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1staidMICRO3(101-150) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The hyperacute phase of tissue graft rejection
    is most directly mediated by which of the
    following?
    A. T cells attacking foreign class I MHC
    B. Preformed antibody to graft antigen
    C. Necrosis of graft vasculature via antibody
    D. T cells attacking foreign class II MHC
    E. PMN attack of graft antigen
A

B. Preformed antibody to graft antigen

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE with regard
    to blood typing?

A. Anti-B antibody is considered blood type B.
B. Blood type O has both A and B antigens.
C. Patients with erythrocyte antigen A has
anti-A plasma antibody.
D. Plasma antibody A and B are seen in
patients with blood type O.
E. Blood type AB is the universal recipient.

A

E. Blood type AB is the universal recipient.

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3
Q
  1. Hemagglutination occurs when

A. blood type A is given to a patient with
anti-B plasma antibodies.
B. blood type AB is given to a patient with
anti-A plasma antibodies.
C. blood type B is given to a patient with
anti-A plasma antibodies.
D. blood with erythrocyte antigen A is given
to a patient anti-B plasma antibody.
E. blood with erythrocyte antigen B is given
to a patient with anti-A plasma antibody

A

B. blood type AB is given to a patient with
anti-A plasma antibodies.

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4
Q
  1. Malfunction of oxidative phosphorylation is
    seen in poisoning with
    A. lead.
    B. carbon monoxide.
    C. cyanide.
    D. mercury.
    E. none of the above.
A

C. cyanide.

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5
Q
  1. Each of the following enzymes is elevated
    after a myocardial infarct and heart damage
    EXCEPT
    A. CK-MB.
    B. troponin T.
    C. myoglobin.
    D. creatine phosphokinase.
    E. alkaline phosphatase.
A

E. alkaline phosphatase.

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6
Q
  1. Each of the following conditions can lead to
    tissue hypoxia EXCEPT
    A. carbon monoxide poisoning.
    B. decreased tissue perfusion.
    C. decreased blood oxygenation.
    D. vascular ischemia.
    E. none of the above.
A

E. none of the above.

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is a type of irreversible
    cell injury?
    A. Karyorrhexis.
    B. Ribosomal detachment from endoplasmic
    reticulum.
    C. Chromatin clumping.
    D. Cellular and organelle swelling.
    E. Bleb formation.
A

A. Karyorrhexis.

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8
Q
  1. Each of the following cellular reactions is
    correctly matched EXCEPT
    A. aplasia → complete lack of cells.
    B. hypertrophy → increase in number of
    cells.
    C. metaplasia → cellular change from one
    type to another.
    D. atrophy → decrease in cellular mass.
    E. hypoplasia → decrease in number of cells.
A

B. hypertrophy → increase in number of
cells.

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following is transmitted by
    ingestion of undercooked pork?
    A. Taenia saginata
    B. Taenia solium
    C. Trichinella spialis
    D. Enterobius vermicularis
    E. Giardia lamblia
A

B. Taenia solium

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10
Q
  1. Regarding the parasites’ phylogeny, each of
    the following is true EXCEPT

A. sporozoans are a type of Protozoa.
B. parasites are comprised of Protozoa and
Metazoa.
C. Nemathelminthes are a type of Protozoa.
D. “flatworms” is another name for
Platyhelminthes.
E. Trematoda and Cestoda are subgroups of
Platyhelminthes.

A

C. Nemathelminthes are a type of Protozoa.

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following is transmitted through
    inhalation?
    A. Cryptosporidium parvum
    B. Pneumocystis carinii
    C. Entamoeba histolytica
    D. Toxoplasma gondii
    E. Trichomonas vaginalis
A

C. Entamoeba histolytica

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following troche-form antifungal drugs is effective via inhibition of ergosterol synthesis?
    A. Clotrimazole
    B. Ketoconazole
    C. Fluconazole
    D. Nystatin
    E. Amphotericin B
A

A. Clotrimazole

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13
Q

Suppose that a patient presents to you for comprehensive dental care. When taking a medical history, he begins complaining of frequent itching of
his scalp, groin, and feet. You note that he has nail
fungus on his toes. Although you are his dentist, it
is still your responsibility to refer him to the correct
medical practitioner.

  1. Which of the following diseases do you suspect
    this patient has?
    A. Histoplasmosis.
    B. Coccidioidomycosis.
    C. Blastomycosis.
    D. Dermatophytosis.
    E. Mucormycosis.
A

D. Dermatophytosis.

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14
Q
  1. Treatment could include each of the following EXCEPT
    A. miconazole.
    B. clotrimazole.
    C. trimethoprim.
    D. tolnaftate.
    E. griseofulvin.
A

C. trimethoprim.

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE of fungi?
    A. They are gram positive.
    B. Cell walls are composed of ergosterol.
    C. They are obligate anaerobe
    D. They are prokaryotic.
    E. Their asexual form of reproduction is via
    spores.
A

A. They are gram positive

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16
Q

A 45-year-old male patient presents to your office
for extraction of multiple teeth. He appears jaundiced to you, and mentions that he is often
fatigued with a generalized muscle ache. The
patient frequently has fevers, a loss of appetite, and
feels bouts of nausea. He is sexually active with
multiple partners, and has not ever had any sort of
testing done. You decide to order labs prior to proceeding with his treatment.

  1. With the symptoms noted in the clinical
    vignette, which of the following diseases would
    you suspect is evident?
    A. HIV
    B. Syphilis
    C. Hepatitis C
    D. Gonorrhea
    E. Chlamydia
A

C. Hepatitis C

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17
Q
  1. A lab finding of HBsAg is consistent with
    which disease?
    A. Acute hepatitis C infection
    B. Acute hepatitis A infection
    C. Acute hepatitis B infection
    D. Chronic hepatitis E infection
    E. Chronic hepatitis B infection
A

C. Acute hepatitis B infection

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18
Q
  1. For which type of hepatitis is there a commonly administered vaccine for healthcare
    workers?
    A. Hepatitis A
    B. Hepatitis B
    C. Hepatitis C
    D. Hepatitis D
    E. Hepatitis E
A

B. Hepatitis B

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19
Q
  1. The picornavirus is responsible for which
    form of hepatitis?
    A. Hepatitis A
    B. Hepatitis B
    C. Hepatitis C
    D. Hepatitis D
    E. Hepatitis E
A

A. Hepatitis A

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following forms of sterilization
    is adequate for killing hepatitis B?
    A. Autoclaving
    B. Ethylene oxide gas
    C. Chemical vapor
    D. Formaldehyde
    E. Glutaraldehyde
A

A. Autoclaving

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21
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE of using glutaraldehyde 2% as a sterilization technique?
    A. The technique takes very little time.
    B. It is not associated with hypersensitivity.
    C. It alkylates nucleic acids and proteins.
    D. It denatures proteins.
    E. It is the preferred method of sterilizing
    liquid solutions.
A

C. It alkylates nucleic acids and proteins.

22
Q
  1. An endemic infection is BEST described as
    A. an infection occurring more frequently
    than normal within a population.
    B. an infection occurring worldwide.
    C. an infection which occurs within different
    countries.
    D. an infection occurring at a minimal level
    within a population.
    E. none of the above
A

D. an infection occurring at a minimal level
within a population.

23
Q
  1. Ludwig angina involves all of the following
    fascial spaces EXCEPT
    A. sublingual.
    B. submandibular.
    C. submental.
    D. parapharyngeal.
    E. none of the above.
A

D. parapharyngeal.

24
Q
  1. Which of the following is defined as a fluidfilled sac lined by true epithelium?
    A. Granuloma.
    B. Abscess.
    C. Cellulitis.
    D. Cyst.
    E. All of the above.
A

D. Cyst.

25
Q
  1. Which of the following infectious states is
    characterized as having active growth of
    microorganisms with or without symptoms?
    A. Chronic
    B. Acute
    C. Latent
    D. Subclinical
    E. Carrier
A

E. Carrier

26
Q
  1. The correct temperature for autoclaving/
    sterilization with moist heat is
    A. 121°C for 15-20 minutes.
    B. 320°F for 2 hours.
    C. 170°C for 1 hour.
    D. 250°F for 4 hours.
    E. 132°C for 20-30 minutes.
A

A. 121°C for 15-20 minutes.

27
Q
  1. The greatest risk of bloodborne infection
    amongst healthcare workers is
    A. Hepatitis B.
    B. HSV.
    C. HIV.
    D. HPV.
    E. Hepatitis C.
A

A. Hepatitis B.

28
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE regarding
    tuberculosis infection?
    A. Secondary form is widely disseminated.
    B. Ghon complex is characteristic of the
    primary and secondary form.
    C. It is a viral infection.
    D. It is contracted via bloodborne
    transmission.
    E. It does not involve lymph nodes.
A

B. Ghon complex is characteristic of the
primary and secondary form.

29
Q
  1. Hemoptysis is a clinical symptom of each of
    the following diseases EXCEPT
    A. pneumonia.
    B. tuberculosis.
    C. emphysema.
    D. bronchitis.
    E. idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis.
A

C. emphysema.

30
Q
  1. Ascites is characteristic of each of the following diseases EXCEPT
    A. pancreatitis.
    B. pneumonia.
    C. congestive heart failure.
    D. constrictive pericarditis.
    E. nephrotic syndrome.
A

B. pneumonia.

31
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE regarding
    syndromes of malabsorption?

A. It can result in steatorrhea.
B. Celiac disease is most likely caused by
infection of some sort.
C. There is a correlation between increased
length of breastfeeding and Whipple
disease.
D. Malabsorption is due to nutrients not
being absorbed by the large intestine.
E. Sore tongue is a clinical complication of
Whipple disease.

A

A. It can result in steatorrhea.

32
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE of caries
    pathogenesis?
    A. Glucans and fructans inhibit the adherence of plaque to the tooth surface.
    B. Lactic acid buildup causes an increase in
    salivary pH.
    C. The most detrimental effect on salivary
    pH is frequency of carbohydrate intake.
    D. Sucrose is a byproduct of glucan metabolism. The quantity of carbohydrate intake
    is not detrimental to salivary pH.
A

C. The most detrimental effect on salivary
pH is frequency of carbohydrate intake.

33
Q
  1. Each of the following typically comprises the
    majority of dental calculus EXCEPT
    A. calcium.
    B. hydroxyapatite.
    C. carbohydrate.
    D. desquamated cells.
    E. by-products of viral replication
A

E. by-products of viral replication

34
Q
  1. Each of the following is true of free radical
    injury EXCEPT
    A. it can lead to cross-linking of proteins.
    B. it is generated from redox reactions.
    C. it can induce autocatalytic reactions.
    D. it is formed from catalase.
    E. it is induced by activated oxygen species.
A

D. it is formed from catalase.

35
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE of pathologic calcification?
    A. Metastatic calcification occurs in damaged heart valves.
    B. Metastatic calcification is due in part to
    increased phosphate concentration.
    C. Serum calcium is normal in dystrophic
    calcification.
    D. Dystrophic calcification occurs with
    normal tissue.
    E. Eggshell calcification cannot be seen on
    chest x-ray.
A

C. Serum calcium is normal in dystrophic
calcification.

36
Q
  1. Which of the following definitions is NOT
    correct regarding classical signs of acute
    inflammation?
    A. Calor → due to decreased tissue perfusion
    B. Tumor → due to tissue edema
    C. Rubor → due in part to vasodilation
    D. Function laesa → due to pain and
    swelling
    E. Dolor → due to inflammatory mediators
A

A. Calor → due to decreased tissue perfusion

37
Q
  1. Each of the following is true of acute inflammation EXCEPT

A. PMNs are the first leukocyte to respond.
B. granuloma formation includes formation
of pus from neutrophils, necrotic cells,
and exudates.
C. regeneration is the first stage of wound
repair following inflammation.
D. chronic inflammation differs from acute
in that monocytes and macrophages
are present.
E. elimination of infectious agents and ridding of necrotic tissue occur in the initial
response to tissue injury.

A

B. granuloma formation includes formation
of pus from neutrophils, necrotic cells,
and exudates

38
Q
  1. Which of the following autosomal chromosomal abnormalities occur most frequently?
    A. Edward syndrome
    B. Patau syndrome
    C. Klinefelter syndrome
    D. Down syndrome
    E. Turner syndrome
A

D. Down syndrome

39
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE regarding
    pathological primary hypertension?
    A. There is hypertrophy of capillaries.
    B. Decreased wall-to-lumen ratio.
    C. Increased arteriolar and capillary density.
    D. Decreased smooth muscle growth.
    E. Decreased cross-sectional area of
    capillaries and arterioles.
A

E. Decreased cross-sectional area of
capillaries and arterioles.

40
Q
  1. Each of the following is a risk factor for atherosclerosis EXCEPT
    A. smoking.
    B. hypertension.
    C. premenopause.
    D. nephrosclerosis.
    E. diabetes.
A

C. premenopause.

41
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE of right
    sided heart failure?
    A. Isolated right heart failure is common.
    B. Typically occurs independent of left heart
    failure.
    C. Can be a sequelae of cor pulmonale.
    D. Typical symptoms include rales and
    cardiac enlargement.
    E. A S3 of S4 (gallop rhythm) is heard when
    present
A

C. Can be a sequelae of cor pulmonale.

42
Q
  1. A decrease in alpha-1 antitrypsin is seen in
    which of the following diseases?
    A. Asthma
    B. Chronic bronchitis
    C. Emphysema
    D. Pneumonia
    E. Tuberculosis
A

C. Emphysema

43
Q
  1. A patient with a history of alcoholism presents with a lung abscess. Which of the following bacteria would you most suspect is the
    causative agent?
    A. Klebsiella
    B. Staphylococcus
    C. Streptococcus
    D. Bacillus
    E. Clostridium
A

A. Klebsiella

44
Q
  1. Which of the following bacteria will show
    characteristic sulfur granules on histological
    study?
    A. Listeria monocytogenes
    B. Staphylococcus aureus
    C. Actinomyces israelii
    D. Clostridium botulinum
    E. Clostridium tetani
A

C. Actinomyces israelii

45
Q
  1. Each of the following can be caused by
    Neisseria infection EXCEPT
    A. septic arthritis.
    B. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome.
    C. meningitis.
    D. gonorrhea.
    E. pseudomembranous colitis.
A

E. pseudomembranous colitis.

46
Q
  1. Infection by which species of Clostridium
    after ingestion of reheated meats causes symptoms of necrotizing fasciitis and myonecrosis?
    A. Dificile
    B. Perfringens
    C. Tetani
    D. Botulinum
    E. None of the above
A

B. Perfringens

47
Q
  1. Which of the following bacteria is correctly
    matched with the disease it causes?
    A. Shigella → dysentery
    B. Escherichia → typhoid fever
    C. Klebsiella → peptic ulcers
    D. Vibrio → urinary tract infection
    E. Helicobacter → cholera
A

A. Shigella → dysentery

48
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE of syphilis
    infection?
    A. The secondary form is characterized by
    gumma formation.
    B. It is treated with penicillin.
    C. It is caused by Mycobacterium infection.
    D. The primary form includes a highly infectious maculopapular rash.
    E. The tertiary stage is characterized by a
    painless ulcer
A

B. It is treated with penicillin.

49
Q
  1. The smallest bacterium is

A. Chlamydia trachomatis.
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
D. Rickettsia rickettsii.
E. Borrelia burgdorferi.

A

C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

50
Q
  1. Each of the following diseases is caused by
    infection of Picornavirus EXCEPT
    A. aseptic meningitis.
    B. herpangia.
    C. polio.
    D. hepatitis B.
    E. common cold
A

D. hepatitis B.

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