Protection of Nav Aids Flashcards

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1
Q

what are the three requirements that must be met for any nav system to be successful

A

integrity, accuracy, availability and reliability

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2
Q

integrity

A

the ability of the system to monitor itself and provide timely warnings to users or shut itself down when it should not be used for navigation

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3
Q

accuracy

A

the ability of the system to show the true position of an aircraft at any time

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4
Q

avaliability

A

the ability for NAVAIDs to provide the navigational service whenever it is needed by the user of the system

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5
Q

visual approach

A

VFR conditions, 3SM vis with ceilings at least 1,000ft

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6
Q

contact approach

A

results from an instrument approach when the visibility is greater than 1 mile

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7
Q

what is the main difference between a visual approach and a contact approach

A

a pilot must request a contact approach, while a visual approach may be assigned by ATC

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8
Q

instrument approach

A

an approach using horizontal or vertical guidance in a procedure established by the FAA. can be precision or non-precision

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9
Q

What is a TERPS

A

terminal procedures. a specialized approach to increase the use of a runway, but mandates a path that can result in a concentration of noise impact on those beneath it

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10
Q

what is a SID

A

a standard instrument departure. a preplanned instrument flight rule for air traffic control departure. pre-printed and can be given in a clearance to lessen the burden of communicating and can be given in a clearance

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11
Q

GO OVER ILS CATEGORIES IN NOTEBOOK

A

I - 200ft DH - 2400 RVR
II - 200ft DH - 1800 RVR
III - 100ft DH - 1200 RV

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12
Q

runway visual range

A

an instrumentally derived value, based on standard calibrations, that represent the horizontal distance a pilot will see down the runway from the approach end. Based on the measurement of a transmissometer made near the touchdown point of the instrument runway

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13
Q

When is RVR required

A

for a CAT I II or III approach

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14
Q

What is an LDA

A

a localizer directional aid used for approach guidance to an airport, but usually offset form the centerline of the runway. goes out 10 degrees for 18 miles

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15
Q

what is the localizer critical area

A

it is usually 500ft around the antennas, 400ft wide, and extends 2,000ft down the runway

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16
Q

What are the three required components of an ILS

A

a localizer, RVR, and marker beacons

17
Q

where are marker beacons located for CAT II and III approaches

A

outer marker is located 4-7NM from the runway threshold, middle marker is 2,000-6,000ft from the threshold, and inner marker or DME marker is 1,000ft from the threshold

18
Q

what is a VOR, where is it located and its radius

A

a very high frequency omnidirectional range
the transmitters have a 25 mile range, and low altitude VORs that provide terminal navigation go to 40miles
VOR or TVORs have a 750-1,000ft radius protection zone

19
Q

SDF (Simplified Directional Facility)

A

instead of a ILS, less expensive
provides course information similar to an ILS but less accurate, but more flexible given surrounding environment

20
Q

DME (Distance Measuring Equipment)

A

provides distance information from the station. basically echolocation

21
Q

GPS (global positioning system)

A

satellite-based nav system. provides velocity info and is less susceptible to ground interference or error. It is susceptible to line of sight. a minimum of four satellites for a 3 dimensional position

22
Q

WAAS (wide area augmentation system)

A

Uses a combination of GPS satellites and WASS satellites gives ILS capability without the purchase or ground based equipment. can achieve minimums as low as 200 ft and 1/2 vis

23
Q

GBAS (ground-based augmentation system)

A

a ground based augmentation to GPS that focuses its service on the airport area (20-30 mile radius). Broadcasts on VHF. Highly accurate

24
Q

ADSB (automatic dependent surveillance)

A

a surveillance technique in which aircraft automatically provide data derived from on-board navigation and position fixing systems, including aircraft identification, four-dimensional position and additional dta as appropriate

25
Q

Mode C transponder broadcasts what?

A

altitude

26
Q

Mode S transponder gives what information?

A

aircraft speed, rate of climb, weather, clearances, and traffic information between the controller and aircraft

27
Q

How far out does radar reach from the station?

A

60 miles

28
Q

what are the two drawbacks with primary radar systems

A
  1. very susceptible to atmospheric conditions and the size of the target
  2. They do not provide information about the aircrafts altitude
29
Q

ARTS (automated radar terminal system)

A

has the capability to predict flight paths, determine conflicts with other aircraft, receive altitude information, and transmit or receive other important aircraft identification information

30
Q

what are the two maor types of ARTS

A

models IIE and IIIE

31
Q

ASDE (airport surface detection equipment)

A

is designed to enhance safety on the airport surface during all-weather conditions. it augments and confirms information obtained from visual surveillance of the airport surface or verbal reports of aircraft positions

32
Q

ADSE-3

A

the same as ADSE except it detects potential collisions on airport runways

33
Q

ADSE-X

A

provides more precise surface detection than ADSE or ADSE-3. It integrates radar, transponders and ADSB

34
Q

What is the airport responsible for pertaining to navaids?

A

preventing the construction of facilities on its airport that would derogate the operation of an electronic or visual NAVAID and air traffic control facilities. Also to prevent the interruption of visual and electronic NAVAID signals and for protecting all on-airport navaids against vandalism and theft

35
Q

if a navaid goes down for maintenance when must the notam be put out

A

must be issued at least 5 hours prior to shutdown or maintenance, in an emergency, at least one-hour shut down is prefered

36
Q

Public protection per part 139.335 means what

A

certified airports must “provide safeguards to prevent inadvertent entry to the movement area by unauthorized persons or vehicles and reasonable protection of persons and property from aircraft blast” completed by fencing