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1
Q
  1. Damage to the lateral and medial cords of
    the brachial plexus would result in altered
    motor movements to each of the following
    muscles EXCEPT
    A. interosseus muscles.
    B. thenar muscles.
    C. extensor carpi ulnaris.
    D. flexor carpi ulnaris.
    E. flexor carpi radialis
A

C. extensor carpi ulnaris.

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2
Q
  1. Traumatic dislocation of the clavicle at the
    sternoclavicular joint, in a posterior direction,
    can cause compromise to all of the following
    structures EXCEPT
    A. subclavian artery.
    B. brachial plexus.
    C. trachea.
    D. subclavian vein.
    E. all of the above
A

E. all of the above

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3
Q
  1. The cervical plexus can also be damaged
    with injury to the cervical spine. Motor
    innervation to each of the following muscles
    would be affected by damage to the cervical
    plexus EXCEPT
    A. sternohyoid.
    B. stylohyoid.
    C. omohyoid.
    D. sternothyroid.
    E. none of the above
A

B. stylohyoid.

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4
Q

Suppose a lesion compromises the lower
motor neuron of CN VII, occurring proximal
to the greater petrosal nerve and chorda tympani.
All of the following clinical signs will be
shown EXCEPT
A. ipsilateral weakness to musculature of
facial expression.
B. diminished taste sensation to the posterior
1/3 of the tongue.
C. ipsilateral dryness of eye due to lost function
of lacrimal gland.
D. compromised function of sublingual and
submandibular glands.
E. hyperacusis in ipsilateral ear.

A

B. diminished taste sensation to the posterior
1/3 of the tongue.

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5
Q
  1. A lesion to the upper motor neuron of CN
    VII would cause which of the following?
    A. Partial facial muscle paralysis on the ipsilateral
    side of the lesion to the lower face
    only
    B. Total facial muscle paralysis on the ipsilateral
    side of the lesion to the upper and
    lower face
    C. Partial facial muscle paralysis on the contralateral
    side of the lesion to the lower
    face only
    D. Total facial muscle paralysis of the contralateral
    side of the lesion to the upper
    and lower face
A

C. Partial facial muscle paralysis on the contralateral
side of the lesion to the lower
face only

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6
Q
  1. Which branchial arch has its derivatives
    innervated by CN VII?
    A. I
    B. II
    C. III
    D. IV
A

B. II

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7
Q
  1. The common facial vein receives drainage
    from each of the following veins EXCEPT
    A. maxillary vein.
    B. anterior retromandibular vein.
    QUESTIONS
    Anatomic Sciences
    dr_harithali@yahoo.com
    Questions: 1-14 3
    C. retromandibular vein.
    D. anterior facial vein.
    E. internal jugular vein.
A

E. internal jugular vein.

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8
Q
  1. All of the following statements regarding blood
    and associated vasculature is true EXCEPT
    A. approximately 45% of the blood is composed
    of formed elements/cellular
    material.
    B. blood plasma lacking fibrinogen and clotting
    factors is considered serum.
    C. the tunica adventitia of blood vessel walls
    is the most internal layer, endothelial in
    nature, and is composed of simple squamous
    epithelium.
    D. sinusoids are fenestrated capillaries which
    allow the passage of phagocytic cells.
    E. individuals with type O blood contain
    erythrocytes which lack A and B antigens,
    and are, thus, considered universal donors
A

C. the tunica adventitia of blood vessel walls
is the most internal layer, endothelial in
nature, and is composed of simple squamous
epithelium.

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9
Q

A 29-year-old female presents to the ED status post
blunt trauma to the back of the head. The patient
complains of severe head pain, and is sent for
imaging. MRI shows bleeding within the cranium,
and CT shows fractures of the skull

  1. Which of the following vessels is involved in
    an epidural hematoma?
    A. Anterior communicating artery
    B. Posterior cerebral artery
    C. Anterior cerebral artery
    D. Posterior communicating artery
    E. Middle meningeal artery
A

E. Middle meningeal artery

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10
Q
  1. All of the following structures are located
    within the posterior cranial fossa EXCEPT
    A. occipital lobes.
    B. jugular foramen.
    C. cerebellum.
    D. hypoglossal canal.
    E. optic foramen
A

E. optic foramen

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following cranial nuclei of the
    thalamus are involved with mediating facial
    sensation and pain?
    A. Ventral posterior medial nuclei (VPM)
    B. Ventral anterior nucleus
    C. Lateral geniculate nucleus
    D. Ventral posterior lateral nuclei (VPL)
    E. Ventral lateral nucleus
A

A. Ventral posterior medial nuclei (VPM)

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12
Q
  1. All of the following are brainstem nuclei
    involved with cranial nerve function
    EXCEPT
    A. superior salivatory nucleus.
    B. nucleus ambiguus.
    C. nucleus of the solitary tract.
    D. ventromedial nucleus.
    E. inferior salivatory nucleus.
A

D. ventromedial nucleus.

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13
Q
  1. The tricuspid valve can be auscultated at
    which of the following anatomic locations?
    A. Level of the 5th intercostal space, at the
    midclavicular line
    B. Level of the 2nd intercostal space, at the
    right sternal border
    C. Level of the 2nd intercostal space, at the
    left sternal border
    D. Level of the 5th intercostal space, left of
    the sternal border
    E. None of the above
A

D. Level of the 5th intercostal space, left of
the sternal border

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14
Q
  1. Occlusion of which of the following arteries
    would most directly cause ischemia in the lateral
    wall of the left ventricle?
    A. Left circumflex
    B. Right coronary
    C. Left anterior descending
    D. Acute marginal
    E. Posterior descending
A

A. Left circumflex

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following areas of the mediastinum
    contains the vagus nerve?
    A. Superior
    B. Posterior
    C. Anterior
    D. Middle
    E. None of the above
A

B. Posterior

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16
Q
  1. Regarding the fetal circulation, oxygenated
    blood bypasses the pulmonary circulation by
    way of which communication?
    A. Left atrium to left ventricle
    B. Left atrium to right atrium
    C. Right atrium to right ventricle
    D. Right atrium to left atrium
    E. Left atrium to left ventricle
A

D. Right atrium to left atrium

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following structures of the adult
    heart is a remnant of the foramen ovale in
    the fetal heart?
    A. Crista terminalis
    B. Fossa ovalis
    C. Sulcus terminalis
    D. Right auricle
    E. Atrial appendage
A

B. Fossa ovalis

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18
Q
  1. Regarding the fetal circulation, which of the
    following vasculature serves as a conduit
    between the aorta and pulmonary artery?
    A. Ductus venosus
    B. Umbilical arteries
    C. Ductus arteriosus
    D. Portal vein
    E. Umbilical vein
A

C. Ductus arteriosus

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following germ layer derivatives
    comprise the epithelial lining of the cardiovascular
    system?
    A. Mesoderm
    B. Endoderm
    C. Ectoderm
    D. All of the above
    E. None of the above
A

A. Mesoderm

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20
Q
  1. Which TWO of the following embryonic
    structures combine to form the superior vena
    cava?
  2. Bulbus cordis
  3. Right common cardinal vein
  4. Truncus arteriosus
  5. Right anterior cardinal vein
  6. Right horn of sinus venosus
    A. 1 and 2
    B. 2 and 3
    C. 4 and 5
    D. 2 and 4
    E. None of the above
A

B. 2 and 3
2. Right common cardinal vein
4. Right anterior cardinal vein

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21
Q
  1. Which TWO of the following embryonic
    structures cause an atrial septal defect if they
    fail to completely fuse?
  2. Ostium secundum
  3. Ostium primum
  4. Septum primum
  5. Septum secundum
  6. Septum spurium
    A. 1 and 2
    B. 2 and 3
    C. 2 and 4
    D. 3 and 4
    E. 3 and 5
A

D. 3 and 4
3. Septum primum
4. Septum secundum

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following is a derivative of the
    4th aortic arch?
    A. Hyoid artery
    B. Stapedial artery
    C. Right subclavian artery
    D. Common carotid artery
    E. Pulmonary arteries
A

C. Right subclavian artery

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23
Q
  1. All of the following structures form the boundary
    known as the femoral triangle EXCEPT
    A. sartorius muscle.
    B. inguinal ligament.
    C. adductor longus muscle.
    D. cremaster muscle.
    E. pectineus muscle.
A

D. cremaster muscle.

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding
    musculature of the abdomen is FALSE?
    Anatomic Sciences
    dr_harithali@yahoo.com
    Questions: 15-29 5
    A. The external oblique muscle contracts to
    increase abdominal pressure.
    B. The internal oblique muscle is innervated
    by the lower intercostal, iliohypogastric,
    and ilioinguinal nerves.
    C. The external oblique muscle is innervated
    only by the lower intercostal nerves.
    D. The transverse muscle contracts to flex
    the vertebral column.
    E. The rectus abdominis muscle originates
    at the pubic symphysis and inserts into
    the xiphoid process, as well as costal
    cartilages 5-7.
A

D. The transverse muscle contracts to flex
the vertebral column.

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25
25. Regarding connective tissue attachments, which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Tendons form attachments between bone and bone. B. Aponeuroses are merely sheetlike layers of tendon. C. Nearly all connective tissue is of neural crest origin, with head and neck regions of connective tissue being of mesodermal origin. D. Ligaments form attachments between muscle and bone. E. None of the above are correct.
B. Aponeuroses are merely sheetlike layers of tendon.
26
26. Which of the following statements regarding the thoracic region is FALSE? A. The neurovascular bundles of the intercostal spaces run along the costal groove at the superior surface of each rib. B. Musculature of respiration includes the intercostal muscles, diaphragm, and accessory muscles. C. The costal groove of each rib protects the nerve (of the neurovascular bundle) the least when injury occurs. D. The rib cage contains 12 ribs: ribs I-VI are true, VII-X are false, and XI-XII are floating. E. Fracture of the left 10th an
A. The neurovascular bundles of the intercostal spaces run along the costal groove at the superior surface of each rib.
27
27. All of the following questions pertaining to the diaphragm are correct EXCEPT A. blood supply to the diaphragm is via the musculophrenic artery. B. the aorta passes through two crura when passing through the aortic opening. C. the caval opening allows passage of the superior vena cava. D. during the act of inspiration, the diaphragm contracts, thus, flattening out and creating a negative intrathoracic pressure. E. innervation to the diaphragm is via the phrenic nerve (C3, C4, C5).
C. the caval opening allows passage of the superior vena cava.
28
28. Relative to the thymus, which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Growth continues and peaks at puberty, and then atrophies and is replaced by adipose tissue. B. Lymphatic circulation returns via afferent vessels so that lymph may be filtered. C. It is the site of T-cell maturation. D. Thymic corpuscles/epithelioreticular cells are contained within the inner medulla. E. The outer cortex holds the largest concentration of lymphocytes
B. Lymphatic circulation returns via afferent vessels so that lymph may be filtered.
29
29. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding vision and optic nerve fibers? A. Left medial/nasal fibers decussate and cross over at the optic chiasm en route to the right primary visual cortex of the occipital lobe. B. Left medial/nasal fibers decussate and stay ipsilateral at the optic chiasma en route to the left primary visual cortex of the occipital lobe. C. Left lateral/temporal fibers decussate and cross over at the optic chiasma en route to the right primary visual cortex of the temporal lobe. D. Right lateral/temporal fibers decussate and stay ipsilateral at the optic chiasma en route to the right primary visual cortex of the temporal lobe.
A. Left medial/nasal fibers decussate and cross over at the optic chiasm en route to the right primary visual cortex of the occipital lobe
30
30. Which of the following extraocular muscles is innervated by abducens nerve? A. Superior oblique muscle B. Medial rectus muscle C. Inferior rectus muscle D. Lateral rectus muscle E. Superior rectus muscle
D. Lateral rectus muscle
31
31. Regarding the pupillary light reflex, which of the following is TRUE? A. When shining light onto the left eye, the direct response elicits ipsilateral afferent firing via CN III and subsequent ipsilateral efferent firing via CN III to left eye. B. When shining light onto the left eye, the consensual response elicits ipsilateral afferent firing via CN II and subsequent contralateral efferent firing via CN III to right eye. C. When shining light onto the left eye, the consensual response elicits ipsilateral afferent firing via CN III and subsequent contralateral efferent firing via CN III to right eye. D. When shining light onto the right eye, the direct response elicits contralateral afferent firing via CN II and subsequent contralateral efferent firing via CN III to left eye
B. When shining light onto the left eye, the consensual response elicits ipsilateral afferent firing via CN II and subsequent contralateral efferent firing via CN III to right eye.
32
32. In order to test for patency of the trochlear nerve, one would shine a light source directed at the pupil, and have patient follow it in what direction? A. Superiorly B. Superiorly and medially C. Inferiorly D. Laterally E. Inferiorly and laterally
E. Inferiorly and laterally
33
33. Which of the following lesions involving vision occurring in patients with syphilis and diabetes allows the eye to accommodate but causes a loss of miosis function? A. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia B. Ophthalmoplegia C. Marcus-Gunn/relative afferent pupil D. Argyll Robertson/pupillary light-near dissociation pupil E. Horner syndrome
D. Argyll Robertson/pupillary light-near dissociation pupil
34
34. All of the following blood vessels comprise the circle of Willis EXCEPT A. middle cerebral artery. B. posterior cerebral artery. C. internal carotid artery. D. posterior communicating artery. E. anterior communicating artery.
A. middle cerebral artery.
35
35. Which of the following small, thin-walled vessels can rupture and, thus, are commonly involved in stroke? A. Left anterior cerebral B. Right posterior cerebral C. Lenticulostriate D. Left vertebral E. Left internal carotid
C. Lenticulostriate
36
36. If damaged, all of the following bony structures would directly alter movement of the tongue EXCEPT A. genial tubercles. B. hamulus. C. hyoid bone. D. styloid process. E. none of the above
B. hamulus.
37
37. Which of the following portions of the lung contain the lingula? A. Middle lobe of right lung B. Superior lobe of right lung C. Superior lobe of left lung D. Inferior lobe of left lung E. Inferior lobe of right lung
C. Superior lobe of left lung
38
38. Which of the following wraps around the ligamentum arteriosum? A. Right recurrent laryngeal nerve B. Left brachiocephalic vein C. Right subclavian vein D. Superior laryngeal nerve E. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
E. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
39
39. Each of the following statements concerning the foramen magnum are true EXCEPT A. it is located in the occipital bone. B. it allows passage of the medulla oblongata/spinal cord. C. it allows passage of the spinal accessory nerve. D. it is located in the parietal bone. E. it allows passage of the vertebral arteries
D. it is located in the parietal bone.
40
40. The articulating surface of the mandibular condyle is covered with A. dense fibrocartilage. B. loose connective tissue. C. elastic cartilage. D. hyaline cartilage. E. none of the above
A. dense fibrocartilage.
41
41. The articulating disc of the temporomandibular joint attaches to the condyle via A. stylomandibular ligament. B. collateral ligaments. C. temporomandibular ligament. D. sphenomandibular ligament. E. none of the above.
B. collateral ligaments.
42
42. Which of the following directions does the articulating disc of the temporomandibular joint most often displace? A. Anteromedially B. Laterally C. Inferiorly D. Superiorly E. Posteromedially
A. Anteromedially
43
43. The pituitary gland is seated superiorly on which sinus? A. Frontal B. Maxillary C. Anterior ethmoid D. Posterior ethmoid E. Sphenoid
E. Sphenoid
44
44. If the patient is complaining of altered taste sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, as well as generalized paresthesia to the left lateral tongue, which of the following structures may have been compromised by the extraction? A. Buccal nerve B. Lingual nerve C. Middle superior alveolar nerve D. Hypoglossal nerve E. Inferior alveolar nerve
B. Lingual nerve
45
45. Prior to the extraction, if an infection had formed at the root apices of tooth No. 17, which fascial plane would the infection most likely travel within? A. Sublingual B. Parapharyngeal C. Masticator D. Submandibular E. Parotid
D. Submandibular
46
46. Emergency management of a patient with airway obstruction/compromise may involve a cricothyrotomy. During this procedure, an airway is established by incising between the A. hyoid bone and thyroid cartilage. B. cartilaginous rings of trachea. C. thyroid cartilage and cricoid cartilage. D. thyroid gland. E. left 3rd and 4th intercostal muscles, laterally.
C. thyroid cartilage and cricoid cartilage.
47
47. When performing an inferior alveolar nerve block, the needle is accidentally directed too far posteriorly. Which of the following structures will be penetrated? A. Buccinator B. Lateral pterygoid C. Medial pterygoid D. Mylohyoid E. Parotid gland
E. Parotid gland
48
48. Which of the following structures converge to form the pterygomandibular raphe? A. Superior pharyngeal constrictor and mylohyoid B. Medial pterygoid and mylohyoid C. Buccinator and superior pharyngeal constrictor D. Buccinator and mylohyoid E. Medial pterygoid and superior pharyngeal constrictor
C. Buccinator and superior pharyngeal constrictor
49
49. Due to large pocket depths surrounding the mandibular right molars, anesthesia of this quadrant is necessary to adequately scale and plane the roots. In order to locate area where anesthesia is distributed for inferior alveolar nerve block, you palpate which structure? A. Lingula B. Coronoid notch C. Antilingula D. Angle of the mandible E. External oblique ridge of the mandible
B. Coronoid notch
50
50. As is the case with periodontal disease, periodontal attachment loss is evident. Which of the following principal collagen fibers of the PDL course at right angles from the cementum to adjacent alveolar bone? A. Horizontal B. Apical C. Interradicular D. Transseptal E. Oblique
A. Horizontal
51
51. Principal collagen fibers of the PDL are comprised of which of the following type(s) of collagen? A. Type I only B. Type II only C. Type III only D. Type I and III E. Type II and III
D. Type I and III
52
52. Which of the following is the most abundant cell of a healthy periodontal ligament? A. Lymphocytes B. Neutrophils C. Osteoblasts D. Cementoblasts E. Fibroblasts
E. Fibroblasts
53
53. All of the following vessels contribute to Kisselbach plexus EXCEPT A. lesser palatine artery. B. sphenopalatine artery. C. lateral nasal branches of facial artery. D. superior labial artery. E. anterior ethmoid arteries of internal carotid artery
A. lesser palatine artery.
54
54. Each of the following bones are part of the orbit EXCEPT A. frontal. B. zygoma. C. ethmoid. D. lacrimal. E. temporal
E. temporal
55
55. Which of the following arteries is the MAJOR blood supply to the orbit and eye? A. Facial B. Ophthalmic C. Maxillary D. Transverse facial E. Infraorbital
B. Ophthalmic
56
56. Which of the following muscles has its origin on the zygomatic process of maxilla (superficially) and zygomatic arch (deep)? A. Lateral pterygoid B. Temporalis C. Buccinator D. Masseter E. Medial pterygoid
D. Masseter
57
57. The superior orbital fissure is located between which of the following bones? A. Lesser wing of sphenoid and frontal. B. Ethmoid and maxilla. C. Greater wing of sphenoid and maxilla. D. Greater wing of sphenoid and lesser wing of sphenoid. E. Lesser wing of sphenoid and ethmoid.
C. Greater wing of sphenoid and maxilla.
58
58. All of the following are TRUE regarding the nasolacrimal apparatus EXCEPT A. the nasolacrimal duct empties into the superior meatus. B. relative to the orbit, the nasolacrimal apparatus is located superolaterally. C. tears wash across the globe in a superolateral → inferomedial direction. D. the lacrimal puncta collects tears and then drains directly into the lacrimal canals. E. the lacrimal sac drains directly into the nasolacrimal duct.
C. tears wash across the globe in a superolateral → inferomedial direction.
59
59. Each of the following is TRUE regarding the lacrimal gland EXCEPT A. it receives postganglionic parasympathetic fibers via the lacrimal nerve. B. preganglionic fibers synapse at the pterygopalatine ganglion. C. preganglionic fibers to the lacrimal gland are carried via greater petrosal nerve. D. the lacrimal gland is mucous secreting. E. the superior salivatory nucleus sends preganglionic fibers to the lacrimal gland
E. the superior salivatory nucleus sends preganglionic fibers to the lacrimal gland
60
60. The platysma is innervated by which of the following nerves? A. Trigeminal B. Facial C. Glossopharyngeal D. Spinal accessory E. Vagus
D. Spinal accessory
61
61. Which layer of fascia contains lymphatic vessels within the neck? A. Pretracheal B. Prevertebral C. Subcutaneous D. Investing E. None of the above
D. Investing
62
62. Which of the following ligaments connects the liver to the anterior abdominal wall? A. Falciform B. Gastrocolic C. Hepatoduodenal D. Gastroduodenal E. Gastrohepatic
A. Falciform
63
63. Which of the following describes the teniae coli of the digestive tract? A. Fatty globules on the serosal surface of the colon B. Lymphoid tissue of the cecum C. Formed pouches within the colon D. Villous-like projections involved with absorption E. Smooth muscle bands of the colon
A. Fatty globules on the serosal surface of the colon
64
64. Coordination of muscle movement, as well as maintenance of equilibrium and posture, are controlled by which structure of the brain? A. Medulla B. Pons C. Cerebrum D. Thalamus E. Cerebellum
E. Cerebellum
65
65. Which of the following types of cartilage has the ability to calcify? A. Fibrocartilage B. Hyaline C. Elastic D. Elastic and hyaline E. Hyaline and fibrocartilage
B. Hyaline
66
66. The one-cell thick layer of osteoprogenitor cells on the inner surface of bone is A. endosteum. B. haversian canal. C. Volkmann canal. D. lacuna. E. periosteum
A. endosteum.
67
67. Which of the following is a type of syndesmosis? A. Tooth in socket. B. Cranial sutures. C. Temporomandibular joint. D. Epiphyseal plate of long bones. E. Connection between radius and ulna
E. Connection between radius and ulna
68
68. All of the following statements regarding the blood are true EXCEPT A. the majority of blood is plasma, which makes up 55% of the total. B. albumin regulates the vascular oncotic pressure. C. hematocrit measures the portion of proteins in a blood sample. D. blood comprises 8% of the total body weight. E. plasma is made up of 80% water.
C. hematocrit measures the portion of proteins in a blood sample.
69
69. Which of the following is a granulocyte? A. T cell. B. Macrophage. C. Platelet. D. Neutrophil. E. B cell
D. Neutrophil.
70
70. Each of the following zones of the adrenal gland is of mesodermal origin EXCEPT A. zona fasciculate. B. chromaffin cells. C. zona glomerulosa. D. zona reticularis. E. none of the above.
B. chromaffin cells.
71
71. Which of the following pharyngeal muscles shortens the velum? A. Muscularis uvula B. Palatopharyngeus C. Palatoglossal D. Levator veli palatini E. Tensor veli palatine
A. Muscularis uvula
72
72. Which of the following nuclei is the primary controller of swallowing? A. Superior salivatory B. Nucleus ambiguus C. Inferior salivatory D. Facial nucleus E. Nucleus of the solitary tract
B. Nucleus ambiguus
73
73. The pharyngeal plexus is comprised of which of the following combination of nerves? A. CN V, IX, X B. CN IX, X, XII C. CN IX, X, XI D. CN V, VII, IX E. CN V, IX, X
C. CN IX, X, XI
74
74. Which of the following nerves innervates the stapedius muscle of the middle ear? A. CN V-1 B. CN V-2 C. CN VII D. CN V-3 E. CN VIII
C. CN VII
75
75. Relative to the oral cavity, which of the layers of mucosa interdigitates with rete pegs? A. Stratum granulosum B. Papillary layer of lamina propria C. Stratum corneum D. Reticular layer of lamina propria E. Stratum spinosum
B. Papillary layer of lamina propria
76
76. The formative cells of the enamel structure of teeth arise from the A. inner enamel epithelium. B. dental follicle. C. dental papilla. D. dental follicle and papilla. E. inner enamel epithelium and dental papilla.
A. inner enamel epithelium.
77
77. When do ameloblasts begin to secrete enamel matrix? A. During the cap stage B. After the odontoblasts form dentin C. Before the odontoblasts form dentin D. After root formation begins E. Before cap stage
B. After the odontoblasts form dentin
78
78. In the growing fetus, which specific structure separates the external lips and cheeks from the internal jaw structures? A. Tuberculum impar B. Buccopharyngeal membrane C. Vestibular lamina D. Hypobranchial eminence E. Lateral lingual swellings
C. Vestibular lamina
79
79. The cribriform plate is located within which bone? A. Sphenoid B. Ethmoid C. Frontal D. Maxilla E. Vomer
B. Ethmoid
80
80. Suppose one would necessitate anesthesia of the anterior palatal mucosa. Which of the following nerves innervates this area? A. Nasopalatine B. Middle superior alveolar C. Posterior superior alveolar D. Maxillary E. Lesser palatine
A. Nasopalatine
81
81. Which of the following articulations of the cervical vertebrae do NOT contain an intervertebral disk? A. C4 and C5 B. C5 and C6 C. C2 and C3 D. C1 and C2 E. None of the above
D. C1 and C2
82
82. The spinal accessory nerve is composed of motor rootlets from which of the following nerves? A. C1-C5 B. C3-C5 C. C6 D. C1-C3 only E. C1 and C2 only
A. C1-C5
83
83. Each of the following arteries is a branch of the subclavian artery EXCEPT A. right carotid. B. thyrocervical. C. suprascapular. D. transverse cervical. E. vertebral.
A. right carotid.
84
84. The external jugular vein is formed by which two veins? A. Anterior retromandibular and anterior facial B. Maxillary vein and anterior facial C. Posterior retromandibular and anterior retromandibular D. Posterior auricular and posterior retromandibular E. Common facial and posterior retromandibular
D. Posterior auricular and posterior retromandibular
85
85. The stylomandibular ligament has its origin at which of the following bones? A. Temporal B. Sphenoid C. Occipital D. Maxilla E. Parietal
A. Temporal
86
86. Each of the following bones is unpaired EXCEPT A. occipital. B. sphenoid. C. ethmoid. D. frontal. E. none of the above
D. frontal.
87
87. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the attachment of the mylohyoid muscle? A. It attaches superiorly at the lateral border of the mandible and inferiorly at the body of the hyoid. B. It attaches superiorly at the medial border of the mandible and inferiorly at the lesser horn of the hyoid. C. It attaches superiorly at the medial border of the mandible and inferiorly at the greater horn of the hyoid. D. It attaches superiorly at the medial border of the mandible and inferiorly at the body of the hyoid. E. It attaches superiorly at the lateral border of the mandible and inferiorly at the body of the hyoid.
D. It attaches superiorly at the medial border of the mandible and inferiorly at the body of the hyoid.
88
88. Which of the following nerves innervates the anterior belly of the digastric muscle? A. Inferior alveolar nerve B. Mental nerve C. Mylohyoid nerve D. Auriculotemporal nerve E. Facial nerve
C. Mylohyoid nerve
89
89. The infrahyoid musculature of the neck receives motor innervation from A. C4-C6. B. ansa cervicalis. C. lesser occipital nerve. D. greater occipital nerve. E. C6-C8.
B. ansa cervicalis.
90
90. All of the following are branches of the external carotid artery EXCEPT A. ophthalmic artery. B. ascending pharyngeal artery. C. superior thyroid artery. D. posterior auricular artery. E. occipital artery.
A. ophthalmic artery.
91
91. The crista galli is a superior extension of which of the following bones? A. Sphenoid B. Ethmoid C. Vomer D. Frontal E. Maxilla
B. Ethmoid
92
92. Hypothetically speaking, when preparing a cavity preparation on the crown of a fully formed permanent tooth, as you initially cut through enamel and into dentin, which structure is first being penetrated? A. Circumpulpal dentin B. Mantle dentin C. Odontoblasts D. Radicular dentin E. Circumpulpal and radicular dentin
B. Mantle dentin
93
93. Raschkow plexus is located A. within the cementum of a tooth. B. within the cell rich zone of tooth pulp. C. within the dentin of a tooth. D. within the cell free zone (of Weil) of tooth pulp. E. within the core of the dental pulp.
D. within the cell free zone (of Weil) of tooth pulp.
94
94. Which of the following structures of sperm development is analogous to the stratum basale of the skin? A. Spermatid B. Spermatogonium C. Primary spermatocyte D. Secondary spermatocyte E. Junctional complex
B. Spermatogonium
95
95. The macula densa is located in which portion of the kidney? A. Distal convoluted tubule B. Bowman capsule C. Loop of Henle D. Proximal convoluted tubule E. Collecting duct
A. Distal convoluted tubule
96
96. When extracting a tooth, one of the roots fractures off and remains within the alveolus. Which of the following would have the highest likelihood of becoming dislodged in the maxillary sinus? A. Buccal root of the maxillary 1st premolar B. Root of the maxillary canine C. Root of the maxillary lateral incisor D. Lingual root of the maxillary 1st molar E. Lingual root of the maxillary 1st premolar
D. Lingual root of the maxillary 1st molar
97
97. All of the following bones articulate with the zygoma EXCEPT A. temporal. B. maxilla. C. frontal. D. sphenoid. E. parietal.
E. parietal.
98
98. An 18-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a chief complaint of not being able to manipulate her lower jaw. You determine that luxation of her mandible has occurred. In which of the following directions would the mandibular condyles most likely be positioned from normal? A. Posterior and superior B. Posterior and inferior C. Lateral and inferior D. Anteriorly E. Medially
D. Anteriorly
99
99. The inferior alveolar artery is a DIRECT branch from which of the following arteries? A. Middle meningeal B. Facial C. External carotid D. Maxillary E. Buccal
D. Maxillary
100
100. Bile is produced by which of the following? A. Head of the pancreas B. Gall bladder C. Liver D. Tail of the pancreas E. Duodenum
C. Liver

fmd (14 decks)

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