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1stAIDanasci1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Damage to the lateral and medial cords of
    the brachial plexus would result in altered
    motor movements to each of the following
    muscles EXCEPT
    A. interosseus muscles.
    B. thenar muscles.
    C. extensor carpi ulnaris.
    D. flexor carpi ulnaris.
    E. flexor carpi radialis
A

C. extensor carpi ulnaris.

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2
Q
  1. Traumatic dislocation of the clavicle at the
    sternoclavicular joint, in a posterior direction,
    can cause compromise to all of the following
    structures EXCEPT
    A. subclavian artery.
    B. brachial plexus.
    C. trachea.
    D. subclavian vein.
    E. all of the above
A

E. all of the above

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3
Q
  1. The cervical plexus can also be damaged
    with injury to the cervical spine. Motor
    innervation to each of the following muscles
    would be affected by damage to the cervical
    plexus EXCEPT
    A. sternohyoid.
    B. stylohyoid.
    C. omohyoid.
    D. sternothyroid.
    E. none of the above
A

B. stylohyoid.

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4
Q

Suppose a lesion compromises the lower
motor neuron of CN VII, occurring proximal
to the greater petrosal nerve and chorda tympani.
All of the following clinical signs will be
shown EXCEPT
A. ipsilateral weakness to musculature of
facial expression.
B. diminished taste sensation to the posterior
1/3 of the tongue.
C. ipsilateral dryness of eye due to lost function
of lacrimal gland.
D. compromised function of sublingual and
submandibular glands.
E. hyperacusis in ipsilateral ear.

A

B. diminished taste sensation to the posterior
1/3 of the tongue.

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5
Q
  1. A lesion to the upper motor neuron of CN
    VII would cause which of the following?
    A. Partial facial muscle paralysis on the ipsilateral
    side of the lesion to the lower face
    only
    B. Total facial muscle paralysis on the ipsilateral
    side of the lesion to the upper and
    lower face
    C. Partial facial muscle paralysis on the contralateral
    side of the lesion to the lower
    face only
    D. Total facial muscle paralysis of the contralateral
    side of the lesion to the upper
    and lower face
A

C. Partial facial muscle paralysis on the contralateral
side of the lesion to the lower
face only

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6
Q
  1. Which branchial arch has its derivatives
    innervated by CN VII?
    A. I
    B. II
    C. III
    D. IV
A

B. II

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7
Q
  1. The common facial vein receives drainage
    from each of the following veins EXCEPT
    A. maxillary vein.
    B. anterior retromandibular vein.
    QUESTIONS
    Anatomic Sciences
    dr_harithali@yahoo.com
    Questions: 1-14 3
    C. retromandibular vein.
    D. anterior facial vein.
    E. internal jugular vein.
A

E. internal jugular vein.

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8
Q
  1. All of the following statements regarding blood
    and associated vasculature is true EXCEPT
    A. approximately 45% of the blood is composed
    of formed elements/cellular
    material.
    B. blood plasma lacking fibrinogen and clotting
    factors is considered serum.
    C. the tunica adventitia of blood vessel walls
    is the most internal layer, endothelial in
    nature, and is composed of simple squamous
    epithelium.
    D. sinusoids are fenestrated capillaries which
    allow the passage of phagocytic cells.
    E. individuals with type O blood contain
    erythrocytes which lack A and B antigens,
    and are, thus, considered universal donors
A

C. the tunica adventitia of blood vessel walls
is the most internal layer, endothelial in
nature, and is composed of simple squamous
epithelium.

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9
Q

A 29-year-old female presents to the ED status post
blunt trauma to the back of the head. The patient
complains of severe head pain, and is sent for
imaging. MRI shows bleeding within the cranium,
and CT shows fractures of the skull

  1. Which of the following vessels is involved in
    an epidural hematoma?
    A. Anterior communicating artery
    B. Posterior cerebral artery
    C. Anterior cerebral artery
    D. Posterior communicating artery
    E. Middle meningeal artery
A

E. Middle meningeal artery

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10
Q
  1. All of the following structures are located
    within the posterior cranial fossa EXCEPT
    A. occipital lobes.
    B. jugular foramen.
    C. cerebellum.
    D. hypoglossal canal.
    E. optic foramen
A

E. optic foramen

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following cranial nuclei of the
    thalamus are involved with mediating facial
    sensation and pain?
    A. Ventral posterior medial nuclei (VPM)
    B. Ventral anterior nucleus
    C. Lateral geniculate nucleus
    D. Ventral posterior lateral nuclei (VPL)
    E. Ventral lateral nucleus
A

A. Ventral posterior medial nuclei (VPM)

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12
Q
  1. All of the following are brainstem nuclei
    involved with cranial nerve function
    EXCEPT
    A. superior salivatory nucleus.
    B. nucleus ambiguus.
    C. nucleus of the solitary tract.
    D. ventromedial nucleus.
    E. inferior salivatory nucleus.
A

D. ventromedial nucleus.

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13
Q
  1. The tricuspid valve can be auscultated at
    which of the following anatomic locations?
    A. Level of the 5th intercostal space, at the
    midclavicular line
    B. Level of the 2nd intercostal space, at the
    right sternal border
    C. Level of the 2nd intercostal space, at the
    left sternal border
    D. Level of the 5th intercostal space, left of
    the sternal border
    E. None of the above
A

D. Level of the 5th intercostal space, left of
the sternal border

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14
Q
  1. Occlusion of which of the following arteries
    would most directly cause ischemia in the lateral
    wall of the left ventricle?
    A. Left circumflex
    B. Right coronary
    C. Left anterior descending
    D. Acute marginal
    E. Posterior descending
A

A. Left circumflex

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following areas of the mediastinum
    contains the vagus nerve?
    A. Superior
    B. Posterior
    C. Anterior
    D. Middle
    E. None of the above
A

B. Posterior

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16
Q
  1. Regarding the fetal circulation, oxygenated
    blood bypasses the pulmonary circulation by
    way of which communication?
    A. Left atrium to left ventricle
    B. Left atrium to right atrium
    C. Right atrium to right ventricle
    D. Right atrium to left atrium
    E. Left atrium to left ventricle
A

D. Right atrium to left atrium

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following structures of the adult
    heart is a remnant of the foramen ovale in
    the fetal heart?
    A. Crista terminalis
    B. Fossa ovalis
    C. Sulcus terminalis
    D. Right auricle
    E. Atrial appendage
A

B. Fossa ovalis

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18
Q
  1. Regarding the fetal circulation, which of the
    following vasculature serves as a conduit
    between the aorta and pulmonary artery?
    A. Ductus venosus
    B. Umbilical arteries
    C. Ductus arteriosus
    D. Portal vein
    E. Umbilical vein
A

C. Ductus arteriosus

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following germ layer derivatives
    comprise the epithelial lining of the cardiovascular
    system?
    A. Mesoderm
    B. Endoderm
    C. Ectoderm
    D. All of the above
    E. None of the above
A

A. Mesoderm

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20
Q
  1. Which TWO of the following embryonic
    structures combine to form the superior vena
    cava?
  2. Bulbus cordis
  3. Right common cardinal vein
  4. Truncus arteriosus
  5. Right anterior cardinal vein
  6. Right horn of sinus venosus
    A. 1 and 2
    B. 2 and 3
    C. 4 and 5
    D. 2 and 4
    E. None of the above
A

B. 2 and 3
2. Right common cardinal vein
4. Right anterior cardinal vein

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21
Q
  1. Which TWO of the following embryonic
    structures cause an atrial septal defect if they
    fail to completely fuse?
  2. Ostium secundum
  3. Ostium primum
  4. Septum primum
  5. Septum secundum
  6. Septum spurium
    A. 1 and 2
    B. 2 and 3
    C. 2 and 4
    D. 3 and 4
    E. 3 and 5
A

D. 3 and 4
3. Septum primum
4. Septum secundum

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following is a derivative of the
    4th aortic arch?
    A. Hyoid artery
    B. Stapedial artery
    C. Right subclavian artery
    D. Common carotid artery
    E. Pulmonary arteries
A

C. Right subclavian artery

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23
Q
  1. All of the following structures form the boundary
    known as the femoral triangle EXCEPT
    A. sartorius muscle.
    B. inguinal ligament.
    C. adductor longus muscle.
    D. cremaster muscle.
    E. pectineus muscle.
A

D. cremaster muscle.

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding
    musculature of the abdomen is FALSE?
    Anatomic Sciences
    dr_harithali@yahoo.com
    Questions: 15-29 5
    A. The external oblique muscle contracts to
    increase abdominal pressure.
    B. The internal oblique muscle is innervated
    by the lower intercostal, iliohypogastric,
    and ilioinguinal nerves.
    C. The external oblique muscle is innervated
    only by the lower intercostal nerves.
    D. The transverse muscle contracts to flex
    the vertebral column.
    E. The rectus abdominis muscle originates
    at the pubic symphysis and inserts into
    the xiphoid process, as well as costal
    cartilages 5-7.
A

D. The transverse muscle contracts to flex
the vertebral column.

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25
Q
  1. Regarding connective tissue attachments,
    which of the following statements is TRUE?
    A. Tendons form attachments between bone
    and bone.
    B. Aponeuroses are merely sheetlike layers of
    tendon.
    C. Nearly all connective tissue is of neural
    crest origin, with head and neck regions
    of connective tissue being of mesodermal
    origin.
    D. Ligaments form attachments between
    muscle and bone.
    E. None of the above are correct.
A

B. Aponeuroses are merely sheetlike layers of
tendon.

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26
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding
    the thoracic region is FALSE?

A. The neurovascular bundles of the intercostal
spaces run along the costal groove
at the superior surface of each rib.

B. Musculature of respiration includes the
intercostal muscles, diaphragm, and
accessory muscles.

C. The costal groove of each rib protects the
nerve (of the neurovascular bundle) the
least when injury occurs.

D. The rib cage contains 12 ribs: ribs I-VI
are true, VII-X are false, and XI-XII are
floating.
E. Fracture of the left 10th an

A

A. The neurovascular bundles of the intercostal
spaces run along the costal groove
at the superior surface of each rib.

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27
Q
  1. All of the following questions pertaining to
    the diaphragm are correct EXCEPT

A. blood supply to the diaphragm is via the
musculophrenic artery.
B. the aorta passes through two crura when
passing through the aortic opening.
C. the caval opening allows passage of the
superior vena cava.
D. during the act of inspiration, the
diaphragm contracts, thus, flattening out
and creating a negative intrathoracic
pressure.
E. innervation to the diaphragm is via the
phrenic nerve (C3, C4, C5).

A

C. the caval opening allows passage of the
superior vena cava.

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28
Q
  1. Relative to the thymus, which of the following
    statements is FALSE?
    A. Growth continues and peaks at puberty,
    and then atrophies and is replaced by
    adipose tissue.
    B. Lymphatic circulation returns via afferent
    vessels so that lymph may be filtered.
    C. It is the site of T-cell maturation.
    D. Thymic corpuscles/epithelioreticular cells
    are contained within the inner medulla.
    E. The outer cortex holds the largest concentration
    of lymphocytes
A

B. Lymphatic circulation returns via afferent
vessels so that lymph may be filtered.

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29
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is TRUE
    regarding vision and optic nerve fibers?
    A. Left medial/nasal fibers decussate and
    cross over at the optic chiasm en route
    to the right primary visual cortex of the
    occipital lobe.
    B. Left medial/nasal fibers decussate and stay
    ipsilateral at the optic chiasma en route to
    the left primary visual cortex of the occipital
    lobe.
    C. Left lateral/temporal fibers decussate and
    cross over at the optic chiasma en route to
    the right primary visual cortex of the temporal
    lobe.
    D. Right lateral/temporal fibers decussate
    and stay ipsilateral at the optic chiasma
    en route to the right primary visual cortex
    of the temporal lobe.
A

A. Left medial/nasal fibers decussate and
cross over at the optic chiasm en route
to the right primary visual cortex of the
occipital lobe

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30
Q
  1. Which of the following extraocular muscles is
    innervated by abducens nerve?
    A. Superior oblique muscle
    B. Medial rectus muscle
    C. Inferior rectus muscle
    D. Lateral rectus muscle
    E. Superior rectus muscle
A

D. Lateral rectus muscle

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31
Q
  1. Regarding the pupillary light reflex, which of
    the following is TRUE?
    A. When shining light onto the left eye, the
    direct response elicits ipsilateral afferent
    firing via CN III and subsequent ipsilateral
    efferent firing via CN III to left eye.
    B. When shining light onto the left eye, the
    consensual response elicits ipsilateral
    afferent firing via CN II and subsequent
    contralateral efferent firing via CN III to
    right eye.
    C. When shining light onto the left eye, the
    consensual response elicits ipsilateral
    afferent firing via CN III and subsequent
    contralateral efferent firing via CN III to
    right eye.
    D. When shining light onto the right eye, the
    direct response elicits contralateral afferent
    firing via CN II and subsequent contralateral
    efferent firing via CN III to left
    eye
A

B. When shining light onto the left eye, the
consensual response elicits ipsilateral
afferent firing via CN II and subsequent
contralateral efferent firing via CN III to
right eye.

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32
Q
  1. In order to test for patency of the trochlear
    nerve, one would shine a light source directed
    at the pupil, and have patient follow it in
    what direction?
    A. Superiorly
    B. Superiorly and medially
    C. Inferiorly
    D. Laterally
    E. Inferiorly and laterally
A

E. Inferiorly and laterally

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33
Q
  1. Which of the following lesions involving
    vision occurring in patients with syphilis and
    diabetes allows the eye to accommodate but
    causes a loss of miosis function?
    A. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia
    B. Ophthalmoplegia
    C. Marcus-Gunn/relative afferent pupil
    D. Argyll Robertson/pupillary light-near dissociation
    pupil
    E. Horner syndrome
A

D. Argyll Robertson/pupillary light-near dissociation
pupil

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34
Q
  1. All of the following blood vessels comprise
    the circle of Willis EXCEPT
    A. middle cerebral artery.
    B. posterior cerebral artery.
    C. internal carotid artery.
    D. posterior communicating artery.
    E. anterior communicating artery.
A

A. middle cerebral artery.

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35
Q
  1. Which of the following small, thin-walled
    vessels can rupture and, thus, are commonly
    involved in stroke?
    A. Left anterior cerebral
    B. Right posterior cerebral
    C. Lenticulostriate
    D. Left vertebral
    E. Left internal carotid
A

C. Lenticulostriate

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36
Q
  1. If damaged, all of the following bony structures
    would directly alter movement of the
    tongue EXCEPT
    A. genial tubercles.
    B. hamulus.
    C. hyoid bone.
    D. styloid process.
    E. none of the above
A

B. hamulus.

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37
Q
  1. Which of the following portions of the lung
    contain the lingula?
    A. Middle lobe of right lung
    B. Superior lobe of right lung
    C. Superior lobe of left lung
    D. Inferior lobe of left lung
    E. Inferior lobe of right lung
A

C. Superior lobe of left lung

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38
Q
  1. Which of the following wraps around the ligamentum
    arteriosum?
    A. Right recurrent laryngeal nerve
    B. Left brachiocephalic vein
    C. Right subclavian vein
    D. Superior laryngeal nerve
    E. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
A

E. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve

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39
Q
  1. Each of the following statements concerning
    the foramen magnum are true EXCEPT
    A. it is located in the occipital bone.
    B. it allows passage of the medulla
    oblongata/spinal cord.
    C. it allows passage of the spinal accessory
    nerve.
    D. it is located in the parietal bone.
    E. it allows passage of the vertebral arteries
A

D. it is located in the parietal bone.

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40
Q
  1. The articulating surface of the mandibular
    condyle is covered with
    A. dense fibrocartilage.
    B. loose connective tissue.
    C. elastic cartilage.
    D. hyaline cartilage.
    E. none of the above
A

A. dense fibrocartilage.

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41
Q
  1. The articulating disc of the temporomandibular
    joint attaches to the condyle via
    A. stylomandibular ligament.
    B. collateral ligaments.
    C. temporomandibular ligament.
    D. sphenomandibular ligament.
    E. none of the above.
A

B. collateral ligaments.

42
Q
  1. Which of the following directions does the
    articulating disc of the temporomandibular
    joint most often displace?
    A. Anteromedially
    B. Laterally
    C. Inferiorly
    D. Superiorly
    E. Posteromedially
A

A. Anteromedially

43
Q
  1. The pituitary gland is seated superiorly on
    which sinus?
    A. Frontal
    B. Maxillary
    C. Anterior ethmoid
    D. Posterior ethmoid
    E. Sphenoid
A

E. Sphenoid

44
Q
  1. If the patient is complaining of altered taste
    sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, as
    well as generalized paresthesia to the left lateral
    tongue, which of the following structures may
    have been compromised by the extraction?
    A. Buccal nerve
    B. Lingual nerve
    C. Middle superior alveolar nerve
    D. Hypoglossal nerve
    E. Inferior alveolar nerve
A

B. Lingual nerve

45
Q
  1. Prior to the extraction, if an infection had
    formed at the root apices of tooth No. 17,
    which fascial plane would the infection most
    likely travel within?
    A. Sublingual
    B. Parapharyngeal
    C. Masticator
    D. Submandibular
    E. Parotid
A

D. Submandibular

46
Q
  1. Emergency management of a patient with airway
    obstruction/compromise may involve a
    cricothyrotomy. During this procedure, an
    airway is established by incising between the

A. hyoid bone and thyroid cartilage.
B. cartilaginous rings of trachea.
C. thyroid cartilage and cricoid cartilage.
D. thyroid gland.
E. left 3rd and 4th intercostal muscles,
laterally.

A

C. thyroid cartilage and cricoid cartilage.

47
Q
  1. When performing an inferior alveolar nerve
    block, the needle is accidentally directed too
    far posteriorly. Which of the following structures
    will be penetrated?
    A. Buccinator
    B. Lateral pterygoid
    C. Medial pterygoid
    D. Mylohyoid
    E. Parotid gland
A

E. Parotid gland

48
Q
  1. Which of the following structures converge to
    form the pterygomandibular raphe?
    A. Superior pharyngeal constrictor and
    mylohyoid
    B. Medial pterygoid and mylohyoid
    C. Buccinator and superior pharyngeal
    constrictor
    D. Buccinator and mylohyoid
    E. Medial pterygoid and superior pharyngeal
    constrictor
A

C. Buccinator and superior pharyngeal
constrictor

49
Q
  1. Due to large pocket depths surrounding the
    mandibular right molars, anesthesia of this
    quadrant is necessary to adequately scale and
    plane the roots. In order to locate area where
    anesthesia is distributed for inferior alveolar
    nerve block, you palpate which structure?
    A. Lingula
    B. Coronoid notch
    C. Antilingula
    D. Angle of the mandible
    E. External oblique ridge of the mandible
A

B. Coronoid notch

50
Q
  1. As is the case with periodontal disease, periodontal
    attachment loss is evident. Which of
    the following principal collagen fibers of the
    PDL course at right angles from the cementum
    to adjacent alveolar bone?
    A. Horizontal
    B. Apical
    C. Interradicular
    D. Transseptal
    E. Oblique
A

A. Horizontal

51
Q
  1. Principal collagen fibers of the PDL are comprised
    of which of the following type(s) of
    collagen?
    A. Type I only
    B. Type II only
    C. Type III only
    D. Type I and III
    E. Type II and III
A

D. Type I and III

52
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most abundant
    cell of a healthy periodontal ligament?
    A. Lymphocytes
    B. Neutrophils
    C. Osteoblasts
    D. Cementoblasts
    E. Fibroblasts
A

E. Fibroblasts

53
Q
  1. All of the following vessels contribute to
    Kisselbach plexus EXCEPT
    A. lesser palatine artery.
    B. sphenopalatine artery.
    C. lateral nasal branches of facial artery.
    D. superior labial artery.
    E. anterior ethmoid arteries of internal
    carotid artery
A

A. lesser palatine artery.

54
Q
  1. Each of the following bones are part of the
    orbit EXCEPT
    A. frontal.
    B. zygoma.
    C. ethmoid.
    D. lacrimal.
    E. temporal
A

E. temporal

55
Q
  1. Which of the following arteries is the MAJOR
    blood supply to the orbit and eye?
    A. Facial
    B. Ophthalmic
    C. Maxillary
    D. Transverse facial
    E. Infraorbital
A

B. Ophthalmic

56
Q
  1. Which of the following muscles has its origin
    on the zygomatic process of maxilla (superficially)
    and zygomatic arch (deep)?

A. Lateral pterygoid
B. Temporalis
C. Buccinator
D. Masseter
E. Medial pterygoid

A

D. Masseter

57
Q
  1. The superior orbital fissure is located
    between which of the following bones?
    A. Lesser wing of sphenoid and frontal.
    B. Ethmoid and maxilla.
    C. Greater wing of sphenoid and maxilla.
    D. Greater wing of sphenoid and lesser wing
    of sphenoid.
    E. Lesser wing of sphenoid and ethmoid.
A

C. Greater wing of sphenoid and maxilla.

58
Q
  1. All of the following are TRUE regarding the
    nasolacrimal apparatus EXCEPT
    A. the nasolacrimal duct empties into the
    superior meatus.
    B. relative to the orbit, the nasolacrimal
    apparatus is located superolaterally.
    C. tears wash across the globe in a
    superolateral → inferomedial direction.
    D. the lacrimal puncta collects tears and
    then drains directly into the lacrimal
    canals.
    E. the lacrimal sac drains directly into the
    nasolacrimal duct.
A

C. tears wash across the globe in a
superolateral → inferomedial direction.

59
Q
  1. Each of the following is TRUE regarding the
    lacrimal gland EXCEPT
    A. it receives postganglionic parasympathetic
    fibers via the lacrimal nerve.
    B. preganglionic fibers synapse at the pterygopalatine
    ganglion.
    C. preganglionic fibers to the lacrimal gland
    are carried via greater petrosal nerve.
    D. the lacrimal gland is mucous secreting.
    E. the superior salivatory nucleus sends preganglionic
    fibers to the lacrimal gland
A

E. the superior salivatory nucleus sends preganglionic
fibers to the lacrimal gland

60
Q
  1. The platysma is innervated by which of the
    following nerves?
    A. Trigeminal
    B. Facial
    C. Glossopharyngeal
    D. Spinal accessory
    E. Vagus
A

D. Spinal accessory

61
Q
  1. Which layer of fascia contains lymphatic vessels
    within the neck?
    A. Pretracheal
    B. Prevertebral
    C. Subcutaneous
    D. Investing
    E. None of the above
A

D. Investing

62
Q
  1. Which of the following ligaments connects
    the liver to the anterior abdominal wall?
    A. Falciform
    B. Gastrocolic
    C. Hepatoduodenal
    D. Gastroduodenal
    E. Gastrohepatic
A

A. Falciform

63
Q
  1. Which of the following describes the teniae
    coli of the digestive tract?
    A. Fatty globules on the serosal surface
    of the colon
    B. Lymphoid tissue of the cecum
    C. Formed pouches within the colon
    D. Villous-like projections involved with
    absorption
    E. Smooth muscle bands of the colon
A

A. Fatty globules on the serosal surface
of the colon

64
Q
  1. Coordination of muscle movement, as well as
    maintenance of equilibrium and posture, are
    controlled by which structure of the brain?
    A. Medulla
    B. Pons
    C. Cerebrum
    D. Thalamus
    E. Cerebellum
A

E. Cerebellum

65
Q
  1. Which of the following types of cartilage has
    the ability to calcify?
    A. Fibrocartilage
    B. Hyaline
    C. Elastic
    D. Elastic and hyaline
    E. Hyaline and fibrocartilage
A

B. Hyaline

66
Q
  1. The one-cell thick layer of osteoprogenitor
    cells on the inner surface of bone is
    A. endosteum.
    B. haversian canal.
    C. Volkmann canal.
    D. lacuna.
    E. periosteum
A

A. endosteum.

67
Q
  1. Which of the following is a type of syndesmosis?
    A. Tooth in socket.
    B. Cranial sutures.
    C. Temporomandibular joint.
    D. Epiphyseal plate of long bones.
    E. Connection between radius and ulna
A

E. Connection between radius and ulna

68
Q
  1. All of the following statements regarding the
    blood are true EXCEPT
    A. the majority of blood is plasma, which
    makes up 55% of the total.
    B. albumin regulates the vascular oncotic
    pressure.
    C. hematocrit measures the portion of
    proteins in a blood sample.
    D. blood comprises 8% of the total body
    weight.
    E. plasma is made up of 80% water.
A

C. hematocrit measures the portion of
proteins in a blood sample.

69
Q
  1. Which of the following is a granulocyte?
    A. T cell.
    B. Macrophage.
    C. Platelet.
    D. Neutrophil.
    E. B cell
A

D. Neutrophil.

70
Q
  1. Each of the following zones of the adrenal
    gland is of mesodermal origin EXCEPT
    A. zona fasciculate.
    B. chromaffin cells.
    C. zona glomerulosa.
    D. zona reticularis.
    E. none of the above.
A

B. chromaffin cells.

71
Q
  1. Which of the following pharyngeal muscles
    shortens the velum?
    A. Muscularis uvula
    B. Palatopharyngeus
    C. Palatoglossal
    D. Levator veli palatini
    E. Tensor veli palatine
A

A. Muscularis uvula

72
Q
  1. Which of the following nuclei is the primary
    controller of swallowing?
    A. Superior salivatory
    B. Nucleus ambiguus
    C. Inferior salivatory
    D. Facial nucleus
    E. Nucleus of the solitary tract
A

B. Nucleus ambiguus

73
Q
  1. The pharyngeal plexus is comprised of which
    of the following combination of nerves?
    A. CN V, IX, X
    B. CN IX, X, XII
    C. CN IX, X, XI
    D. CN V, VII, IX
    E. CN V, IX, X
A

C. CN IX, X, XI

74
Q
  1. Which of the following nerves innervates the
    stapedius muscle of the middle ear?
    A. CN V-1
    B. CN V-2
    C. CN VII
    D. CN V-3
    E. CN VIII
A

C. CN VII

75
Q
  1. Relative to the oral cavity, which of the layers
    of mucosa interdigitates with rete pegs?
    A. Stratum granulosum
    B. Papillary layer of lamina propria
    C. Stratum corneum
    D. Reticular layer of lamina propria
    E. Stratum spinosum
A

B. Papillary layer of lamina propria

76
Q
  1. The formative cells of the enamel structure
    of teeth arise from the
    A. inner enamel epithelium.
    B. dental follicle.
    C. dental papilla.
    D. dental follicle and papilla.
    E. inner enamel epithelium and dental
    papilla.
A

A. inner enamel epithelium.

77
Q
  1. When do ameloblasts begin to secrete
    enamel matrix?

A. During the cap stage
B. After the odontoblasts form dentin
C. Before the odontoblasts form dentin
D. After root formation begins
E. Before cap stage

A

B. After the odontoblasts form dentin

78
Q
  1. In the growing fetus, which specific structure
    separates the external lips and cheeks from
    the internal jaw structures?

A. Tuberculum impar
B. Buccopharyngeal membrane
C. Vestibular lamina
D. Hypobranchial eminence
E. Lateral lingual swellings

A

C. Vestibular lamina

79
Q
  1. The cribriform plate is located within which
    bone?
    A. Sphenoid
    B. Ethmoid
    C. Frontal
    D. Maxilla
    E. Vomer
A

B. Ethmoid

80
Q
  1. Suppose one would necessitate anesthesia of
    the anterior palatal mucosa. Which of the following
    nerves innervates this area?
    A. Nasopalatine
    B. Middle superior alveolar
    C. Posterior superior alveolar
    D. Maxillary
    E. Lesser palatine
A

A. Nasopalatine

81
Q
  1. Which of the following articulations of the
    cervical vertebrae do NOT contain an intervertebral
    disk?
    A. C4 and C5
    B. C5 and C6
    C. C2 and C3
    D. C1 and C2
    E. None of the above
A

D. C1 and C2

82
Q
  1. The spinal accessory nerve is composed of
    motor rootlets from which of the following
    nerves?
    A. C1-C5
    B. C3-C5
    C. C6
    D. C1-C3 only
    E. C1 and C2 only
A

A. C1-C5

83
Q
  1. Each of the following arteries is a branch of
    the subclavian artery EXCEPT

A. right carotid.
B. thyrocervical.
C. suprascapular.
D. transverse cervical.
E. vertebral.

A

A. right carotid.

84
Q
  1. The external jugular vein is formed by which
    two veins?

A. Anterior retromandibular and anterior
facial
B. Maxillary vein and anterior facial
C. Posterior retromandibular and anterior
retromandibular
D. Posterior auricular and posterior
retromandibular
E. Common facial and posterior
retromandibular

A

D. Posterior auricular and posterior
retromandibular

85
Q
  1. The stylomandibular ligament has its origin
    at which of the following bones?
    A. Temporal
    B. Sphenoid
    C. Occipital
    D. Maxilla
    E. Parietal
A

A. Temporal

86
Q
  1. Each of the following bones is unpaired
    EXCEPT
    A. occipital.
    B. sphenoid.
    C. ethmoid.
    D. frontal.
    E. none of the above
A

D. frontal.

87
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE regarding
    the attachment of the mylohyoid muscle?

A. It attaches superiorly at the lateral border
of the mandible and inferiorly at the body
of the hyoid.

B. It attaches superiorly at the medial border
of the mandible and inferiorly at the
lesser horn of the hyoid.

C. It attaches superiorly at the medial border
of the mandible and inferiorly at the
greater horn of the hyoid.

D. It attaches superiorly at the medial border
of the mandible and inferiorly at the
body of the hyoid.

E. It attaches superiorly at the lateral border
of the mandible and inferiorly at the
body of the hyoid.

A

D. It attaches superiorly at the medial border
of the mandible and inferiorly at the
body of the hyoid.

88
Q
  1. Which of the following nerves innervates the
    anterior belly of the digastric muscle?
    A. Inferior alveolar nerve
    B. Mental nerve
    C. Mylohyoid nerve
    D. Auriculotemporal nerve
    E. Facial nerve
A

C. Mylohyoid nerve

89
Q
  1. The infrahyoid musculature of the neck
    receives motor innervation from
    A. C4-C6.
    B. ansa cervicalis.
    C. lesser occipital nerve.
    D. greater occipital nerve.
    E. C6-C8.
A

B. ansa cervicalis.

90
Q
  1. All of the following are branches of the external
    carotid artery EXCEPT

A. ophthalmic artery.
B. ascending pharyngeal artery.
C. superior thyroid artery.
D. posterior auricular artery.
E. occipital artery.

A

A. ophthalmic artery.

91
Q
  1. The crista galli is a superior extension of
    which of the following bones?
    A. Sphenoid
    B. Ethmoid
    C. Vomer
    D. Frontal
    E. Maxilla
A

B. Ethmoid

92
Q
  1. Hypothetically speaking, when preparing a
    cavity preparation on the crown of a fully
    formed permanent tooth, as you initially cut
    through enamel and into dentin, which
    structure is first being penetrated?
    A. Circumpulpal dentin
    B. Mantle dentin
    C. Odontoblasts
    D. Radicular dentin
    E. Circumpulpal and radicular dentin
A

B. Mantle dentin

93
Q
  1. Raschkow plexus is located
    A. within the cementum of a tooth.
    B. within the cell rich zone of tooth pulp.
    C. within the dentin of a tooth.
    D. within the cell free zone (of Weil) of
    tooth pulp.
    E. within the core of the dental pulp.
A

D. within the cell free zone (of Weil) of
tooth pulp.

94
Q
  1. Which of the following structures of sperm
    development is analogous to the stratum
    basale of the skin?
    A. Spermatid
    B. Spermatogonium
    C. Primary spermatocyte
    D. Secondary spermatocyte
    E. Junctional complex
A

B. Spermatogonium

95
Q
  1. The macula densa is located in which
    portion of the kidney?
    A. Distal convoluted tubule
    B. Bowman capsule
    C. Loop of Henle
    D. Proximal convoluted tubule
    E. Collecting duct
A

A. Distal convoluted tubule

96
Q
  1. When extracting a tooth, one of the roots
    fractures off and remains within the alveolus.
    Which of the following would have the highest
    likelihood of becoming dislodged in the
    maxillary sinus?

A. Buccal root of the maxillary 1st premolar
B. Root of the maxillary canine
C. Root of the maxillary lateral incisor
D. Lingual root of the maxillary 1st molar
E. Lingual root of the maxillary 1st premolar

A

D. Lingual root of the maxillary 1st molar

97
Q
  1. All of the following bones articulate with the
    zygoma EXCEPT
    A. temporal.
    B. maxilla.
    C. frontal.
    D. sphenoid.
    E. parietal.
A

E. parietal.

98
Q
  1. An 18-year-old female presents to the emergency
    department with a chief complaint of
    not being able to manipulate her lower jaw.
    You determine that luxation of her mandible
    has occurred. In which of the following directions
    would the mandibular condyles most
    likely be positioned from normal?
    A. Posterior and superior
    B. Posterior and inferior
    C. Lateral and inferior
    D. Anteriorly
    E. Medially
A

D. Anteriorly

99
Q
  1. The inferior alveolar artery is a DIRECT
    branch from which of the following arteries?
    A. Middle meningeal
    B. Facial
    C. External carotid
    D. Maxillary
    E. Buccal
A

D. Maxillary

100
Q
  1. Bile is produced by which of the following?
    A. Head of the pancreas
    B. Gall bladder
    C. Liver
    D. Tail of the pancreas
    E. Duodenum
A

C. Liver

fmd (14 decks)

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