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oralPATH FC Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Dry socket is also known as
    a.Alveolar osteomyelitis
    b.Alveolar osteonecrosis
    c.Alveolar osteitis
    d.Alveolar osteosarcoma
A

c. Alveolar osteitis

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2
Q

2.
Teeth that failed to erupt completely simply because of lack of eruptive force are termed as ______
a.Impacted teeth
b.Submerged teeth
c.Embedded teeth
d.Infraverted teeth

A

c. Embedded teeth

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3
Q

3.
This rare neoplasm of the mandible and maxilla is locally aggressive, poorly circumscribed and composed of sheets of optically clear lenses.

a.Clear cell odontogenic tumor
b.Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
c.Ameloblastoma
d.Squamous odontogenic tumor

A

a. Clear cell odontogenic tumor

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4
Q

4.
What lesion is initiated by trauma or irritation exclusively on the gingival, anterior to the first molar?
a.Pyogenic Granuloma
b.Peripheral fibroma
c.Peripheral Giant Cell Granuloma
d.Mucocele

A

Peripheral Giant Cell Granuloma

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5
Q

5.
Chemical dilution of enamel without bacterial action is ______
a. Attrition
b. Dental caries
c. Abrasion
d. Erosion

A

d. Erosion

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6
Q

6.
It is also known as decompression, partsch operation:
a. Enucleation
b. Enucleation after marsupialization
c. Marsupialization
d. Enucleation with curettage
e. None of these

A

c. Marsupialization

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7
Q

7.
A lesion which cannot be rubbed off

a. Candidiasis
b. Lichen planus
c. Carcinoma in situ
d. Benign keratosis

A

b.
Lichen planus

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8
Q

8.
Select a false statement regarding ameloblastoma from the statements given below

a. Slowly growing, locally invasive tumor
b. Trabecular pattern is one of the histological subtypes
c. Radiographically seen as well-defined, multilocular radiolucency
d. Predilection for occurring in posterior mandibular region

A

b.
Trabecular pattern is one of the histological subtypes

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9
Q

9.
Squamous cell carcinoma usually metastasize by way of

a. Lymphatic system
b. Aspiration into the lungs
c. Venous system
d. Arterial system

A

a.
Lymphatic system

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10
Q

10.
Grayish yellow pseudomembrane with punched out interdental papilla.
a. Anug
b. Hyperplastic gingivitis
c. Gingivofibromatosis
d. Dilantin hyperplasia
e. Pubertal gingivitis

A

a.
Anug

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11
Q

11.
A painful, crater-like 1.5cm ulcer developed within one week in the mucous of the left hard palate of a 40-year old woman. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Actinomycosis
b. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. Pleomorphic adenoma
d. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
e. Necrotizing sialometaplasia

A

e.
Necrotizing sialometaplasia

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12
Q

12.
Most common route for metastasis of oral cancer is by:

a. Direct extension
b. Blood vessels
c. Lymphatics
d. Aspiration of tumor cells

A

b.
Blood vessels

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13
Q

13.
Masticatory space infections have as their hallmarks:

a. Dyspnea
b. Trismus
c. Erythema
d. Hematemesis

A

b. Trismus

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14
Q

14.
Which amongst the following lesions occurs more frequently in anterior maxilla?

a. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
b. Unicystic ameloblastoma
c. Granular cell odontogenic tumor
d. Cementoblastoma

A

a.
Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor

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15
Q

15.
What lesion is seen in the tongue that is related to hypertrophy of the filiform papillae and that the color reflects the bacteria or debris trapped between the papillae?

a.
Idiopathic leukoplakia
b.
Hairy leukoplakia
c.
White hairy tongue
d.
Geographic tongue

A

c.
White hairy tongue

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16
Q

16.
After obtaining an incisional specimen, a negative biopsy report when there is a clinically suspicious lesion means that:

a.
The patient can be assured that there is no malignancy at this time
b.
A second biopsy should be done
c.
The patient should undergo yearly observation of the area
d.
The patient should be recalled once a month

A

b.
A second biopsy should be done

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17
Q

17.
A median palatal cyst arises from

a.
Epithelium entrapped along the line of fusion of palatal processes of maxilla
b.
Cystic degeneration of remnants of nasopalatine duct
c.
Cystic degeneration of rests of dental lamina
d.
Cystic degeneration of epithelial rests of Malassez

A

a.
Epithelium entrapped along the line of fusion of palatal processes of maxilla

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18
Q

18.
A benign hereditary condition of the maxilla and mandible, usually occurring at the age of 5, presenting marked fullness of the jaw and cheeks

a.
Cherubism
b.
Paget’s disease
c.
Acromegaly
d.
Ameloblastoma

A

a.
Cherubism

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19
Q

19.
Submerged teeth are

a.
Ankylosed teeth
b.
Impacted teeth
c.
Unerupted teeth
d.
Intruded teeth

A

a.
Ankylosed teeth

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20
Q

20.
A neoplasm derived from all three germ cell layers:

a.
Carcinoma
b.
Sarcoma
c.
Teratoma
d.
Apudoma

A

c.
Teratoma

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21
Q

21.
Which of the following is typically within soft tissue and may mimic inflammatory lesions of odontogenic origin?

a.
Median palatal cyst
b.
Traumatic bone cyst
c.
Nasolabial cyst
d.
Nasopalatine cyst

A

c.
Nasolabial cyst

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22
Q

22.
Severe form of cellulites involving all spaces of the floor of the mandible is:

a.
Ranula
b.
dermoid cysts
c.
Ludwig’s angina
d.
Sialolithiasis

A

c.
Ludwig’s angina

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23
Q

23.
Lip enlargement with mucopurent exudates is:

a.
Cheiloschisis
b.
Chelitis Glandularis
c.
Cretinism
d.
Peutz Jegher’s
e.
none of these

A

b.
Chelitis Glandularis

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24
Q

24.
Physical examination of a 28-year-old man reveals an extensive, smooth enlargement of the body of the mandible in the molar region. The patient states that the enlargement has been present for two years and has slowly and steadily increased in size. The most probable clinical diagnosis is:
a.
Osteosarcoma
b.
osteomyelitis
c.
Ameloblastoma
d.
osteitis deformans

A

c.
Ameloblastoma

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25
Q

25.
The characteristic microscopic feature of this odontogenic cyst is the presence of ghost cell keratinization
a.
Sialo-odontogenic cyst
b.
Calcifying odontogenic cyst
c.
radicular cyst
d.
Odontogenic keratocyst

A

b.
Calcifying odontogenic cyst

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26
Q

26.
The most common cause of mucocele:
a.
Sialolithiasis
b.
Viral sialadenitis
c.
Bacterial sialadenitis
d.
Trauma

A

d.
Trauma

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27
Q

27.
A dental granuloma and a radicular cyst can be differentiated
a.
based on symptoms
b.
radiographically
c.
histologically
d.
by an electric pulp tester

A

c.
histologically

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28
Q

28.
Sulfur granules found within pus from the abscess is a characteristic feature of
a.
Leprosy
b.
Diphtheria
c.
Actinomycosis
d. Syphilis

A

c.
Actinomycosis

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29
Q

29.
The most common site of squamous cell carcinoma of the tongue is the
a.
Dorsum
b.
Ventral surface
c.
Tip
d.
Posterior lateral border

A

d.
Posterior lateral border

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30
Q

30.
Radiographically, this large true bone neoplasm is seen as a round opacity with a central nidus of translucency surrounded by a defined radiolucent border.

a.
Osteod osteoma
b.
Endosteal osteoma
c.
Cementoblastoma
d.
Osteoblastoma

A

a.
Osteod osteoma

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31
Q

31.
A 14-year old boy has a bilateral, pearly-white thickening of the buccal mucosa. The boy has had the lesions since birth. His younger brother also has similar lesions. History and clinical findings are consistent with a diagnosis of:

a.
Leukoedema
b.
mucous patches
c.
lichen planus
d.
white sponge nevus

A

d.
white sponge nevus

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32
Q

32.
Which among the following is a common clinical presentation of squamous cell carcinoma?
a.
Soft, fluctuant swelling
b.
Hard swelling with egg shell crackling
c.
Chronic, non-healing ulcer with indurated margins
d.
Multiple vesicles and bullae

A

c.
Chronic, non-healing ulcer with indurated margins

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33
Q

33.
Areas of amorphous, eosinophilic, amyloid like extracellular masses are typically seen in which of the following lesions?
a.
SOT
b.
Unicystic ameloblastoma
c.
CEOT
d.
Odontoma

A

c.
CEOT

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34
Q

34.
Warthin’s tumor occur most frequently in which of the following:
a.
Submaxillary gland
b.
Sublingual gland
c.
Submandibular gland
d.
Parotid gland

A

d.
Parotid gland

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35
Q

35.
The odontogenic neoplasm which is composed of loose, primitive-appearing connective tissue that resembles dental pulp, microscopically is known as _______.
a.
odontoma
b.
ameloblastoma
c.
ameloblastic fibroma
d.
ameloblastic fibro-odontoma
e.
odontogenic myxoma

A

e.
odontogenic myxoma

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36
Q

36.
Lobstein’s disease is another name of
a.
Osteogenesis imperfecta
b.
Dentinogenesis imperfecta
c.
Osteopetrosis
d.
Paget’s disease

A

a.
Osteogenesis imperfecta

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37
Q

37.
Which is not associated with an enlargement of the jawbone?
a.
Paget’s disease
b.
Condensing osteitis
c.
Ossifying fibroma
d.
Fibrous dysplasia

A

b.
Condensing osteitis

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38
Q

38.
Reliable clinical indication of malignancy is
a.
Metastasis
b.
Fungating growth
c.
Tenderness
d.
Ulceration

A

a.
Metastasis

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39
Q

39.
Multiple nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome is characterized by all of the following, except:
a.
bifid ribs
b.
palmar and plantar pitting
c.
multiple jaw cysts
d.
calcification of the falx cerebri
e.
metastatic carcinoma

A

e.
metastatic carcinoma

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40
Q

40.
Liesegang rings are distinctive microscopic findings in
a.
Ameloblastoma
b.
Compound complex odontoma
c.
Warthin’s tumor
d.
Pinborg tumor

A

d.
Pinborg tumor

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41
Q

41.
The pain of trigeminal neuralgia is described as
a.
Lancinating
b.
Throbbing
c.
Dull ache
d.
Continuous

A

a.
Lancinating

42
Q

42.
These are advance lesions of Kaposis sarcoma.
a.
Red-blue papule
b.
Red-blue nodule
c.
Blue nodule
d.
Blue macule

A

b.
Red-blue nodule

43
Q

43.
Proud flesh or exuberant growth of cells are also known as:
a.
Cicatrix
b.
Keloid
c.
Massive elastin
d.
Granulation

A

b.
Keloid

44
Q

44.
Most common missing tooth in the permanent dentition is
a.
Maxillary canine
b.
Maxillary first molar
c.
Mandibular second premolar
d.
Mandibular first molar

A

c.
Mandibular second premolar

45
Q

45.
Which of the following is the most likely to turn malignant?
a.
Intradermal nevus
b.
Lichen planus
c.
Junctional nevus
d.
Papilloma

A

b.
Lichen planus

46
Q

46.
Yellow granules found on the buccal mucosa or on the lips are probably:
a.
Impetigo
b.
Bohn’s nodules
c.
Fordyce spots
d.
Petechiae

A

c.
Fordyce spots

47
Q

47.
The most common benign tumor of the parotid gland
a.
Warthin’s tumor
b.
Mixed tumor
c.
Mikulicz disease
d.
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

A

b.
Mixed tumor

48
Q

48.
In type I dentin dysplasia, roots appear extremely short, and pulps are:
a.
Normal
b.
Somewhat smaller
c.
Extremely large
d.
Completely obliterate

A

d.
Completely obliterate

49
Q

49.
Which is not associated with an enlargement of the jawbone?
a.
Paget’s disease
b.
Condensing osteitis
c.
Ossifying fibroma
d.
Fibrous dysplasia

A

b.
Condensing osteitis

50
Q

50.
White patch which can be rubbed off and is found on the labial or buccal mucosa is:
a.
Pachyderma oris
b.
Lichen planus
c.
Leukoplakia
d.
Ptyalism
e.
None of these

A

c.
Leukoplakia

51
Q

51.
The most important characteristic of malignant neoplasms, which distinguishes them from benign neoplasms, is their:
a.
Non-encapsulation
b.
Ability to metastasize
c.
growth rate
d.
Lack of differentiatio

A

b.
Ability to metastasize

52
Q

52.
A patient with a bilateral, grayish-white lesion of the buccal mucosa. This lesion disappears when the mucosa is stretched. Which of the following is the most likely condition?
a.
Leukoedema
b.
Lichen planus
c.
Leukoplakia
d.
White sponge nevus

A

a.
Leukoedema

53
Q

53.
“Warty” or “cauliflower” like growth is
a.
Papilloma
b.
Lipoma
c.
Fibroma
d.
Torus

A

a.
Papilloma

54
Q

54.
What could be the most appropriate provisional diagnosis for multiple nodular exophytic reddish lesions of oral mucosa in an AIDS patient?
a.
Hemangioma
b.
Focal epithelial hyperplasia
c.
Acute pseudo-membranous candidiasis
d.
Kaposi’s sarcoma

A

d.
Kaposi’s sarcoma

55
Q

55.
Among which of the following cysts is a more posterior presentation of a nasopalatine cysr?
a.
Median mandibular
b.
Median alveolar
c.
Cyst of the nasopalatine papilla
d.
Median palatine

A

c.
Cyst of the nasopalatine papilla

56
Q

56.
Routine periapical radiographs of a young adult patient reveal a relatively large inverted pear-shaped radiolucency situated between the roots of the right lateral incisor and canine. The roots of both teeth seem to be displaced away from the radiolucent area. The condition most likely to be responsible for the are in question is a(n)
a.
Incisive canal cyst
b.
Periodontal cyst
c.
Radicular cyst
d.
Globulomaxillary cyst
e.
Nasolabial cyst

A

d.
Globulomaxillary cyst

57
Q

57.
A dentigerous cyst develops due to collection of fluid between _________ and tooth surface.
a.
Reduced dental epithelium
b.
Stellate reticulum
c.
Internal dental epithelium
d.
External dental epithelium

A

a.
Reduced dental epithelium

58
Q

58.
The primary source of pathogenic microorganisms in the dental operatory is _______.
a.
The patient’s mouth
b.
Patient’s charts
c.
Hand of the clinician
d.
Light handles

A

a.
The patient’s mouth

59
Q

59.
Globular dentin, very early pulpal obliteration, defective root formation, development of periapical granulomas and cysts, and premature exfoliation of teeth are characteristic of which of the following disorders?
a.
Shell teeth
b.
Dentinal dysplasia
c.
Hutchinson’s teeth
d.
Regional odontodysplasia
e.
Dentinogenesis imperfecta

A

b.
Dentinal dysplasia

60
Q

60.
Within one hour of an operative procedure, clinical features of a rapidly enlarging unilateral soft tissue swelling of face with
a.
Acute osteomyelitis
b.
Buccal space infection
c.
Cervicofacial emphysema
d.
Canine space infection

A

c.
Cervicofacial emphysema

61
Q

61.
In what section of Clinical Pathology are gram stains performed?
a.
Microbiology
b.
Chemistry
c.
Cytology
d.
Microscopy

A

a.
Microbiology

62
Q

62.
Which of the following is a true cyst?
a.
Aneurysmal bone cyst
b.
Gingival cyst of the newborn
c.
Haemorrhagic bone cyst
d.
All of the above

A

b.
Gingival cyst of the newborn

63
Q

63.
What is the oral manifestation of congenital syphilis in the maxillary anterior teeth?
a.
Peg laterals
b.
Moon’s molar
c.
Mulberry molar
d.
Hutchinson’s incisor

A

d.
Hutchinson’s incisor

64
Q

64.
The most common form of mucosal burn of the oral mucosa is associated with topical application of ________.
a.
Paracetamol
b.
Vitamin C
c.
Nitroglycerin
d.
Aspirin

A

d.
Aspirin

65
Q

65.
A benign glandular neoplasm is
a.
Cyst
b.
Papilloma
c.
Nevus
d.
Adenoma

A

d.
Adenoma

66
Q

66.
Which of the following is a secondary lesion?
a.
Wheal
b.
Pustule
c.
Erosion
d.
Scurvy

A

c.
Erosion

67
Q

67.
Acute exacerbation of a chronic lesion and most commonly associated with initiation of RCT in a completely asymptomatic tooth
a.
Acute apical abscess
b.
Chronic apical abscess
c.
Phoenix abscess
d.
Irreversible pulpitis

A

c.
Phoenix abscess

68
Q

68.
Craniopharyngioma is of relevance to dentistry because it histologically resembles
a.
Osteoma
b.
Ameloblastoma
c.
Hemangioameloblastoma
d.
Melanotic pharyngioma

A

b.
Ameloblastoma

69
Q

69.
A patient presents with continuous, spontaneous pain associated with the maxillary right central incisor. This tooth has a large Class V composite restoration. Cold testing produces lingering pain. There is no sensitivity to percussion and palpation. The most likely diagnosis is
a.
Necrotic pulp, chronic apical periodontitis
b.
Reversible pulpitis, normal periapex
c.
Irreversible pulpitis, normal periapex
d.
Irreversible pulpitis, acute apical periodontitis

A

c.
Irreversible pulpitis, normal periapex

70
Q

70.
Which of the following drugs would NOT retard wound healing?
a.
Steroids
b.
Vitamins A, C
c.
Cytotoxic medications
d.
Intensive antibiotic therapy

A

b.
Vitamins A, C

71
Q

71.
Most patients with burning mouth syndrome are
a.
Children
b.
Teenagers
c.
Post-menopausal women
d.
Middle-aged males

A

c.
Post-menopausal women

72
Q

72.
A cyst originating from the separation of the follicle from around the crown of an unerupted tooth:
a.
Radicular cyst
b.
Odontogenic keratocyst
c.
Eruption cyst
d.
Dentigerous cyst

A

d.
Dentigerous cyst

73
Q

73.
Nasolabial cysts is thought to arise from
a.
Remnants of cell rests of Serrez
b.
Remnants of cell rests of Mallasez
c.
Remnants of cell rests of embryonic lacrimal duct
d.
Maxillary sinus lining epithelium

A

c.
Remnants of cell rests of embryonic lacrimal duct

74
Q

74.
A neoplasm composed of either blood vessels or lymph vessels is known as _____
a.
Hematoma
b.
Lymphosarcoma
c.
Angioma
d.
Blue nevus

A

c.
Angioma

75
Q

75.
Oblique facial clefts results from failure of fusion between
a.
Two medial nasal processes
b.
Maxillary and median nasal processes
c.
Maxillary process and lateral nasal process
d.
Maxillary process, median nasal process and lateral nasal process

A

c.
Maxillary process and lateral nasal process

76
Q

76.
An ameloblastoma is most likely to develop from a
a.
Dentigerous cyst
b.
Radicular cyst
c.
Residual cyst
d.
Primordial cyst

A

b.
Radicular cyst

77
Q

77.
Parulis is an inflammatory enlargement seen in
a.
End of sinus tract
b.
Extraction socket
c.
Due to irritation from calculus or overhanging restoration
d.
None of the above

A

a.
End of sinus tract

78
Q

78.
Rushton bodies and hyaline bodies are associated with:
a.
Nasolabial cyst
b.
Dermoid cyst
c.
Radicular cyst
d.
Aneurysmal bone cyst
e.
Globulomaxillary cyst

A

c.
Radicular cyst

79
Q

79.
Taurodontism is usually seen in:
a.
Mesiodens
b.
Incisor with talon cusp
c.
Mandibular first molar
d.
Maxillary premolars

A

c.
Mandibular first molar

80
Q

80.
The histological appearance of “lava following around boulders in dentin dysplasia” suggests
a.
Attempt to repair the defective dentin
b.
Abrupt arrest to dentin formation in crown
c.
Abnormal dentin formation in a disorganized fashion
d.
Cascades of dentin to form root

A

d.
Cascades of dentin to form root

81
Q

81.
Dentigerous cysts are lined by
a.
Endothelial cell
b.
Stratified squamous epithelium
c.
Columnar epithelium
d.
Mesothelium

A

b.
Stratified squamous epithelium

82
Q

82.
Which of the following is a reactive lesion of the gingiva that may demonstrate bone radiographically and often even microscopically?
a.
Osteoma
b.
Peripheral ossifying fibroma
c.
Traumatic neuroma
d.
Irritation fibroma

A

b.
Peripheral ossifying fibroma

83
Q

83.
Which of the following is normally characterized by pain?
a.
Radicular cyst
b.
Periapical scar
c.
Acute periapical abscess
d.
Periapical dental granuloma
e.
Pulp polyp

A

c.
Acute periapical abscess

84
Q

84.
What is the most probably diagnosis of a lesion that presents as a translucent, bluish, well-rounded, smooth-surfaced bulged that protrudes from one side of the floor of the mouth?
a.
Adenoid carcinoma
b.
SCC
c.
Lymphangioma
d.
Ranula

A

d.
Ranula

85
Q

85.
What is the most common location of epidermoid carcinoma in the face?
a.
Tongue
b.
Zygomatic area
c.
Upper face
d.
Lower lip

A

d.
Lower lip

86
Q

86.
Among others, the clinical feature of chronic pulp infection
a.
Draining sinus tract
b.
Pain
c.
Tender to percussion
d.
All of these

A

a.
Draining sinus tract

87
Q

87.
Multiple punched out lesions are seen in:
a.
Paget’s disease
b.
Ewing’s sarcoma
c.
Osteosarcoma
d.
Multiple myeloma

A

d.
Multiple myeloma

88
Q

88.
You are consulting on a pathological case for a fellow dentist. The biopsy of the lesion shows multinucleated giant cells and perivascular collagen cuffing. After asking about the clinical signs, your colleague mentions that the young patient seems always to be “staring off into space” and that she has puffy cheeks.” The most likely diagnosis of this case is:
a.
Aneurysmal bone cyst
b.
Central Giant Cell Granuloma
c.
Tumor of hyperparathyroidism
d.
Cherubism

A

d.
Cherubism

89
Q

89.
Xerostomia is seen in ll of the following EXCEPT in
a.
Anticholinergic drugs
b.
Dehydration
c.
Sjogren’s syndrome
d.
Oral sepsis

A

d.
Oral sepsis

90
Q

90.
Excess fluoride intake can result to
a.
Defect in calcification of enamel
b.
Dysfunction of odontoblast
c.
Atrophy of ameloblast
d.
Degeneration of cementoblast

A

a.
Defect in calcification of enamel

91
Q

91.
Differentiation is a measure of a tumor’s resemblance to normal tissue. Anaplasia is:
a.
A high degree of differentiation
b.
A moderate degree of differentiation
c.
The absence of differentiation
d.
Total differentiation

A

c.
The absence of differentiation

92
Q

92.
Hairy tongue is characterized by hypertrophy of which of the following papillae?
a.
Foliate
b.
Filiform
c.
Fungiform
d.
Circumvallate

A

b.
Filiform

93
Q

93.
Which of the following represents fan-shaped, hypocalcified areas that originates at the DEJ and extend into enamel for part of its thickness?
a.
Tufts
b.
Spindles
c.
Lamellae
d.
Hunter-Schreger bands
e.
Contour lines of owen

A

a.
Tufts

94
Q

94.
A patient was seen unconscious in his home. Alluring speech and could not move his left side. There was decreased sensation on his right side. The patient was admitted but after a few days, he passed away. Examination of the brain would show
a.
Caseous necrosis
b.
Liquefactive necrosis
c.
Coagulative necrosis
d.
Gangrenous necrosis

A

a.
Caseous necrosis

95
Q

95.
It is an infection, an acute viral sialadenitis primarily affecting the parotid glands
a.
Mumps
b.
Bacterial sialadenitis
c.
Sarcoidosis
d.
Sjoron’s syndrome

A

a.
Mumps

96
Q

96.
A patient suffers from a chronic irritation of the tongue which eventually led to sloughing of the surface epithelium leaving a defect on the tongue surface, This is an example of a/an
a.
Ulcer
b.
suppurative inflammation
c.
Serious inflammation
d.
Fibrinous inflammation

A

a.
Ulcer

97
Q

97.
A 29 year old patient in her 2nd trimester of pregnancy presented with a slow growing asymptomatic gingival mass that easily bleeds, microscopically it is composed of hyperplastic connective tissue, the patient is likely to have a_______.
a.
Peripheral giant cell granuloma
b.
Peripheral fibroma
c.
Pyogenic granuloma
d.
Hemanqioma

A

c.
Pyogenic granuloma

98
Q

98.
One of the following does NOT have any effect on the formation of oral candidiasis
a.
Wearing dental prosthesis
b.
The type of toothpaste used
c.
Malignant illnesses and AIDS
d.
Radiotherapy/ cystostatic therapy

A

b.
The type of toothpaste used

99
Q

99.
This is a type of cellular adaptation where the indigenous cells are replaced by cells that are better suited to tolerate a specific abnormal environment
a.
Dysplasia
b.
Anaplasia
c.
Metaplasia
d.
Hypoplasia

A

c.
Metaplasia

100
Q

100.
The absence of six or more teeth is known as
a.
Hypodontia
b.
Anodontia
c.
Oligodontia
d.
Any of the above

A

c.
Oligodontia

fmd (14 decks)

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