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Microbiology > Protozoan Disease > Flashcards

Protozoan Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What are protozoa?

A

Microscopic unicellular eukaryotes that lack a rigid cell wall

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2
Q

What is the basic life cycle of Entamoeba histolytica?

A
  1. Infection occurs via ingestion of cysts
  2. excystation in the small intestine
  3. trophozoites colonise the large intestine
  4. cysts passed in faeces
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3
Q

What disease is caused by Giardia lamblia?

A

Giardiasis

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4
Q

List four medically important protozoa.

A
  • Plasmodium spp.
  • Entamoeba spp.
  • Giardia spp.
  • Cryptosporidium spp.
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5
Q

What is a trophozoite?

A

The active, motile feeding stage of a protozoan organism

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6
Q

True or False: Protozoa can only be parasitic.

A

False

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7
Q

What is the global occurrence of malaria caused by Plasmodium spp.?

A

249 million cases

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8
Q

What is the primary source of infection for Cryptosporidium parvum?

A

Ingestion of faecally contaminated food or water

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9
Q

What is the incubation period for Cryptosporidium parvum infection?

A

5 to 28 days

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10
Q

What are the common symptoms of giardiasis?

A
  • Diarrhoea
  • Pain
  • Cramps
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11
Q

Fill in the blank: The infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica is called _______.

A

trophozoite

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12
Q

What is a common method for preventing Cryptosporidium infections?

A

Awareness and practice of good personal hygiene

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13
Q

What treatment is used for symptomatic Entamoeba histolytica infection?

A

Metronidazole and iodoquinol

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14
Q

What is the life cycle of Giardia lamblia characterized by?

A

Excystation in the small intestine, trophozoites released, attach to the digestive tract

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15
Q

Name one laboratory diagnosis method for Giardia lamblia.

A

Identification of cysts in faeces

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16
Q

What is the role of oocysts in Cryptosporidium parvum’s life cycle?

A

Oocysts are produced and re-released back into the environment

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17
Q

True or False: Cysts of Giardia lamblia are resistant to chlorine.

A

True

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18
Q

What are the two strategies employed by parasitic protozoa to locate a host?

A
  • Have a resistant stage in their life cycle
  • Have a second host
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19
Q

What is the typical outcome for most cases of Cryptosporidiosis and how can it be treated?

A

Self-limiting

However, it can be treated with rehydration plus nitazoxanide.

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20
Q

What are the protective structures formed by Entamoeba histolytica called?

A

Cysts

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21
Q

Fill in the blank: The disease caused by Entamoeba histolytica is known as _______.

A

amoebic dysentery

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22
Q

What is the significance of asymptomatic carriers in protozoan infections?

A

They are important reservoirs for future infection

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23
Q

What is the infective dose for Cryptosporidium parvum?

A

10 – 100 oocysts

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24
Q

What are the two most common species of Plasmodium causing malaria?

A

Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium vivax

25
Q

Fill in the blank: Malaria is transmitted by the _______ mosquito.

A

Female Anopheles

26
Q

List the three key stages of the Plasmodium life cycle.

A
  • Human liver stages (pre-erythrocytic cycle)
  • Human blood stages (erythrocytic cycle)
  • Mosquito stages (sporogonic cycle)
27
Q

What are common early symptoms of malaria?

A
  • Fever
  • Headache
  • Chills
28
Q

What severe condition can result from Plasmodium falciparum infection?

A

Cerebral malaria

29
Q

What is the gold standard for malaria diagnosis?

A

Microscopy

30
Q

True or False: Thick blood smears are used for species-level identification of Plasmodium.

A

False

31
Q

What is the purpose of primaquine in malaria treatment?

A

Targets liver stage parasites

32
Q

What is the primary mechanism of the RTS,S vaccine?

A

Targets circumsporozoite protein (CSP) on sporozoites

Prevents the parasites from emerging from the liver and progressing to the erythrocytic stage.

33
Q

List two antimalarial drugs used in combination with artemisinin.

A
  • Quinine
  • Doxycycline
34
Q

Fill in the blank: The first widespread antimalarial was _______.

A

Quinine

35
Q

What is the function of insecticide-treated nets (ITNs) in malaria prevention?

A

Most effective preventative measure against malaria

36
Q

What is the significance of the sterile insect technology (SIT) project?

A

Releases sterile males to reduce mosquito population

37
Q

What is the main challenge in developing malaria vaccines?

A

Requires herd immunity approach

38
Q

What are the limitations of drug treatment for malaria?

A
  • No drug is effective against all stages
  • Resistance can develop rapidly
39
Q

What is the effect of chemoprophylaxis on malaria risk?

A

Reduces malaria risk by approximately 90%

40
Q

What are the blood stage vaccines designed to prevent?

A

Development of asexual stage infected erythrocytes

41
Q

How does the RTS,S vaccine impact the malaria life cycle?

A

Prevents parasites from emerging from the liver

42
Q

What are the three vaccine target sites for malaria?

A
  • Pre-erythrocytic vaccines
  • Blood stage vaccines
  • Transmission blocking vaccines
43
Q

Describe the Asexual development (humans) lifecycle

A

•Female infective Anopheles mosquito takes blood meal and injects sporozoite stage parasites

•Sporozoites infect liver cells within 30 minutes and develop into schizonts

•Schizonts rupture and release merozoites

•Merozoites infect RBC’s –Pass through blood cell stages

•Some mature into gametocytes and are ingested by another Anopheles mosquito

44
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of blood smear diagnosis?

A

•Advantages

–Cheap
–Fast
–Low technology

•Disadvantages

–Extensive training
–Rigorous quality control
–Drug treatment may make it difficult to ID species

45
Q

What are rapid diagnostic tests?

A

These are lateral flow devices which uses blood as the sample

•Capable of a rough species-level ID.

•May miss low level parasitaemia.

•Confirmed using microscopy.

46
Q

What is PCR?

A

PCR uses primers, short synthetic DNA fragments, to select a DNA segment to amplify. Then, multiple rounds of DNA synthesis amplify that segment.

PCR can also be used to provide species-specific diagnosis if required

47
Q

What is PCR?

A

PCR uses primers, short synthetic DNA fragments, to select a DNA segment to amplify. Then, multiple rounds of DNA synthesis amplify that segment.

PCR can also be used to provide species-specific diagnosis if required

48
Q

What does Quinine (chloroquine / mefloquine) target?

A

Target blood stage parasites.

49
Q

What does Doxycycline target?

A

Used in combination with quinine for blood stage target

50
Q

What does Primaquine target?

A

Targets liver stage parasites.

51
Q

What is Artemisinin combination therapy (ACT) and what does it target?

A

Artemisinin is a plant derived compound.

•Has faster elimination and broader efficacy across Plasmodium life-cycle.

•Effective against all Plasmodium species.

•Due to concerns about resistance, artemisinin is combined with another drug.

Target - blood stage parasites, inhibits development of gametocytes.

52
Q

What is Artemisinin combination therapy (ACT) and what does it target?

A

Artemisinin is a plant derived compound.

•Has faster elimination and broader efficacy across Plasmodium life-cycle.

•Effective against all Plasmodium species.

•Due to concerns about resistance, artemisinin is combined with another drug.

Target - blood stage parasites, inhibits development of gametocytes.

53
Q

Name the three target sites for malaria

A
  1. Pre-erythrocytes vaccine
  2. Blood stage vaccine
  3. Transmission blocking vaccine
54
Q

What does the blood vaccine do?

A

Prevent the development of the asexual stage infected erythrocyte and the merozoite.

55
Q

What does the transmission blocking vaccine do?

A

Generate antibodies against the sexual stages of the parasite

Antibodies impair development

Requires herd immunity

56
Q

What Protozoa causes amoebic dysentery?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

57
Q

What Protozoa causes cryptosporidiosis?

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

58
Q

What Protozoa causes giardiasis?

A

Giardia lamblia

Microbiology (19 decks)

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