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Boards Prep > Prosth (Mental dental) > Flashcards

Prosth (Mental dental) Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: Compromised endo teeth should not be used as abutment

A

True

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2
Q

T/F: compromised perio teeth should not be used as abutment

A

True

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3
Q

What is the ideal crown to root ratio?

A

1: 2

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4
Q

What is the minimum crown to root ratio that can be used as abutment tooth?

A

1:1

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5
Q

The PDL surface area of the abutment teeth should equal or be greater than the imaginary PDL surface area of missing teeth

A

Ante’s law

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6
Q

____ distributes occlusal forces

A

Splinting

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7
Q

When replacing canines in maxillary teeth, should you use a splint?

A

SPlint central and lateral to decrease distal forces

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8
Q

For abutment teeth, is convergent or divergent roots better?

A

Divergent

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9
Q

What is the major problem with cement retained implants?

A

Excess cement causing peri-implantitis

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10
Q

What is a contraindication for a CD?

A

Max CD with opposing only mand anteriors

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11
Q

What compound controls the setting rate for alginate?

A

Trisodium phosphate

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12
Q

What compound adds strength to alginate?

A

Diomateceous earth

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13
Q

Position in which condyles with thinnest avascular portion of their respective discs in the most anterior-superior position against articular eminences
Independent of teeth

A

Centric relation

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14
Q

Complete interdigitation of teeth
Independent of condylar position

A

Maximum Intercuspation (MIP)
Centric Occlusion

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15
Q

Casts are mounted in ____ where is can be maintained (single fixed procedure)

A

MIP

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16
Q

Casts are mounted in ____ in case of CDs or multiple teeth being resotred or replaced)

A

CR

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17
Q

Which MMR position is more reliable and reproducible?

A

CR

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18
Q

___ facebow: orients max cast to skull via external auditory meatus to stabilize the bow (Less precise but more easy to use)

A

Arbitrary facebow

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19
Q

_____ facebow: placed on the hinge axis of the mandible ( more precise more difficult to use)

A

Kinematic facebow

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20
Q

____ articular
Does not reproduce full range of mand movement
Distance between hinge and teeth is significantly shorter than in the pt
May result in premature contacts and incorrect ridge and groove direction of restorations

A

Nonadjustable articulator

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21
Q

_____ semiajustable articulator:
Condyles are a part of the lower member, fossa area. part of the upper member

A

Arcon semiadjustable articulator

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22
Q

_____ semiadjustable articulator:
Upper and lower members are rigidly attached

A

Nonarcon semiadjustable articulator

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23
Q

____ articulator:
Pantograph is used to follow patient’s border movements

A

Fully adjustable articulator

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24
Q

Are casts poured from alginate better mounted with wax records or elastomeric materiasl?

A

Wax records

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25
Q

Are Casts poured from elastomeric materials more accurately mounted with wax records or elastomeric materials?

A

Elastomeric materials

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26
Q

What provides clearance on working side during lateral movements?

A

Canines

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27
Q

What provides clearance on balancing side during lateral movements?

A

Balancing side condyle

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28
Q

The _____ vestibule goes from buccal frenum to buccal frenum in anterior

A

Labial vestibule

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29
Q

The _____ vestibule is the vestibule is posterior to buccal frenum

A

Buccal vestibule

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30
Q

The ____ is the tissue distal to the alveloar ridge and anterior to pterygoid hamulus

A

Hamular notch

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31
Q

The ______ is the distobuccal area of impression for denture/ denture; recorded in border molding by moving mandible laterally

A

Coronoid notch

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32
Q

____ connects buccinator and superior pharyngeal constrictor
- take this by opening wide when border molding

A

Pterygomandibular raphe

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33
Q

What are the two most important maxillary border molding movements?

A

LAteral movement (coronoid notch) and opening wide (pterygomandibular raphe)

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34
Q

What muscle makes up the labial frenum in mand?

A

Orbicularis ori

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35
Q

What muscles makes up the buccal frenum in mand?

A

Orbicularis oris and buccinator

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36
Q

What muscles makes up lingual frenum?

A

Genioglossus

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37
Q

What muscle determines depth of labial vestibule in mand?

A

Mentalis

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38
Q

What muscle attachment determines depth of buccal vestibule in mand?

A

Buccinator

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39
Q

Marks distal extension of edentulous mand ridge
Ideally covered for support and retention since the integrity of the bone in this area is maintained

A

Retromolar pad

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40
Q

What are the mucles attachements present in retromolar pad?

A

Buccinator, superior constrictor, ptergomandibular raphe, and temporalis

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41
Q

Refers to the DB area on the impression/denture
Masseter contracts when mouth closes against resistance

A

Masseteric notch

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42
Q

What is the lingual portion of the slucus between tongue and alveolar ridge of mand that forms s shape?

A

Alvelolingual sulcus

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43
Q

SHould the flange be shorter or longer in anterior region of alvelolingual sulcus

A

Shorter

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44
Q

What sturcture is housed in the anterior region of the alvelolingual sulcus that warrants a shorter flange?

A

Sublingual gland

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45
Q

Which direction does the middle region of alvelolingual sulucs direct the flange of the denture?

A

Medially

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46
Q

Why is the flange deflected medially in middle portion of alvelo lingual sulcus?

A

Mylohyoid ridge and muscle contracting medially

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47
Q

What Direction is flange directed in posterior portion of alvelolingual sulcus? Shorter or longer?

A

Laterally; longer flange

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48
Q

What is the denture distal extension limited by in posterior alvelolingual sulcus area?

A

Palatoglossus and superior constrictor

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49
Q

Provides support for denture in mand
Lies perpendicular to occlusal forces
Buccinator attaches here

A

Buccal shelf

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50
Q

What is the most common frenectomy done?

A

Labial frenectomy

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51
Q

Where is the most common area to see hypermobile ridge?

A

Anterior maxilla

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52
Q

COmmon when large tuberosities touch RM pads
Can interfere with denture construction by limiting interarch space
Corrected by surgical excision of fibrous tissue and/or bone

A

Fibrous (pendulous) tuberosity

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53
Q

Multiple papillary projections of palate caused by local irritation, ill-fitting denture, poor oral hygiene, and leaving dentures in all the time
Candidiasis is the main cause
Treat with OHI, leave dentures out at night, soak dentures in 1% bleach and rinse thoroughly, use tissue conditioner, and brush irritated area lightly with soft brush

A

Papillary hyperplasia

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54
Q

What are the 5 components of combinatiion syndrome?

A

Specific bone resorption in anterior maxilla
Overgrowth of tuberosities
Papillary hyperplasia
Extrusion of lower anterior teeth
Loss of bone under the partial denture bases

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55
Q

Unknown etiology, bone resorption and repair leading to deformities
Denture not fitting hat not fitting

A

Paget’s ds

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56
Q

Are horizontal or vertical bone grafts more likely to work for bone augmentation?

A

Horizontal

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57
Q

The following things are due to ____ VD0
-Excessive display of mand teeth
-Muscles of mastication fatigue
-CLicking of posterior teeth when speaking
Strained appearance of lips
Pt unable to wear dentrues
Discomfort
Excessvie trauma to supporting tissues
Gagging

A

Excessive VDO

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58
Q

The following things are due to ____ VD0
-Aging appearance of lower third of face bc of thin lips, wrinkles, chin too near the nose, overlapping corners of mouth
Diminished occlusal force
Angular chelitis

A

Insufficient VDO

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59
Q

_______ refers to distal space created between max and mand occlusal surfaces when the mand is protruded, due to downward and forward movement of condyles down their articular eminences

A

Christensen’s phenomenon

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60
Q

_____ imaginary line from ala of nose to tragus of ear

A

Camper’s line

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61
Q

_____ occlusion for CDs refers to simultaneous anterior and bilateral posterior contacts (tripodization) in centric and eccentric movements to maintain seating of dentures
-Don’t want anterior guidance

A

Balanced occlusion

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62
Q

____ occlusion is where only the palatal cusps of max posterior teeth contact the mand posterior teeth theroeritcally eliminating the destabilizing buccal force vectors

A

Lingualized occlusion

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63
Q

Angle obtained from nonworking side condyle has moved anteriorly and medially relative to sagittal plane

A

Bennet angle

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64
Q

Lateral movement of mand toward working side during lateral excursions

A

Bennet shift

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65
Q

Lateral movement of both condyles toward the working side, basically “TMJ looseness”

A

Bennet movement

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66
Q

Factors that favor disclusion:
Steep or shallow anterior guidance

A

Steep anterior guidance

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67
Q

Factors that favor disclusion:
Steep por shallow horizontal condylar inclincation

A

Steep horizontal condylar inclination

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68
Q

Factors that favor disclusion:
Less or more bennet movement

A

Less bennet movement (side shift)

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69
Q

Factors that favor disclusion:
Short cusps with shallow inclines or tall cusps with steep inclines

A

Short with shallow inclines

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70
Q

Factors that favor disclusion:
Less or more curve of spee /wilson

A

Less curve of spee/ wilson

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71
Q

Factors that favor disclusion:
more of less Parallel occlusal plane to condylar path

A

Less parallel

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72
Q

Which direction does the inclination of teeth move as you go distally in curve of spee?

A

More mesial inclination

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73
Q

Which direction does the inclincation of teeth move as you go distally in curve of wilson?

A

MOre lingual inclination

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74
Q

WHat do fricative sounds tell about CDs?

A

Incisal edge position on lips

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75
Q

If a pt whistles when using sibiliant sounds, what is the problem?

A

Narrow arch form

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76
Q

HOw much interincisal space should be present with sibiliant sounds?

A

1-1.5 mm

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77
Q

Resitance to vertical seating forces

A

Support

78
Q

What are the structures in upper arch that provide support?

A

Palate
Alveolar ridge

79
Q

What are the structures in lower arch that provide support?

A

Retromolar pad
Buccal shelf

80
Q

What part of the denture provides support?

A

Denture base

81
Q

Resitatnce to horizontal disloding forces

A

Stability

82
Q

What are the portions of the upper and lower arches that provide stability?

A

Ridge height
Depth of vestivule

83
Q

What portion of the denture provides stability?

A

Denture flange

84
Q

Resistance to vertical dislodging forces

A

Retention

85
Q

Attraction of unlike molecules

A

Adhesion

86
Q

Clinging of like molecues

A

Cohesion

87
Q

Does thick and ropy saliva or thin watery saliva cause better retention?

A

Thin watery

88
Q

Combo of adhesion and cohesion forces that maintain film integrity
Water molecules are more attracted to each other than to surrounding air

A

Surface tension

89
Q

Disloding and sore spots are caused by _____ of dentrue

A

Overextension

90
Q

What is the best indicator for success of denture?

A

Ridge (square is better)

91
Q

What is methyl methacrylate in liquid for denture?

A

Monomer

92
Q

What is hydroquinone in liquid for denture?

A

inhibitor

93
Q

What is glycol dimethacrylate in liquid for denture?

A

Cross-linking agent

94
Q

What is Di-methyl-p-toluidine in liquid for denture?

A

Activator

95
Q

What is polymethyl methacrylate in powder for denture?

A

Polymer (powder)

96
Q

What is benzoyl peroxide in powder for denture?

A

Initiator

97
Q

What is slats of iron, cadmium, or organic dyes in powder for denture?

A

Pigment

98
Q

Does more polymerization shrinkage occur in case of excess monomer or polymer?

A

Excess monomer

99
Q

What is the proper ratio of monomer to polymer?

A

1:3

100
Q

What can occur in denture processing if resin is underpacked or heated too quickly?

A

Porosity

101
Q

WHICH kennedy class does not ever have any. modifications?

A

Class 4

102
Q

What is the maor fucntion of a major connector?

A

Rigidity

103
Q

Exclusive to max major connector
Scribing 0.5 mm rounded groove in cast at borders of major connector
Add strength and maintain tissue contact to prevent food impaction

A

Beading

104
Q

How deep does lingual vestibule need to be for lingual bar?

A

> or equal 7 mm

105
Q

What portion of RPD provides support?

A

Rest

106
Q

What 2 part of the direct retainer provides stability?

A

Recirporcal clasps and minor connector

107
Q

What part of the direct retainer provides retention?

A

Retentive clasp

108
Q

HOw many degrees should the clasp portion encircle the tooth?

A

At least 180 degrees

109
Q

___ clasp is a suprabulge clasp used when the undercut is adjacent to bounded edentuous space

A

Ring clasp

110
Q

What class lever system does an RPI create ideally in distal extension cases?

A

Class 2 lever

111
Q

_____ is used in RPDs for periodontally compromised and endo treated teeth to put less force on them

A

Wrought wire

112
Q

What are the 3 principles of tooth prep?

A

Biologic
Mechanical
Esthetic

113
Q

Where is the thinnest gingiva located in the mouth?

A

Lingual of molars and facial of premolars

114
Q

____ form: those featrues that prevent removal of crown by apical, horizontal, or oblique forces (occlusal forces)

A

Resistance form

115
Q

What feature of tooth prep does the operator have the most control?

A

Taper

116
Q

What is the minimum height in incisors?

A

3mm

117
Q

What is the minimum height of molars?

A

4 mm

118
Q

What is the minimum height to base ratio for tooth preps?

A

0.4

119
Q

Is height or width more important for tooth prep?

A

Height

120
Q

Resistance or retention form?
What do buccal grooves placed in short crown preps help?

A

Retention

121
Q

Resistance or retention form?
What do proximal grooves help?

A

Resistance form

122
Q

What is the minimum connector height for PFM connectors?

A

3mm

123
Q

Absorption of water

A

Imbition

124
Q

Loss of water

A

Syneresis

125
Q

_____ impression material
-Water byproduct
Moisture tolerant (hydrophobic and syneresis)
-30-45 mintues to pour

A

Polysulfide rubber

126
Q

What is the polysulfide impression material by product?

A

Water byproduct

127
Q

What is the Condensation silicone impression material byproduct?

A

Alcohol

128
Q

Very stable but easily influenced by water and humidity
-Hydrophilic and humidity
-Very stiff and easy to break teeth on cast
60 minutes to pout

A

POlyether

129
Q

Which impression material undergoes imbitiion? swells with water

A

POlyether

130
Q

Which impression material undergoes syneresis (water loss)?

A

Polysulfide

131
Q

Alcohol byproduct, which causes shrinnkage of the impression when evaporated
30 mins to pout

A

Condesation silicone

132
Q

No byproducts
Best fine detail, elastic recovery, dimensional stability
Inhibited by sulfur in latex gloves and rubber dam

A

Addition silicone (PVS)

133
Q

Which impression material is inhibited by rubber dam and latex gloves?

A

Addition silicone (PVS)

134
Q

MIned as calcium-sulfate dihydrate
Manufactured with heat to get rid of some water to become calcium-sulfate hemihydrate

A

Gypsum

135
Q

Type _____ gypsum
IMpression plaster
Low expansion
For mounting casts in articulator
Sets quickly no time for expansion

A

Type 1 gypsum

136
Q

Type _____ gypsum
MOdel plaster
Used to make mouth guards and essix retainers

A

Type 2 gypsum

137
Q

Type _____ gypsum
Dental stone
Removable prostheses and diagnostic casts

A

Type 3 gypsum

138
Q

Type _____ gypsum
Dental stone High strength low expansion
-largely regarded as best stone
Best abrasion resistance
Least gauging water
Least amount of expansion
Used for fabrication of dies

A

Type 4 gypsum

139
Q

Type _____ gypsum
Dental stone High strenth and expansion
Used for fabrication of dies

A

Type 5 gypsum

140
Q

Which gypsum material is strongest?

A

Type 5

141
Q

Which gypsum is weakest

A

Type 1

142
Q

Which gypsum has most porosity?

A

Type 1

143
Q

Which gypsum has least porosity?

A

Type 5

144
Q

The following are ___ metals
Gold
Platinum
Palladium

A

Noble metals

145
Q

____ metal can cause greening of porcelain

A

Silver

146
Q

Type ___ gold
Softer
98-99% gold
Used for class 5 restorations

A

Type 1 gold

147
Q

Type ___ gold
77% gold
Inlays

A

Type 2 gold

148
Q

Type ___ gold
72% gold
Crowns

A

Type 3 gold

149
Q

Type ___ gold
69% gold
RPD castings

A

Type 4 gold

150
Q

Which type of gold is strongest and has least amount of gold within?

A

Type 4 gold

151
Q

ABility to resist fracture to compression

A

Compressive strength

152
Q

Ability to resist fracture during pullling

A

Tensile strength

153
Q

Abiliity to resist fracture during bending

A

Flexural strength

154
Q

Ability to resist propagation of a crack
Zirconia has the best

A

Fracture toughness

155
Q

Measure of stiffness or rigidity
Stress divided by strain
Sustain deformation without permanent change in size or shape

A

Modulus of Elasticity/Elastic Modulus

156
Q

Fractures easily without substantial dimensional change
High modulus of elasticity
Ex: Porcelain

A

Brittle

157
Q

Deforms easily under tensile strength
-Does not break easily but doesn’t spring back to normal shape
Wires are prime example
Low modulus of elasticity

A

Ductile

158
Q

Deforms easily under compressive stress
GOld is prime example

A

Malleability

159
Q

Ability to be burnished
Contact stress locally exceeds the yield strength of the material
Gold is a good example

A

Percentage elongation

160
Q

Measures the fractional change in size per degree in temp (material shrinks or expands with temp changes)

A

Coefficient of thermal expansion

161
Q

A higher CTE means more or less likely to change?

A

More likely to change

162
Q

Rank the CTe of the following mateirals from highest to lowest
Tooth
Ceramic
MEtal
COmposite

A

Composite
Metal
Tooth
Ceramic
C o(metol) T E(cEramic)

163
Q

Do you want high or low elastic modulus?

A

HIgh elastic modulus

164
Q

Are noble metals more or less resistant to corrosion?

A

MOre corrosion resistant

165
Q

Is PMMA used for direct or indirect provisional crown method?

A

Indirect (exothermic)

166
Q

Is bisacryl used for direct or indirect provisional crown method?

A

Direct

167
Q

_____ in provisional cements that inhibits polymerization of resin

A

Eugenol

168
Q

HOw much reduction is done in gingival third for porcelain veneer?

A

0.3 mm

169
Q

HOw much reduction is done in facial third for procelain veneer?

A

0.5 mm

170
Q

Do you want to get into dentin for porcelain veneers?

A

LIke to stay in enamel

171
Q

What is the main problem with Maryland bridge?

A

Debonding

172
Q

Color family

A

Hue

173
Q

Saturation or intensity of color

A

Chroma

174
Q

LIghtness or darkness

A

Value

175
Q

Which portion of shade isithe most important?

A

Value

176
Q

Color appears different under different lighting

A

Metamerism

177
Q

Light effect of a translucent material appearing blue in reflected light and red-orange in transmittetd light

A

Opalescence

178
Q

What is the first thing to do when getting a crown back?

A

Check shade/esthetics

179
Q

Dental cement
Phosphoric acid irritates pulp
Mix on chilled glass slab due to exothermic rxn
One of oldest cements

A

Zinc phosphate

180
Q

Dental cement
Chelation to calcium
Minimal pulp irritation

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

181
Q

Dental cements
Adheres to enamel and dentin
Releases fluoride

A

Glass ionomer

182
Q

Dental cements
Higher strength and lower solubility than GI
Not to used with all ceramic crowns due to expansion from water absorption
-one of best cements on market

A

RMGI

183
Q

Dental cements
Most compressive strength
Bonds to dentin
Light cure, chem cure, or dual cure

A

Resin

184
Q

Is light cure cement or dual cure m ore color stable for veneers?

A

LIght cure

185
Q

Is an impression a negative or positive reproduction of the teeth?

A

Negative

186
Q

Is a cast/die a negative or positive reproduction of the teeth?

A

Positive

187
Q

Gypsum-bonded investments are used to make ___ crowns

A

Gold: G

188
Q

Phosphate-bonded investments are used to make ___ crowns

A

PFM: P

189
Q

Silica-bonded investments are used to make ___ crowns

A

BaSe metal: S

190
Q

What causes shrinkage porosity of metal in lab processing?

A

Sprue being too thin

191
Q

What causes back-pressure porosity of metal in lab processing?

A

Sprue being too short

Boards Prep (21 decks)

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