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1staidMicro (52-100) Flashcards

1
Q

Suppose a 35year-old male patient has been taking
excessive doses of NSAIDs due to odontogenic
pain. The patient is now experiencing extreme
pain of the peritoneum. The patient did note one
bout of hematemesis a few days ago.

  1. Based on the above case presentation, which
    of the following illnesses would you suspect?
    A. Peptic ulcer disease
    B. Duodenal ulcers
    C. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
    D. Hiatal hernia
    E. Inflammatory bowel disease
A

A. Peptic ulcer disease

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is caused
    by backflux of acid and a weak lower
    esophageal sphincter?
    A. Achalasia
    B. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
    C. Hiatal hernia
    D. Intestinal lymphangiectasia
    E. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
A

E. Gastroesophageal reflux disease

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3
Q
  1. Each of the following is characteristic of basal
    cell carcinoma EXCEPT
    A. it is locally aggressive.
    B. it is malignant.
    C. it is the most common skin cancer.
    D. it appears as a pearly papule.
    E. it is the most common form of cancer in
    the United States.
A

B. it is malignant.

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE regarding
    the diagnosis and treatment of basal cell
    carcinoma?
    A. Because it is not malignant, the stage of
    treatment is not vital.
    B. It rarely metastasizes.
    C. It is not disfiguring when left alone.
    D. It presents as neoplastic epidermoid cells.
    E. Surgical excision is rarely effective in
    early stages.
A

B. It rarely metastasizes.

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5
Q

A 9-year-old patient presents to your office for consultation.
The patient begins to sneeze upon your
entrance into the room, and says his chest is tight
and he is wheezing. Not knowing any medical history
about this patient (and having the mother
down the hallway in the restroom), you quickly
contemplate what to do.

  1. Based on the given information, what would
    you suspect this patient is suffering from?
    A. Chronic bronchitis
    B. Emphysema
    C. Asthma
    D. Asbestosis
    E. Anthracosis
A

C. Asthma

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6
Q
  1. Each of the following is true regarding
    chronic bronchitis EXCEPT
    A. it is caused by mucous hypersecretion in
    the bronchi and smaller airways.
    B. symptoms include a productive cough
    and wheezing.
    C. there is a decreased Reid index.
    D. you would expect to find an increased
    PO2.
    E. they are known as “blue bloaters
A

C. there is a decreased Reid index.

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7
Q
  1. Aortic dissection is characterized by all of the
    following EXCEPT
    A. rupture can cause pericardial tamponade.
    B. the carotid artery may become occluded,
    leading to stroke.
    C. it can be life threatening.
    D. blood “dissects” between the intima and
    adventitia of the aorta.
    E. the mitral valve often becomes damaged
A

E. the mitral valve often becomes damaged

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8
Q
  1. A pregnant woman (22 weeks) with diabetes
    and normal blood pressure readings suddenly
    develops frequent readings of 144/92. Which
    of the following complications would you be
    concerned of?
    A. Malignant hypertension.
    B. Aortic aneurysm.
    C. Primary hypertension.
    D. Preeclampsia.
    E. Cardiac tamponade
A

D. Preeclampsia.

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9
Q
  1. Each of the following endocrine disorders can
    contribute to secondary hypertension EXCEPT
    A. Cushing syndrome.
    B. diabetes.
    C. pheochromocytoma.
    D. hypoaldosteronism.
    E. hyperthyroidism.
A

D. hypoaldosteronism.

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following bacteria is implicated
    in the majority of subacute bacterial endocarditis?
    A. Streptococcus viridians
    B. Streptococcus epidermidis
    C. Staphylococcus aureus
    D. Streptococcus sanguis
    E. Streptococcus mutans
A

A. Streptococcus viridians

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11
Q
  1. Regarding different types of endocarditis,
    each of the following are true EXCEPT

A. Libman-Sacks form of endocarditis is
caused by intrinsic bacteremia.
B. dental seeding and intravenous drug use
cause the infective form.
C. the mitral valve is most often affected in
the Libman-Sacks form.
D. the rheumatic form occurs in areas of
greatest hemodynamic stress.
E. the mitral valve is most often affected in
rheumatic form.

A

A. Libman-Sacks form of endocarditis is
caused by intrinsic bacteremia.

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12
Q
  1. The specific accumulation of serious fluid in
    the pericardial space is referred to as
    A. hemopericardium.
    B. acute pericarditis.
    C. constrictive pericarditis.
    D. hydropericardium.
    E. myocarditis
A

D. hydropericardium.

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13
Q
  1. Consider a patient who is unaware of the cardiac
    condition he is suffering from. You note
    splinter hemorrhages under his finger nails.
    What is this clinical sign indicative of?
    A. Cardiac tamponade
    B. Endocarditis
    C. Primary hypertension
    D. Coronary artery disease
    E. Angina
A

B. Endocarditis

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following is FALSE regarding
    antigenicity?
    A. Most antigens are proteins.
    B. Haptens illicit immune response on their
    own.
    C. Adjuvants enhance the immune response
    to antigen.
    D. The binding site for an antigen is an
    epitope.
    E. They induce an immune response by
    binding to antibody
A

B. Haptens illicit immune response on their
own.

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15
Q
  1. With regard to immune defense, macrophages
    A. are formed within the thymus.
    B. lack the ability to produce cytokines.
    C. present antigen via class II MHC.
    D. lack the ability to phagocytose within
    connective tissue.
    E. cannot be activated by bacterial
    components
A

C. present antigen via class II MHC.

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16
Q
  1. An important defense of the body against parasitic
    infection is mediated by
    A. eosinophils.
    B. basophils.
    C. mast cells.
    D. PMNs.
    E. dendritic cells.
A

A. eosinophils.

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17
Q
  1. Each of the following is an antigen presenting
    cell EXCEPT
    A. monocytes.
    B. B cells.
    C. macrophages.
    D. Langerhans cells.
    E. PMNs
A

E. PMNs

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18
Q

A 3-year-old patient presents to your pediatric dental
practice with an emergency of odontogenic origin.
Clinically, you notice deformation of his ear
and lip. The mother mentions that he was born
with a syndrome that also affects his immune system,
but cannot remember the name.

  1. Which of the following disorders do you
    believe this child has?
    A. Common variable immunodeficiency
    B. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
    C. SCID
    D. Bruton X-linked agammaglobulinemia
    E. DiGeorge syndrome
A

E. DiGeorge syndrome

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19
Q
  1. Each of the following presents with a defect
    in B cell function EXCEPT
    A. Bruton X-linked agammaglobulinemia.
    B. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome.
    C. isolated IgA deficiency.
    D. Job syndrome.
    E. ataxia telangiectasia.
A

D. Job syndrome.

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20
Q
  1. Each of the following is seen with DiGeorge
    syndrome EXCEPT
    A. hypercalcemia.
    B. thymic hypoplasia.
    C. microdeletion of chromosome 22.
    D. palatal clefting
A

A. hypercalcemia.

21
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE of a type IV
    hypersensitivity reaction?
    A. It is mediated by B cells.
    B. It is an immediate response.
    C. It involves the binding of class II MHC to
    a TCR.
    D. An example of this reaction is seen with
    hemolytic anemia.
    E. An example of this reaction is seen with
    atopic allergy.
A

C. It involves the binding of class II MHC to
a TCR.

22
Q
  1. Which of the following types of graft is from
    genetically different individuals of the same
    species?
    A. Xenograft
    B. Allograft
    C. Autograft
    D. Isograft
    E. None of the above
A

B. Allograft

23
Q
  1. The antibody which can cross the placenta is
    A. IgA.
    B. IgG.
    C. IgD.
    D. IgE.
    E. IgM.
A

B. IgG.

24
Q
  1. Immunoglobulin A is secreted via exocrine
    glands and
    A. mediates type I hypersensitivity.
    B. activates complement.
    C. its response is uncertain.
    D. is the main antimicrobial defense of the
    primary response.
    E. prevents mucosal membrane attachment
    of microbes
A

E. prevents mucosal membrane attachment
of microbes

25
Q
  1. Each of the following is true of an antibody’s
    general structure EXCEPT
    A. activation of complement via the alternative
    pathway.
    B. its Fab regions determine the idiotype.
    C. its Fc regions determine the isotype.
    D. the constant regions bind APC or C3b.
    E. the variable regions bind specific antigen.
A

A. activation of complement via the alternative
pathway.

26
Q
  1. Trisomy 18 is seen in which of the following
    syndromes?
    A. Patau
    B. Klinefelter
    C. Down
    D. Turner
    E. Edward
A

E. Edward

27
Q
  1. Regarding pathological development, which
    of the following is NOT teratogenic?
    A. Cytomegalovirus
    B. Rubella
    C. Toxoplasmosis
    D. Herpes simplex virus
    E. Influenza
A

E. Influenza

28
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE of impetigo?
    A. Noncontagious
    B. Primarily affects the elderly
    C. Caused by Staphylococcus aureus or
    Streptococcus pyogenes
    D. Invades deep into the skin structure
    E. Very low cure rate
A

C. Caused by Staphylococcus aureus or
Streptococcus pyogenes

29
Q
  1. Each of the following is commonly found in
    patients afflicted with cystic fibrosis EXCEPT
    A. malfunction of the Cl− transporter.
    B. meconium ileus.
    C. pathology of chromosome 9.
    D. pancreatic exocrine insufficiency.
    E. bronchiectasis.
A

C. pathology of chromosome 9.

30
Q
  1. Suppose a patient presents with café au lait
    spots, which of the following is NOT commonly
    associated with this clinical finding?
    A. Neurofibromatosis (type 1)
    B. Tuberous sclerosis
    C. Fanconi anemia
    D. McCune-Albright syndrome
    E. Vitiligo
A

E. Vitiligo

31
Q
  1. What type of thrombus typically forms after a
    myocardial infarct or from atrial fibrillation?
    A. Mural
    B. Agonal
    C. Red
    D. White
    E. Fibrin
A

A. Mural

32
Q
  1. Each of the following is a characteristic of the
    nonprogressive/early stage of shock EXCEPT
    A. it is considered compensated.
    B. the body is maintaining perfusion to vital
    organs.
    C. increased total peripheral resistance.
    D. metabolic acidosis.
    E. increase in sympathetic nervous output.
A

D. metabolic acidosis.

33
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE of septic
    shock?
    A. Causes vasodilation.
    B. Due to exotoxin release.
    C. Caused by gram-positive bacteria.
    D. Caused by injury to the CNS.
    E. It is a type I hypersensitivity reaction.
A

A. Causes vasodilation.

34
Q
  1. If a patient is stricken with Caisson disease,
    one would expect to find
    A. solid mass occluding a vessel.
    B. fatty emboli from a broken bone.
    C. air embolizing within the circulation.
    D. a blood clot.
    E. emboli caused by amniotic fluid
A

C. air embolizing within the circulation.

35
Q
  1. Each of the following is true regarding hyperemia
    EXCEPT
    A. increased arteriolar dilation in active
    hyperemia.
    B. chronic passive hyperemia of the liver is
    caused directly by left-sided heart failure.
    C. passive hyperemia causes a decrease in
    venous return.
    D. inflammation and blushing is a clinical
    finding of active hyperemia.
    E. obstruction and increased back pressure is
    a clinical finding of chronic hyperemia.
A

B. chronic passive hyperemia of the liver is
caused directly by left-sided heart failure.

36
Q
  1. A dietary deficiency of vitamin B12 causes
    which of the following?
    A. Aplastic anemia
    B. Sickle cell anemia
    C. Pernicious anemia
    D. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
    E. Folate deficiency anemia
A

C. Pernicious anemia

37
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE of polycythemia?
    A. True polycythemia has a decrease in RBC
    mass and decrease in total blood volume.
    B. Primary polycythemia has no genetic
    predisposition.
    C. Spurious polycythemia (Gaisböck syndrome)
    is a form of relative polycythemia.
    D. In secondary polycythemia, erythropoietin
    levels are decreased.
    E. In primary polycythemia, erythropoietin
    levels are increased
A

C. Spurious polycythemia (Gaisböck syndrome)

38
Q
  1. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is characterized
    by all of the following EXCEPT
    A. sensitized kidney tubules to ADH.
    B. a genetic (sex-linked) predilection to men.
    C. normal ADH production and secretion.
    D. large volumes of dilute urine are
    produced.
    E. can be caused by lithium.
A
39
Q

A 59-year-old female presents to your office for root
canal therapy for tooth No. 9. She mentions that
an experience of increased thirst, blurred vision,
and frequent urination. You take a fingerstick and
note that her blood glucose level is 180 mg/dL.

  1. Which of the following diseases do you suspect
    this patient has?
    A. Hyperthyroidism
    B. Type II diabetes mellitus
    C. Hypothyroidism
    D. Addison disease
    E. Type I diabetes mellitus
A

B. Type II diabetes mellitus

40
Q
  1. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
    A. sensitized kidney tubules to ADH.
    B. a genetic (sex-linked) predilection to men.
    C. normal ADH production and secretion.
    D. large volumes of dilute urine are
    produced.
    E. can be caused by lithium.
A

A. sensitized kidney tubules to ADH.

41
Q
  1. Each of the following have different values in
    type I diabetes mellitus and type II diabetes
    mellitus EXCEPT
    A. symptoms.
    B. cause.
    C. genetic predisposition.
    D. treatment.
    E. age of onset.
A

A. symptoms.

42
Q
  1. Hyperglycemia is characterized by blood glucose
    levels greater than
    A. 100 mg/dL.
    B. 90 mg/dL.
    C. 125 mg/dL.
    D. 75 mg/dL.
    E. 50 mg/dL.
A

C. 125 mg/dL.

43
Q
  1. Each of the following is true of ketoacidosis
    EXCEPT
    A. it is caused by starvation or severe insulin
    deficiency.
    B. it is most common in type II diabetes.
    C. it is caused by an accumulation of ketone
    bodies.
    D. it is acetoacetic acid and betahydroxybutyric
    acid are synthesized from
    free fatty acids.
    E. it can be life threatening
A

B. it is most common in type II diabetes.

44
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the
    term glycosylated hemoglobin?
    A. Value used to assess the short-term control
    of diabetes.
    B. Reversible glycosylation of specific hemoglobin
    molecules
    C. Accurately measures glucose levels over
    the past 2-3 days.
    D. Normal levels range from 4%-7%.
    E. The reaction is based on enzymatic
    glycosylation
A

D. Normal levels range from 4%-7%.

45
Q
  1. Bence-Jones proteins are found in the urine
    of patients stricken with which of the following
    illnesses?
    A. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
    B. Burkitt lymphoma
    C. Multiple myeloma
    D. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
    E. Acute myelogenous leukemia
A

C. Multiple myeloma

46
Q
  1. Each of the following findings is consistent
    with multiple myeloma EXCEPT
    A. increased platelet count.
    B. decreased white blood cell count.
    C. decreased red blood cell count.
    D. increased plasma cell count.
    E. increase in osteolytic lesions.
A

A. increased platelet count.

47
Q
  1. Which of the following illnesses can directly
    lead to development of type II diabetes?
    A. Amyloidosis
    B. Pheochromocytoma
    C. Small cell carcinoma
    D. Neuroblastoma
    E. Rheumatoid arthritis
A

A. Amyloidosis

48
Q
  1. Each of the following is a characteristic of an
    eosinophilic granuloma EXCEPT
    A. it is benign and common in males in the
    3rd decade of life.
    B. the maxilla is most commonly affected.
    C. mobile teeth and periodontal inflammation
    are symptoms.
    D. it is typically asymptomatic.
    E. it is caused by abnormal histiocytes
A

B. the maxilla is most commonly affected.

49
Q
  1. Each of the following illnesses is a histiocytosis
    X disease EXCEPT
    A. Letterer-Siwe disease.
    B. Hand-Schüller-Christian disease.
    C. Haberman disease.
    D. eosinophilic granuloma.
    E. none of the above.
A

C. Haberman disease.

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