. Celecoxib
d. Indomethacin
e. Naproxen
a. Acetaminophen
- Naloxone antagonizes the therapeutic and toxic effects of
which drug?
a. Acetaminophen
b. Aspirin
c. Carbamazepine
d. Fentanyl
e. Ibuprofen
d. Fentanyl
- What is the approximate elimination half-time for penicillin V?
a. 0.5 hour
b. 2 hours
c. 4 hours
d. 8 hours
e. 12 hours
a. 0.5 hour—-due to rapid excretion of penicillin in the urine
- Pick the organism that is usually clinically sensitive to
clarithromycin but not to penicillin V.
a. Streptococcus viridans
b. Leptotrichia buccalis
c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
e. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
– lacks cell wall
- Most drug molecules are absorbed into the tissue by way of ___.
a. Blood circulation
b. Lipid solubility
c. Water solubility
d. Carrier specificity
b. Lipid solubility
- What is the reaction of drugs that cannot be explained by
known mechanism?
a. Idiosyncracy
b. Allergic reaction
c. Teratogenic effects
d. Adverse effects
a. Idiosyncracy
- What does HAART stands for?
a. Highly Accurate Antiretroviral therapy
b. Human Activated Antiretroviral Therapy
c. Histiocyte Active Antiretroviral Treatment
d. Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy
d. Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy
- Which drugs tend to concentrate in body compartments of
high pH?
a. Permanently charged drugs
b. Drugs that are not charged
c. Weak organic acids
d. Weak organic bases
e. Inorganic ions
c. Weak organic acids
- Drug agonists having the same intrinsic activity also have the
same _____.
a. Maximal effect
b. Potency
c. Receptor affinity
d. Therapeutic index
e. Aqueous solubility
a. Maximal effect
- Which drug poses the greatest risk of a cardiac arrhythmia
when administered at the same time as epinephrine?
a. Desflurane
b. Halothane
c. Isoflurane
d. Propofol
e. Sevoflurane
b. Halothane—
sensitizes the heeart to epi and other catecholamines
- According to Malamed, the maximum local anesthetic dose of
lidocaine (with or without vasoconstrictor) is _____.
a. 1.5 mg/kg
b. 2.0 mg/kg
c. 4.4 mg/kg
d. 7.0 mg/kg
c. 4.4 mg/kg
- The optimal volume of local anesthetic solution delivered for a
true anterior superior alveolar (ASA) nerve block is usually about
_____.
a. 0.5 mL
b. 1.0 mL
c. 1.5 mL
d. 1.8 mL
b. 1.0 mL
- Which of the following drugs is most commonly employed in
an attack of angina pectoris?
a. Sodium nitrate
b. Epinephrine
c. Theophylline
d. Nitroglycerin
e. Isosorbide dinitrate
b. Epinephrine
- The local anesthetic agent that is most appropriate for use in
most children is _____.
a. 3% mepivacaine
b. 2% mepivacaine with 1:20,000 levonordefrin
c. 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine
d. 0.5% bupivacaine with 1:200,000 epinephrine
c. 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine
***
d. 0.5% bupivacaine with 1:200,000 epinephrine
– Not FDA-approved to be used in children
- How is the therapeutic index of a drug calculated?
a. The therapeutic dose is divided by the toxic base.
b. Half the toxic dose is divided by half the therapeutic dose.
c. The maximum tolerated dose is divided by the minimum therapeutic dose.
d. The lethal dose for 50 per cent of animals is divided by the therapeutic
dose for 50 per cent of animals.
d. The lethal dose for 50 per cent of animals is divided by the therapeutic
dose for 50 per cent of animals.
- Which of the following local anesthetics causes the least
amount of vasodilation?
a. Lidocaine
b. Mepivacaine
c. Bupivacaine
d. Articaine
b. Mepivacaine
- If a local anesthetic has a low pKa, then it will usually have a
_____.
a. Greater potency
b. Higher degree of protein binding
c. Faster onset of action
d. Greater vasodilating potential
c. Faster onset of action
- The primary effect produced by digitalis at therapeutic dose
levels is
a. a slowing of the cardiac rate.
b. a decrease in the venous pressure.
c. a decrease in cardiac enlargement.
d. an increase in the force of myocardial contraction
d. an increase in the force of myocardial contraction
- Anticipating correct administration of the (long) buccal injection, what
areas will be anesthetized?
a. Soft tissues and periosteum buccal to the mandibular molar teeth
b. Soft tissues and periosteum lingual to the mandibular molar teeth
c. Soft tissues and periosteum lingual to the mandibular premolar teeth
d. Soft tissues and periosteum buccal to the mandibular premolar teeth
a. Soft tissues and periosteum buccal to the mandibular molar teeth
- The cholinergic effect of pilocarpine is due to
a. reversible inactivation of acetylcholinesterase at the postganglionic
synapse.
b. irreversible inactivation of acetylcholinesterase at the postganglionic
synapse.
c. direct action upon the cholinergic receptor site.
d. stimulation of release of acetylcholine from the nerve terminal
c. direct action upon the cholinergic receptor site.
- Prilocaine hydrochloride four per cent is supplied in a 1.8 ml.
cartridge. It is recommended that 600 mg. not be exceeded in a
two-hour period. This amount is contained in approximately
a. 4 cartridges.
b. 8 cartridges.
c. 12 cartridges.
d. 16 cartridges
b. 8 cartridges.
- Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to cause
depression of the bone marrow?
a. Streptomycin
b. Penicillin G
c. Tetracycline
d. Chloramphenicol
e. Amphotericin B
d. Chloramphenicol
–gray baby syndrome
- Which drug has an antibacterial spectrum that is limited to
anaerobes?
a. Amoxicillin
b. Clarithromycin
c. Clindamycin
d. Gentamicin
e. Metronidazole
e. Metronidazole
what areas will be anesthetized?
a. Soft tissues and periosteum buccal to the mandibular molar teeth
b. Soft tissues and periosteum lingual to the mandibular molar teeth
c. Soft tissues and periosteum lingual to the mandibular premolar teeth
d. Soft tissues and periosteum buccal to the mandibular premolar teeth
a. Soft tissues and periosteum buccal to the mandibular molar teeth
- When methohexital is used to induce general anesthesia, the
initial effect wears off within a short time and the patient
awakens. This occurs because the drug is
a. detoxified.
b. biotransformed.
c. eliminated from the body.
d. redistributed from the brain
d. redistributed from the brain
- Lidocaine is more widely used than procaine in routine dental
practice because lidocaine
a. is a vasoconstrictor.
b. does not cause CNS stimulation.
c. causes fewer allergic reactions.
d. is less likely to cause cardiovascular collapse.
e. is 50 times more potent as a local anesthetic
c. causes fewer allergic reactions.
- Nystatin may be used to treat oral infections due to
a. Herpesvirus.
b. Candida albicans.
c. Treponema pallidum.
d. Streptococcus pyogenes.
e. Bacteroides melaninogenicus
b. Candida albicans.
- Which of the following drugs would be useful in treating the
dermatologic manifestations of an allergic response?
a. Diazepam
b. Atropine
c. Chlorpheniramine
d. Hexylresorcinol
e. Phenoxybenzamine
c. Chlorpheniramine
= H1 antagonist
**
a. Diazepam = anticonvulsant
b. Atropine–anticholinergic dmg -> muscarinic blocker
d. Hexylresorcinol–:Found in topical applications for minor skin infections
e. Phenoxybenzamine =Alpha adrenergic blocker
- If a narcotic agent were chosen for intravenous sedation,
which of the following drugs should be available as the
antagonist of choice?
a. Naloxone
b. Doxapram
c. Pentazocine
d. Fentanyl
a. Naloxone
- B1-adrenergic blocking agents will antagonize which of the
following actions of epinephrine?
a. Glycogenolysis
b. Cardiac acceleration
c. Vasoconstriction in gastrointestinal vasculature
d. Vasodilatation of skeletal muscle vasculature
b. Cardiac acceleration
- Malignant hyperthermia is a pharmacogenetic disease of
skeletal muscle. Characteristically patients with this disease:
a. Have congenital heart disease
b. Suffer from arteriosclerosis
c. Have no signs or symptoms except during an anesthetic
d. Have sickle-cell anemia
c. Have no signs or symptoms except during an anesthetic
- Horace Wells was known for:
a. The invention of the first gas apparatus
b. Being the father of modern anesthesia
c. The first successful use of ether in surgery and being the first
anesthesiologist
d. Devising the cartridge system of loading syringes
b. Being the father of modern anesthesia
***
a. The invention of the first gas apparatus =Frederick William Hewitt
c. The first successful use of ether in surgery and being the first
anesthesiologist – William T.G. Morton
d. Devising the cartridge system of loading syringes – Harvey Cook
- The first sensation lost after injection of a local anesthetic to a
mixed nerve
a. Pressure
b. Pain
c. Temperature
d. Proprioception
b. Pain
**
1. Pain
2. temperature
3. Touch
4. Pressure
5. Skeletal muscle tone
- The only local anesthetic which causes vasoconstriction is
a. Propoxycaine
b. Cocaine
c. Benzocaine
d. Mepivacaine
b. Cocaine
- Minimum Effective Dose is:
a. the minimum amount of drug to have the desired effect
b. the maximum amount of drug given without lethal effects
c. the dose required to kill half the members of a tested
population
d. the amount of drug required to produce a response in 50% of
the population
a. the minimum amount of drug to have the desired effect
**
b, – maximum effective
dose
c, – -medial lethal dose
d,– median effective dose
- Clark’s rule:
a. [(Weight in lbs) x (Adult dose)] / 150
b. [(Age in Months) x (Adult Dose)] / 150
c. (BSA / 1.73) x adult dose
d. [(Age in Years / Age in Years) + 12] x (Adult Dose)
a. [(Weight in lbs) x (Adult dose)] / 150
**
b,– Fried’s rule
c,– body surface area rule
d,– young’s rule
- Thick viscous liquid containing large amount of sugar:
a. spirit
b. tincture
c. suspension
d. syrup
e. elixir
d. syrup
**
a,– distilled beverage containing ethanol w/o sugar
b,– alcoholic extractor soln of non-volatile substance
c,– heterogenous fluid containing solid particles that are sufficiently large For sedimentation
e,– sweet flavored liquid containing alcohol
- Dissociative anesthesia is a unique method of pain control
that reduces anxiety and produces a trancelike state in which the
person is not asleep, but rather feels separated from his or her
body. The primary medication used is:
a. Demerol
b. Ketamine
c. Pentobarbital
d. Promethazine hydrochloride
b. Ketamine
–general anesthesia =10-30 mins, pain control
- Epinephrine and levonordefrin are added to local anesthetics
because of their:
a. Ability to increase the potency of the local anesthetic
b. Ability to decrease the pain (burning) caused by the injection of the local anesthetic
c. Vasoconstrictive properties
d. Ability to decrease the possibility of an allergic reaction to the
local anesthetic
c. Vasoconstrictive properties
- Which statement best describes the mechanism of action of
local anesthetics on the nerve axon?
a. Decreases sodium uptake through sodium channels of the axon
b. Increases potassium outflow from inside to outside the nerve
c. Increases the membrane’s permeability to sodium
d. Increases the excitability of the nerve axon
a. Decreases sodium uptake through sodium channels of the axon
- Which form of a local anesthetic can readily penetrate tissue
membranes?
a. Ionized form
b. Nonionized free-base form
c. Both ionized and nonionized forms
d. None of the above
b. Nonionized free-base form
- Which component of a lidocaine local anesthetic solution
causes an allergy?
a. Water
b. Bisulfites
c. Lidocaine
d. Epinephrine (vasoconstrictor)
b. Bisulfites
- When phentolamine mesylate (Ora Verse) is given after a
dental procedure to reverse the local anesthetics effects,
approximately how fast is the return to normal nerve sensation
compared to the normal time for the anesthetic to wear off?
a. 1O% decrease in the time for normal sensation to return
b. 25% decrease in the time for normal sensation to return
c. 50% decrease in the time for normal sensation to return
d. 80% decrease in the time for normal sensation to return
- What is the contraindication of metronidazole?
a. SABE
b. Tachycardia
c. Hypertension
d. Trichomoniasis
c. Hypertension —- Flagyl iV= sodium =14 mEq
- Which antihypertensive drug also increases bradykinin
levels?
a. Candesartan
b. Furosemide
c. Lisinopril
d. Metoprolol
e. Nifedipine
c. Lisinopril =ACEpril
**
a. Candesartan = angiotensin 2 blocker
b. Furosemide
= loop diuretics
d. Metoprolol
–beta blocker
e. Nifedipine
–Calcium channel blocker
- Inhibiting a-glucosidase and reducing glucose absorption from the gastrointestinal tract is the mechanism of action of which
drug?
a. Acarbose
b. Acetoheximide
c. Glyburide
d. Metformin
e. Pioglitazone
a. Acarbose –prevent breakdown of Starch into sugar
**
b,c,d,e — oral hypoglycemic agents – Stimulate pancreas –insulin
