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ENDO Flashcards

1
Q

1.
Patients with cardiac conditions that are classified as high-risk to develop bacterial endocarditis MUST BE premedicated with antibiotics prior to root canal treatment. This is because over instrumentation during RCT may cause bacteremia.
a.
Both statements are true
b.
Both statements are false
c.
The first statement is true; the second is false
d.
The first statement is false; the second is true

A

a.
Both statements are true

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2
Q

2.
It is also known as the Buccal object rule or SLOB rule
a.
Cone shift technique
b.
Clark’s rule
c.
Walton’s Projection
d.
All of the above

A

d.
All of the above

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3
Q

3.
Accessory canals are most often detected
a.
On pretreatment radiographs
b.
During instrumentation procedures
c.
Following obturation of the main canal
d.
When taking radiographs during working length determination

A

c.
Following obturation of the main canal

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4
Q

4.
This is contraindicated to be used for patients with cardiac pacemakers
a.
Apex locators
b.
Endodontic rotary instruments
c.
Electric pulp test
d.
All of the above

A

c.
Electric pulp test

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5
Q

5.
Among the following, which is a possible cause of internal root resorption?
a.
Orthodontic treatment
b.
Excessive occlusal force
c.
Tumor
d.
Caries penetrating to the pulp

A

d.
Caries penetrating to the pulp

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6
Q

6.
Treatment for internal root resorption of a permanent tooth
a.
Root canal treatment
b.
Eliminate etiologic factors
c.
Restoration of tooth structure
d.
Eliminate tooth contact

A

a.
Root canal treatment

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7
Q

7.
A patient went to your clinic complaining of pain on tooth #36. There is pain upon biting and release of bite. Localized vertical periodontal defect is seen and radiographically presenting a halo radiolucency. This is a characteristic of?
a.
Irreversible pulpitis with normal periapical tissues
b.
Necrotic pulp with acute apical periodontitis
c.
Crack tooth syndrome
d.
None of the above

A

c.
Crack tooth syndrome

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8
Q

EDTA means
a.
Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid
b.
Ethylenediacetyltetraacetic acid
c.
Ethynoldiaminetetraacetic acid
d.
Ethylenediaminetetraacetylcholinic acid

A

a.
Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid

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9
Q

A non-carious tooth with deep periodontal pockets that does not involve the apical third of the root has developed an acute pulpitis. There is no history of trauma other than a mild prematurity in lateral excursion. What is the most likely explanation for the pulpitis?
a.
Normal mastication plus toothbrushing has driven microorganisms deep into tissues with subsequent pulp involvement at the apex.
b.
During a general bacteremia, bacteria settled in this aggravated pulp and produced an acute pulpitis.
c.
Repeated thermal shock from air and fluids getting into the deep pockets caused the pulpitis.
d.
An accessory pulp canal in the gingival or the middle third of the root was in contact with the pockets

A

d.
An accessory pulp canal in the gingival or the middle third of the root was in contact with the pockets

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10
Q

10.
When removing gutta percha using a rotary device, fracture of the tooth or the mechanical instrument less frequently happens when the RPM is around
a.
100 to 250 RPM
b.
350 to 1500 RPM
c.
2000 to 4500 RPM
d.
5000 to 10000 RPM

A

b.
350 to 1500 RPM

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11
Q

11.
Which may not be a portal of entry of bacteria into the pulp?
a.
Caries
b.
Permeable tubules due to exposed dentin
c.
Cracks or trauma
d.
Leaking restorations
e.
All of the above
f.
None of the above

A

f.
None of the above

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12
Q

12.
When compared to the bisecting-angle technique, the advantages of the paralleling technique in endodontic radiology include all of the following except____
a.
A significant decrease in patient radiation
b.
A more accurate image of the tooth’s dimensions
c.
That it is easier to reproduce radiographs at similar angles to assess healing after treatment
d.
The most accurate image of all the tooth’s dimensions and its relationship to surrounding anatomic structures

A

d.
The most accurate image of all the tooth’s dimensions and its relationship to surrounding anatomic structures

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13
Q

13.
Which of the following best describes a #40 04 K-file?
DMF DENTAL TRAINING CENTER 3
a.
The diameter of the tip is 0.04mm and the diameter nearest to the shank is 0.4mm
b.
The diameter at the tip is 0.4mm and it tapers at 0.04mm per mm length of the file
c.
The color of the file is black and has a tip of 0.04mm
d.
The color of the file is green and has a tip of 0.04mm

A

b.
The diameter at the tip is 0.4mm and it tapers at 0.04mm per mm length of the file

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14
Q

14.
Among the following types of perforations, which has the poorest prognosis?
a.
Crown perforation at the cervical of tooth
b.
Root perforation at the cervical 3rd of the root
c.
Root perforation at the mid-root region
d.
Root perforation at the apical 3rd of the root

A

b.
Root perforation at the cervical 3rd of the root

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15
Q

15.
What is the primary use of gates-glidden drills?
a.
Used to create a glide path towards the apical foramen
b.
For removal of the lingual shoulder during access cavity preparation and enlarge the canal orifices
c.
To localize orifices before access preparation
d.
To create a straight-line access towards the apical foramen

A

b.
For removal of the lingual shoulder during access cavity preparation and enlarge the canal orifices

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16
Q

16.
The following are TRUE regarding the nature of root canal infections, which is incorrect?
a.
Root canal infections are primarily polymicrobial
b.
The size of the periradicular radiolucency has a positive correlation with the number of bacteria in the root canal system.
c.
The predominant microorganisms found in primary endodontic infection are obligate anaerobic organisms.
d.
The root canal of a tooth that has a FAILED ROOT CANAL TREATMENT consists primarily of facultative anaerobes.
e.
All of the above
f.
None of the above

A

f.
None of the above

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17
Q

17.
The presence of a periapical lesion before root canal treatment will reduce the success rate of the treatment by 15%. Presence of periapical lesions immediately requires periapical microsurgeries.
a.
Both statements are true
b.
Both statements are false
c.
The first statement is true; the second is false
d.
The first statement is false; the second is true

A

c.
The first statement is true; the second is false

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18
Q

18.
It is possible to sterilize the root canal cavity and periapices during root canal treatment. If there are bacterial left after obturation, it is the duty of the natural defenses of the body to eliminate these microorganisms.
a.
Both statements are true
b.
Both statements are false
c.
The first statement is true; the second is false
d.
The first statement is false; the second is true

A

d.
The first statement is false; the second is true

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19
Q

19.
This is the best method to sterilize instruments that will be used for pulp treatments
a.
Autoclave
b.
Boiling
c.
Dry heat
d.
Glass bead sterilizer

A

a.
Autoclave

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20
Q

20.
This is used as a part of the final irrigation protocol that primarily removes the smear layer on the dentinal walls
a.
5.25% NaOCl
b.
0.12% Chlorhexidine
c.
17% EDTA
d.
0.9% NaCl

A

c.
17% EDTA

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21
Q

21.
Among the following pulpal and periapical conditions, which is the most difficult to diagnose?
a.
Necrotic pulp
b.
Asymptomatic irreversible pulpitis
c.
Internal root resorption
d.
Acute apical abscess
e.
Chronic apical abscess

A

b.
Asymptomatic irreversible pulpitis

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22
Q

22.
These are common microorganisms found in a primary root canal infection
a.
Porphyromonas, bacteroides and actinomyces
b.
Eikenella, actinobacillus and capnocytophaga
c.
Treponema, tannerella, porphyromonas
d.
Fusobacterium, prevotella, campylobacter

A

a.
Porphyromonas, bacteroides and actinomyces

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23
Q

23.
These are the most common bacteria found in an unsuccessful root canal treatment
a.
Gram-positive facultative anaerobes like enterococcus and streptococcus
b.
Gram-negative anaerobic rods like fusobacterium and campylobacter
c.
Actinomyces, treponema, porphyromonas
d.
Candida albicans

A

a.
Gram-positive facultative anaerobes like enterococcus and streptococcus

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24
Q

24.
The endodontic access form is triangular in shape for which of the following teeth?
a.
Maxillary central incisor, mandibular central incisor, and maxillary canine
b.
Mandibular central incisor, maxillary first molar, and maxillary first premolar
c.
Maxillary canine, maxillary first premolar, and maxillary lateral incisor
d.
Maxillary second molar, mandibular first molar, and mandibular second molar
e.
Maxillary central incisor, maxillary first molar, and maxillary second molar

A

e.
Maxillary central incisor, maxillary first molar, and maxillary second molar

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25
Q

Moving a small file (such as #10 file) 0.5mm to 1mm pass the apex or known as patency check may result to which of the following?
a.
It damages the periodontium causing moderate to severe post-operative pain
b.
Enlarges the apical foramen excessively causing obturation material to extrude towards the periapex
c.
Introduces bacteria into the periodontium decreasing the prognosis of the root canal treatment
d.
Prevents apical transportation and canal blockage during treatment

A

d.
Prevents apical transportation and canal blockage during treatment

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26
Q

26.
It refers to an artificial irregularity or step created on the surface of the root canal wall that prevents instruments going to the apex.
a.
Perforation
b.
Ledge
c.
Transportation
d.
Zipping

A

b.
Ledge

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27
Q

27.
Removal of canal wall structure on the outside curve in the apical half of the canal due to the tendency of files to restore themselves to their original linear shape during canal preparation.
DMF DENTAL TRAINING CENTER 5
a.
Perforation
b.
Ledge
c.
Transportation
d.
Zipping

A

c.
Transportation

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28
Q

28.
A tear-drop shape that may be formed in the apical foramen during preparation of a curved canal when a file extends through the apical foramen and subsequently transports that outer wall.
a.
Perforation
b.
Ledge
c.
Transportation
d.
Zipping

A

d.
Zipping

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29
Q

29.
Which of the following root surfaces is most likely to be strip-perforated during canal instrumentation of the mesial root of a mandibular first molar?
a.
Buccal
b.
Mesial
c.
Lingual
d.
Distal

A

d.
Distal

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30
Q

30.
When fitting the gutta-percha during obturation, the GP is allowed to pass 1mm beyond the working length. It is also acceptable if the GP is short of 1mm from the working length.
a.
Both statements are true
b.
Both statements are false
c.
The first statement is true; the second is false
d.
The first statement is false; the second is true

A

d.
The first statement is false; the second is true

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31
Q

31.
This is the most common bleaching agent dispensed by dentists to their patients for home-use
a.
Carbamide peroxide
b.
Hydrogen peroxide
c.
Sodium perborate
d.
Sodium hypochlorite

A

a.
Carbamide peroxide

32
Q

32.
It refers to a medicine that relieves pain
a.
Antibiotic
b.
Anodyne
c.
Antidote
d.
Anesthesia

A

b.
Anodyne

33
Q

33.
A 24-year-old complains of thermal sensitivity in her front teeth. Pulp tests indicate a vital tooth, but the radiograph shows a radiolucency in the middle of the root of the maxillary left central incisor. The most probable diagnosis and treatment are ________
a.
Internal root resorption – extract the tooth
b.
Internal root resorption – RCT
c.
Internal root resorption – observe and take a radiograph after 6months
d.
None of the above is correct

A

b.
Internal root resorption – RCT

34
Q

34.
A technique used to induce a calcified barrier in a root with an open apex or the continued apical development of an incompletely formed root in permanent teeth with necrotic pulps.
a.
Apexification
b.
Apexogenesis
DMF DENTAL TRAINING CENTER 6
c.
Pulpotomy
d.
Pulpectomy

A

a.
Apexification

35
Q

35.
A vital pulp therapy procedure performed to encourage continued physiological development and formation of the root end.
a.
Apexification
b.
Apexogenesis
c.
Root canal treatment
d.
Pulpectomy

A

b.
Apexogenesis

36
Q

36.
Which is not uncommonly used irrigant in root canal treatment?
a.
5.25% NaOcl
b.
30% Hydrogen Peroxide
c.
30% EDTA
d.
2% NaCl

A

a.
5.25% NaOcl

37
Q

37.
This is the apical portion of the root canal having the narrowest diameter.
a.
Apical foramen
b.
Accessory canal
c.
Apical constriction
d.
Apical barrier

A

c.
Apical constriction

38
Q

38.
It refers to a canal morphology wherein the main canal divides into multiple accessory canals at the apex of the root.
a.
Apical branching
b.
Apical patency
c.
Apical division
d.
Apical delta

A

d.
Apical delta

39
Q

39.
This is the primary reason for recapitulation procedure
a.
Clean the debris at the apical segment of the canal not removed by irrigation
b.
Properly enlarged the apical segment of the canal
c.
To establish tugback during obturation
d.
To properly shape the apical 3rd of the canal, creating a tapered root canal

A

a.
Clean the debris at the apical segment of the canal not removed by irrigation

40
Q

40.
Patient came to your clinic for a root canal treatment of tooth #11 (necrotic and RX presents well-defined radiolucency). RCT is completed in 2 meetings. After 3 years, the patient came to your clinic for follow-up. The tooth remained asymptomatic and no fistula is present. Radiographically, there is a radiolucency present in the apex of tooth #11. What is the treatment of choice?
a.
Re-do root canal treatment
b.
Proceed to apicoectomy and retrograde filling
c.
Do nothing
d.
Remove the GP and put calcium hydroxide in the root canal for 7 days.

A

c.
Do nothing

41
Q

41.
It refers to an incompletely formed root in which the apical diameter of the canal is wider than the coronal diameter
a.
Wide-apical canal
b.
Open apex
c.
Blunderbuss canal
d.
All of the above

A

c.
Blunderbuss canal

42
Q

42.
C-shaped canals are most commonly seen in __________
a.
Maxillary first molars
b.
Mandibular first molars
c.
Maxillary second molars
d.
Mandibular second molars

A

d.
Mandibular second molars

43
Q

43.
Commonly, C-shaped canals are formed because of the fusion of which of the following canals?
a.
MB canal and distal canal
b.
ML canal and distal canal
c.
MB canal and palatal canal
d.
ML canal and palatal canal

A

a.
MB canal and distal canal

44
Q

44.
Carbamide peroxide is also known as __________
a.
Hydrogen peroxide
b.
Carbomine peroxide
c.
Urea peroxide
d.
Sodium Peroxide

A

c.
Urea peroxide

45
Q

45.
Which of the following will determine the success of pulpotomy of a primary molar tooth?
a.
Preservation of the pulpal vitality
b.
Patient’s age
c.
Extent of the carious lesion
d.
Length of the root

A

a.
Preservation of the pulpal vitality

46
Q

46.
It refers to the removal of inorganic ions from tooth structure by a chemical agent, usually by the use of disodium salt of ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA).
a.
Irrigation
b.
Chelation
c.
Etching
d.
Sterilization

A

b.
Chelation

47
Q

47.
All of the of the following are solutions used to dissolve gutta percha, which is not included?
a.
Chloroform
b.
Xylene
c.
Eucalyptus oil
d.
NSS
e.
None of the above

A

d.
NSS

48
Q

48.
This is the most common cause of root canal failure
a.
Using 02 tapered K-files
b.
Leakage from poorly filed canal
c.
Incomplete and inadequate disinfected root canal
d.
Creation of a ledge

A

c.
Incomplete and inadequate disinfected root canal

49
Q

49.
Among the following conditions that will be treated endodontically, which has the poorest prognosis?
a.
Chronic apical abscess with sinus tract
b.
Horizontal root fracture in the apical 3rd
c.
Half-fractured crown
d.
Tooth with vertical root fracture

A

d.
Tooth with vertical root fracture

50
Q

50.
Which of the following regarding acute apical periodontitis is/are accurate?
DMF DENTAL TRAINING CENTER 8
a.
It is limited to the periodontal ligament
b.
It is detectable radiographically
c.
It may heal if induced by a non-infectious agent
d.
All of the above statements are accurate

A

c.
It may heal if induced by a non-infectious agent

51
Q

51.
The chemical agent that possesses “Substantivity”.
a.
NSS
b.
Sodium hypochlorite
c.
Calcium hydroxide
d.
Chlorhexidine

A

d.
Chlorhexidine

52
Q

52.
This is considered as the most complex root in the entire dentition
a.
Mesiobuccal root of maxillary first molars
b.
Mesial root of mandibular first molars
c.
Buccal root of maxillary premolars
d.
Distal root of mandibular first molars

A

a.
Mesiobuccal root of maxillary first molars

53
Q

53.
It refers to the peripheral planing of the entire root canal wall equally during canal preparation.
a.
Apical filing
b.
Master apical filing
c.
Circumferential filing
d.
Biomechanical preparation

A

c.
Circumferential filing

54
Q

54.
This is the bulk of dentin found in the tooth root
a.
Mantle dentin
b.
Circumpulpal dentin
c.
Sclerotic dentin
d.
Reparative dentin

A

b.
Circumpulpal dentin

55
Q

55.
There is a horizontal root fracture in the middle third of the root of tooth #22 in an 11-year-old patient. The tooth is mobile and vital. How should this be treated?
a.
Extract
b.
Pulpectomy immediately and splint
c.
Splint and observe
d.
Do nothing and follow-up in 10 to 14 days

A

d.
Do nothing and follow-up in 10 to 14 days

56
Q

56.
A patient received a large MOD composite restoration 1 week ago. She is now experiencing intense, spontaneous pain, with exacerbation of symptoms occurring when she applies heat or cold or when she eats sweets. The pulpal diagnosis is
a.
Pulp necrosis
b.
Acute periapical periodontitis
c.
Reversible pulpitis
d.
Traumatic occlusion
e.
Irreversible pulpitis

A

e.
Irreversible pulpitis

57
Q

57.
A patient went to your clinic complaining of a painful tooth. The pain is aggravated by cold stimulus and worsens at night. The tooth is very painful to touch or percussion. This is a case of
a.
Reversible pulpitis with acute dental abscess
b.
Irreversible pulpitis with normal periapical tissues
c.
Necrotic pulp with symptomatic apical periodontitis
d.
Irreversible pulpitis with symptomatic apical periodontitis

A

d.
Irreversible pulpitis with symptomatic apical periodontitis

58
Q

58.
A diffuse, localized radiopaque lesion of the bone associated with a low-grade infection
DMF DENTAL TRAINING CENTER 9
a.
Focal sclerosing osteomyelitis
b.
Asymptomatic apical periodontitis
c.
Symptomatic apical periodontitis
d.
Acute apical abscess
e.
Chronic apical abscess

A

a.
Focal sclerosing osteomyelitis

59
Q

59.
An inflammatory reaction to pulpal infection and necrosis characterized by gradual onset, little or no discomfort and the intermittent discharge of pus through an associated sinus tract.
a.
Focal sclerosing osteomyelitis
b.
Asymptomatic apical periodontitis
c.
Symptomatic apical periodontitis
d.
Acute apical abscess
e.
Chronic apical abscess

A

e.
Chronic apical abscess

60
Q

60.
It refers to a technique of canal preparation involving cleaning and shaping of the coronal portion of the canal prior to the apical portion
a.
Step-down preparation
b.
Step back preparation
c.
Vertical preparation
d.
Horizontal technique

A

a.
Step-down preparation

61
Q

61.
A method of canal preparation which involves the use of small, flexible files to prepare the apical 3rd of the canal. This is followed by files sequentially larger than the master apical file at incremental lengths of 0.5mm to 1mm short of working length.
a.
Step-down preparation
b.
Step back preparation
c.
Vertical preparation
d.
Horizontal technique

A

a.
Step-down preparation

62
Q

62.
Histologically, the dental pulp closely resembles which of the following tissues?
a.
Nerve tissue
b.
Loose connective tissue
c.
Vascular tissue
d.
Granulation tissue

A

b.
Loose connective tissue

63
Q

63.
All are characteristics of gutta percha, except one. Which is it?
a.
Ease of manipulation
b.
Low toxicity
c.
Expands when cooled
d.
Good plasticity

A

c.
Expands when cooled

64
Q

64.
This is the primary component of Gutta percha
a.
Gutta percha
b.
Zinc oxide
c.
Waxes
d.
Resins

A

b.
Zinc oxide

65
Q

65.
An unpleasant abnormal sensation, whether spontaneous or evoked. Examples are hyperalgesia and allodynia.
a.
Dysesthesia
b.
Paresthesia
DMF DENTAL TRAINING CENTER 10
c.
Anesthesia
d.
Algesia

A

a.
Dysesthesia

66
Q

66.
This is the primary use of root canal sealers
a.
Creates an air-tight seal in the root canal
b.
Stimulate bone formation in the periapices
c.
Fill the spaces between the gutta percha and wall of the root canal
d.
Stimulate closure of the apical foramen

A

c.
Fill the spaces between the gutta percha and wall of the root canal

67
Q

67.
This is the best way to eliminate microorganisms in the root canal cavity
a.
Antibiotic therapy
b.
Biomechanical preparation and copious irrigation
c.
Placing Calcium Hydroxide medicament
d.
Action of the immune system of the patient

A

b.
Biomechanical preparation and copious irrigation

68
Q

68.
This is the most common cause of vertical root fractures
a.
Traumatic occlusion
b.
Locking temporaries into prepared teeth
c.
Cementing the cast post and core
d.
Permanent cementing crowns
e.
Condensation forces during gutta-percha

A

e.
Condensation forces during gutta-percha

69
Q

69.
This is the best technique to differentiate a radicular cyst from periapical granuloma
a.
Radiographs
b.
Histopathologic exam
c.
Vitality test
d.
Percussion and palpation

A

b.
Histopathologic exam

70
Q

70.
You have initiated root canal therapy on a patient when he suddenly experiences sudden pain during working length determination, begins to hemorrhage, and detects a burning sensation when you attempt to irrigate with sodium hypochlorite. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
a.
Inadequate straight-line access
b.
Root canal contamination
c.
Root perforation
d.
Incomplete canal debridement
e.
Ledging

A

c.
Root perforation

71
Q

71.
All of the following are indications for surgical endodontics, except one
a.
Non-negotiable canal with periapical pathology
b.
Periapical pathosis in a tooth with a post and core retained crown
c.
Sinus tract that persists after repeated endodontic treatment
d.
A completely sealed root canal without periapical pathosis

A

d.
A completely sealed root canal without periapical pathosis

72
Q

72.
It is an obturation technique wherein the clinician uses an instrument that displaces the gutta percha to the root canal walls that provides space for additional gutta percha.
a.
Vertical condensation
b.
Lateral condensation
c.
Sectional technique
d.
Incremental technique

A

b.
Lateral condensation

73
Q

73.
Tooth #45 presents a swelling in the gingiva and a deep class II caries involving the pulp. Probing depths along the circumference of the sulcus is around 4mm to 5mm. There is no gingival recession and mobility. The tooth is negative to vitality testing. Treatment of choice is
a.
Endodontic treatment only
b.
Periodontal treatment only
c.
Endodontic treatment followed by periodontal treatment
d.
Periodontal treatment followed by endodontic treatment
e.
Extraction

A

c.
Endodontic treatment followed by periodontal treatment

74
Q

74.
Which of the following is indicative of a successful vital pulp therapy of a tooth with an open apex?
a.
Asymptomatic tooth
b.
Complete filling of the pulpal cavity
c.
Tooth remains vital
d.
Continuous root development

A

d.
Continuous root development

75
Q

75.
Aging of pulp is associated with an increase in which of the following
a.
Fibers
b.
Cells
c.
Odontoblast
d.
Vascularity

A

a.
Fibers

fmd (14 decks)

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