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1staidmicro151-200 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE of coronary
    artery disease?
    A. Increased blood flow to myocardium.
    B. Increased oxygen and nutrients to
    myocardium.
    C. Hypotension is a risk factor.
    D. The classic symptom is angina.
    E. Ischemia is a rare consequence of it.
A

D. The classic symptom is angina.

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2
Q
  1. Each of the following is seen in a patient with
    a myocardial infarct EXCEPT
    A. pain radiating to the right arm.
    B. sweating.
    C. ECG changes.
    D. angina.
    E. leakage of cardiac enzymes
A

A. pain radiating to the right arm.

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following definitions is correctly
    matched to its form of angina?
    A. Stable angina → intermittent chest pain
    at rest
    B. Prinzmetal angina → vasospasm
    C. Prinzmetal angina → most common type
    D. Unstable angina → most common type
    E. Stable angina → precipitated by exertion
A

E. Stable angina → precipitated by exertion

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4
Q

A 70-year-old male patient presents for endodontic therapy. He mentions to you that he is a 30 packyear smoker since he was 20 years of age. While in your chair, he demonstrates labored breathing and when he coughs, it seems dry and nonproductive.
The patient shows you a note from his physician stating that he has an increased total lung capacity, increased residual volume, and decreased FEV1/
FVC.

  1. Which of the following diseases do you suspect
    this patient has?
    A. Chronic bronchitis
    B. Asthma
    C. Emphysema
    D. Pneumonia
    E. Tuberculosis
A

C. Emphysema

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5
Q
  1. Asthma is precipitated by each of the following
    mechanism EXCEPT
    A. increased sympathetic stimulation.
    B. cox inhibitors.
    C. direct bronchodilator release.
    D. increased vagal stimulation.
    E. type I hypersensitivity reaction.
A

A. increased sympathetic stimulation.

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6
Q
  1. The term “blue bloater” is given to patients
    stricken with which of the following conditions?
    A. Emphysema
    B. Asthma
    C. Chronic bronchitis
    D. Pneumonia
    E. Bronchiectasis
A

C. Chronic bronchitis

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7
Q
  1. Each of the following is a possible complication
    of chronic bronchitis EXCEPT
    A. peripheral edema.
    B. chronic productive cough.
    C. right ventricular overload.
    D. noncaseating granulomas.
    E. bronchogenic carcinoma.
A

D. noncaseating granulomas.

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8
Q
  1. Each of the following is a mechanism of airway
    obstruction EXCEPT
    A. increased elastic recoil.
    B. increased mucous.
    C. airway hyperreactivity.
    D. increased elastic recoil.
    E. none of the above.
A

D. increased elastic recoil.

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUELY matched with its definition?
    A. Precipitation →ABO blood typing
    B. Radioimmunoassay → detection of antigen
    in histologic section
    C. Immunofluorescence → detection of
    serum antigen
    D. Agglutination → antibody cross-linking
    with soluble antigen
    E. ELISA → substrate-activated enzyme
    reaction labeling antigen-antibody
    complex
A

E. ELISA → substrate-activated enzyme
reaction labeling antigen-antibody
complex

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE of T cells?
    A. TH-1 cells secrete IL-4 and -5.
    B. CD8 lymphocytes respond to class II
    MHC proteins.
    C. Memory T cells do not respond to
    reexposure.
    D. TH-2 cells signal B cells to differentiate
    into plasma cells.
    E. CD4 lymphocytes are considered cytotoxic
    lymphocytes
A

D. TH-2 cells signal B cells to differentiate
into plasma cells.

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11
Q
  1. Tissue regeneration occurs in each of the following
    EXCEPT
    A. liver.
    B. cartilage.
    C. skeletal muscle.
    D. bone.
    E. intestinal mucosa.
A

C. skeletal muscle.

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE of histamine
    function?
    A. Causes vasodilation.
    B. Causes bronchodilation.
    C. It has no effect in type I hypersensitivity
    reactions.
    D. It is secreted by leukocytes.
    E. It activates complement.
A

A. Causes vasodilation.

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13
Q
  1. Regarding inflammatory mediators, each of
    the following is correctly matched up with its
    precursor EXCEPT
    A. serotonin → tryptophan.
    B. complement protein → hepatocytes.
    C. nitric oxide → histidine.
    D. bradykinin → kininogen.
    E. leukotrienes → arachidonic acid.
A

C. nitric oxide → histidine.

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14
Q
  1. TGF-β is secreted by each of the following
    EXCEPT
    A. monocytes.
    B. fibroblasts.
    C. T cells.
    D. B cells.
    E. macrophages
A

B. fibroblasts.

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15
Q
  1. Each of the following is part of the cellular
    stage of acute inflammation EXCEPT
    A. diapedesis.
    B. margination.
    C. chemotaxis.
    D. vasodilation.
    E. adhesion.
A

D. vasodilation.

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE of subgingival
    plaque?
    A. It is located coronal to the gingival
    margin.
    B. It is not affected by diet and saliva.
    C. It is predominately gram-positive facultative
    cocci.
    D. The calculus it forms is due to saliva.
    E. It does not attach to gingival epithelial
    sources.
A

B. It is not affected by diet and saliva.

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE of bacteriophages?
    A. There are three pathways of replication.
    B. The lytic cycle includes a prophage.
    C. The host cell is not destroyed in the lysogenic
    cycle.
    D. They are viruses.
    E. DNA is incorporated into the host-cell
    chromosome in the lytic cycle.
A

C. The host cell is not destroyed in the lysogenic
cycle.

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following cannot be prevented
    with a vaccine?
    A. Infectious mononucleosis
    B. Primary varicella
    C. Smallpox
    D. Hepatitis B
    E. Hepatocellular carcinoma
A

A. Infectious mononucleosis

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19
Q
  1. Each of the following is true of human
    immunodeficiency virus EXCEPT
    A. it contains only one strand of RNA.
    B. gp120 mediates attachment to CD4.
    C. gp41 mediates fusion to the host cell.
    D. p24 and p7 combine to form the
    nucleocapsid.
    E. it contains reverse transcriptase
A

A. it contains only one strand of RNA.

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE of
    cephalosporins?
    A. They inhibit protein synthesis.
    B. They contain beta lactam rings.
    C. They are bacteriostatic.
    D. There is only one generation of the drug
    available.
    E. There is 90% cross-hypersensitivity with
    penicillins
A

B. They contain beta lactam rings.

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21
Q
  1. Haemophilus influenzae can cause each of
    the following illnesses EXCEPT
    A. otitis media.
    B. epiglottitis.
    C. meningitis in children.
    D. upper respiratory tract infection.
    E. enterocolitis.
A

E. enterocolitis.

22
Q

An 8-year-old female presents to your office for regular
dental care. On physical exam, you note that she has delayed eruption of several teeth and dentin and enamel defects. The caries rate also seems high.

  1. Which of the following diseases do you suspect
    this patient has?
    A. Osteomalacia
    B. Paget disease
    C. Fibrous dysplasia
    D. Osteoporosis
    E. Osteitis fibrosa cystic
A

A. Osteomalacia

23
Q
  1. Each of the following is a cause of vitamin D
    deficiency EXCEPT
    A. decreased dietary intake.
    B. malabsorption.
    C. increased phosphate intake.
    D. decreased sunlight exposure.
    E. kidney failure.
A

C. increased phosphate intake.

24
Q
  1. The laboratory findings of anemia, increased
    alkaline phosphatase, and increased urinary
    hydroxyproline are seen in
    A. Paget disease.
    B. fibrous dysplasia.
    C. osteoporosis.
    D. osteochondrosis.
    E. osteopetrosis
A

A. Paget disease.

25
Q
  1. Each of the following classifications of fractures
    is correctly matched with its definition EXCEPT
    A. greenstick → bone cracks through one
    side only.
    B. comminuted → bone is crushed into
    many pieces.
    C. open → bone pierces skin.
    D. complete → bone bends but does not
    break.
    E. single → bone breaks only in one place
A

D. complete → bone bends but does not
break.

26
Q
  1. Which of the following diseases do you suspect
    this patient is suffering from?
    A. Multiple sclerosis
    B. Myasthenia gravis
    C. Alzheimer disease
    D. Parkinson disease
    E. Eaton-Lambert syndrome
A

C. Alzheimer disease

27
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT part of the
    triad of symptoms seen with multiple sclerosis?
    A. Scanning speech
    B. Dementia
    C. Intention tremor
    D. Nystagmus
    E. None of the above
A

B. Dementia

28
Q
  1. Each of the following is true of a stroke EXCEPT

A. it is due to an infarct of the cerebrum or
another part of the brain.
B. it can be caused by a thrombus of
embolism of the carotid artery.
C. symptoms vary based on what part of the
brain is affected.
D. sudden paralysis and numbness of the
body on the ipsilateral side of the stroke is
common.
E. hemorrhage of the brain can cause a stroke.

A

D. sudden paralysis and numbness of the
body on the ipsilateral side of the stroke is
common.

29
Q
  1. Which of the following signs and symptoms
    are incorrectly matched with their causative
    disease?
    A. Alzheimer disease → Lewy bodies
    B. Parkinson disease → depigmentation of
    the substantia nigra
    C. Werdnig-Hoffman disease → tongue
    fasciculations
    D. Poliomyelitis → lower motor neuron
    damage
    E. Huntingdon disease → chorea and dementia
A

A. Alzheimer disease → Lewy bodies

30
Q
  1. Each of the following tumors is matched up
    with their definition EXCEPT
    A. choristoma → normal tissue misplaced
    within another organ.
    B. myxoma → malignant tumor derived
    from connective tissue.
    C. teratoma → neoplasm comprised of all
    three embryonic germ cell layers.
    D. adenoma → neoplasm of glandular
    epithelium.
    E. papilloma → tumor from surface
    epithelium.
A

B. myxoma → malignant tumor derived
from connective tissue.

31
Q
  1. Each of the following causes of mutagenesis
    is correctly matched with its mechanism of
    action EXCEPT

A. ultraviolet light → produces free radicals
that can attack DNA bases.
B. dimers → interfere with DNA replication.
C. chemicals → may alter an existing DNA
base.
D. viruses → frameshift mutations.
E. viruses → frameshift deletions

A

A. ultraviolet light → produces free radicals
that can attack DNA bases.

32
Q
  1. The clinical signs of peau d’orange and enlarged axillary lymph nodes are evident in
    which of the following neoplasias?
    A. Squamous cell carcinoma
    B. Lung cancer
    C. Colorectal cancer
    D. Breast cancer
    E. Uterine cancer
A

D. Breast cancer

33
Q
  1. Which of the following cells has the lowest
    radiosensitivity?
    A. Lymphocytes
    B. Reproductive cells
    C. Nerve cells
    D. Epithelial cells
    E. Bone marrow
A

C. Nerve cells

34
Q
  1. Which of the following is a highly malignant
    cerebellar tumor that is also of primitive neuroectodermal
    origin?
    A. Glioblastoma multiforme
    B. Medulloblastoma
    C. Low-grade astrocytoma
    D. Craniopharyngioma
    E. Ependymoma
A

B. Medulloblastoma

35
Q
  1. Which of the following cancers has the highest
    incidence in men?
    A. Colorectal
    B. Urinary tract
    C. Prostate
    D. Lung
    E. Leukemia
A

C. Prostate

36
Q

A 64-year-old male presents to you complaining of
a painful growth on his midface. It appears somewhat
pearly with overlying telangiectatic vessels.
He mentions that it sometimes bleeds and it doesn’t
seem to ever heal. You decide to perform a biopsy.

  1. Which of the following do you suspect this
    lesion is?
    A. Dermatofibroma
    B. Basal cell carcinoma
    C. Squamous cell carcinoma
    D. Actinic keratosis
    E. Melanoma
A

B. Basal cell carcinoma

37
Q
  1. Which of the following skin neoplasms is
    benign?
    A. Pigmented nevus
    B. Squamous cell carcinoma
    C. Melanoma
    D. Keratocanthoma
    E. None of the above
A

A. Pigmented nevus

38
Q
  1. Each of the following is true regarding squamous
    cell carcinoma of the skin EXCEPT

A. keratin pearls are seen histologically.
B. there are increased laminin receptors
seen in malignant epithelial cells.
C. a normal treatment regimen requires
chemotherapy.
D. it can be caused by sun damage and
radiation.
E. it typically presents as a scaling,
indurated, ulcerative nodule.

A

C. a normal treatment regimen requires
chemotherapy.

39
Q
  1. Which of the following is FALSE regarding
    melanoma of the skin?

A. It is a malignancy of melanocytes of nevus
cells.
B. The most common form is superficial
spreading type.
C. It is the most deadly form of skin cancer.
D. The clinical course may include very
rapid spread.
E. The initial phase of growth is vertical
followed by radial.

A

E. The initial phase of growth is vertical
followed by radial.

40
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE regarding
    Ewing sarcoma?
    A. Histology alone is not specific for diagnosis.
    B. It is not sensitive to radiation therapy.
    C. It occurs in the 5th-6th decades of life.
    D. It originates in skeletal muscle.
    E. It is benign.
A

A. Histology alone is not specific for diagnosis.

41
Q
  1. Each of the following is a possible cause of disseminated
    intravascular coagulation EXCEPT
    A. major trauma.
    B. malignancy
    C. gram-negative sepsis.
    D. amniotic fluid embolism.
    E. type I hypersensitivity reaction
A

E. type I hypersensitivity reaction

42
Q
  1. Which of the following is FALSE regarding
    iron deficiency?
    A. It can be caused by chronic blood loss.
    B. Clinical symptoms include pallor, fatigue,
    and shortness of breath.
    C. It results in macrocytic anemia.
    D. It can lead to Plummer-Vinson syndrome.
    E. Poor diet can be a cause.
A

C. It results in macrocytic anemia.

43
Q
  1. Each of the following is a cause of vitamin
    B12 deficiency EXCEPT
    A. pernicious anemia.
    B. duodenal resection.
    C. gastric resection.
    D. specific dietary deficiency.
    E. none of the above.
A

B. duodenal resection.

44
Q
  1. Which of the following lab findings would be
    seen with nephrotic syndrome?
    A. Hyperalbuminemia
    B. Hypolipidemia
    C. Hypocholesterolemia
    D. Optimally functioning renal glomeruli
    E. Proteinuria
A

E. Proteinuria

45
Q
  1. In general, which of the following is TRUE
    of the systemic response to infection?
    A. Giardia infections are largely associated
    with neutrophilia.
    B. Rubella infections are largely associated
    with lymphocytosis.
    C. It rarely results in fever.
    D. Leukocytosis is a rare result of bacterial,
    parasitic, and viral infection.
    E. Clostridium infections are largely associated
    with eosinophilia.
A

B. Rubella infections are largely associated
with lymphocytosis.

46
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE regarding
    the physiology of edema?
    A. There is a decrease in capillary permeability.
    B. There is an increase in interstitial fluid
    colloid osmotic pressure.
    C. There is a decrease in plasma colloid
    osmotic pressure.
    D. There is a decrease in capillary hydrostatic
    pressure.
    E. Fluid moves into the intravascular space.
A

B. There is an increase in interstitial fluid
colloid osmotic pressure.

47
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE regarding
    the pathophysiology of shock?
    A. There is a decrease in urinary output.
    B. The patient becomes hypertensive.
    C. There is an increase in blood flow.
    D. There is an increase in cardiac output.
    E. There is an increase in stroke volume
A

A. There is a decrease in urinary output.

48
Q
  1. Each of the following can lead to cirrhosis of
    the liver EXCEPT
    A. hemochromatosis.
    B. biliary obstruction.
    C. Wilson disease.
    D. viral hepatitis.
    E. portal hypertension.
A

E. portal hypertension.

49
Q
  1. Each of the following is true of hemolytic
    anemia EXCEPT
    A. the first sign is yellow sclera.
    B. hyperbilirubinemia is a common laboratory
    finding.
    C. there is a decrease in unconjugated bilirubin
    in the blood.
    D. conjugated bilirubin forms from albumin
    and unconjugated bilirubin.
    E. hemoglobinuria is a common laboratory
    finding.
A

C. there is a decrease in unconjugated bilirubin
in the blood.

50
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE of sickle
    cell anemia?
    A. The homozygotic form is less severe.
    B. The spleen is rarely affected.
    C. Caucasians are most commonly affected.
    D. It is an inherited autosomal dominant
    disease.
    E. Patients with sickle-cell trait are
    heterozygotic.
A

E. Patients with sickle-cell trait are
heterozygotic.

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