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Boards Prep > Patient Management (Mental dental) > Flashcards

Patient Management (Mental dental) Flashcards

1
Q

Respect pt’s right to self determination and privacy
Treat pt according to pt’s desire within the bounds of acceptable treatment
Safeguard the confidentiality of pt records

A

Autonomy

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2
Q

Do no harm
Keep skills and knowledge up to date thru CE
Know your limitations and refer difficult cases to specialists

A

Nonmalfiecene

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3
Q

Professionals have a duty to act for the benefit of others
Provide service to the patient and the public at large
Promote pt’s welfare
Same ethical standard exists no matter the financial agreement

A

Beneficience

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4
Q

Be fair in dealings with pts, colleagues, and society
Deal with people fairly and deliver dental care without
Never slander another dental professional

A

Justice

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5
Q

Be honest and trustworthy in dealings with public
Respect position of trust inherent in the dentist-pt relationship
Must not represent care being rendered, fees being charged, or any form of advertising in a false or misleading manner

A

Veracity

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6
Q

DUirng clinical interviewing, which type of questions should you never use? Leading, open ended or close ended?

A

Leading

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7
Q

_____ is part of behavior change that facilitates the behavior

A

Antecedent

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8
Q

What are the 5 stages of behavior change?

A

Precontemplation
Contemplation
Preparation
Action
Maintenance

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9
Q

____ stage of change:
not considering behavior change

A

Precontemplation

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10
Q

____ stage of change:
Begins to consider behavior change

A

Contemplation

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11
Q

____ stage of change:
Preparaing to take steps to change, often expresses a desire to change

A

Preparation

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12
Q

____ stage of change:
Engaged in taking action towards behavior change, often requires support

A

Action

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13
Q

____ stage of change:
Attempts to maintain a changed behavior

A

Maintenance

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14
Q

____ part of the social cognitive theory
Cognitive perception that you can execute behaviors necessary for a given situation

A

Self-efficacy

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15
Q

____ reinforcement: do a good thing and remove a bad stimulus

A

Negative reinforcement

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16
Q

_____ reinforcement: do a good thing and get rewarded

A

Positive reinforcement

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17
Q

____ punishment: do a bad thing and get punished

A

Positive punishment

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18
Q

____ punishment: do a bad thing and remove a good stimulus

A

Negative punishment

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19
Q

_____: setting small attainable goals and rewarding yourself after each step

A

Shaping

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20
Q

_____: making a behavior that has a higher profitablility of being performed contingent on a behavior that has a lower probability of being performed

A

Premack principle

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21
Q

What are the Motivational interviewing OARS principles?

A

Open quesitons
Affirmations
Reflective listening
Summarizing

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22
Q

______: deep breathing triggers physiologic relaxation response
PNS

A

Diaphragmatic breathing

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23
Q

______: tensing and relaxing certain muscle groups focusing on the difference between tension and relaxation

A

Progressive muscle relaxation

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24
Q

______: exposing pt to items from an agreed upon hierarchy of slowly increasing feared stimuli allowing them to pair a relaxation response with a feared stimuli

A

Systematic desensitization/graded exposre

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25
Q

The study of the distribution and determinants of ds

A

Epidemiology

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26
Q

What epidemiologic measures is irreversible?

A

DMFT

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27
Q

_____ uses for surfaces on six indicator teeth to determine amount of inflammation, redness, BOP of gingiva

A

Gingival index

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28
Q

What is the most common site for oral cancer?

A

Tongue

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29
Q

____ prevention: prevents ds bedore it occurs: sealants and water fluoridation

A

Primary prevention

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30
Q

_____ prevention: eliminates or reduces ds after it occurs: restorations

A

Secondary

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31
Q

____ prevention: rehabs pt after a ds has taken place: prosth

A

Tertiary prevention

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32
Q

What portion of teeth are topical fluorides best for?

A

Smooth surfaces

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33
Q

What is the toxic dose of fluoride in mg/kg?

A

5 mg/kg

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34
Q

What is the lethal dose of fluoride in g for an adult?

A

5 g

35
Q

_____: proportion of a given population that is affected by a condition at a given time

A

Prevalence

36
Q

____: survey or measurement taken to represent a snapshot in time: prevalence

A

Cross-sectional study

37
Q

_________: ppl with a condition are compared to ppl without it in the past: odds ratio

A

Case control Study

38
Q

______: cohort follwed thru time to see who develops a ds, incidence and relative risk

A

Prospective cohort

39
Q

_____: look back after following the cohort and decide what ds you want to look for: incidence and relative risk

A

Retrospective cohort study

40
Q

Does the retrospective cohort or case control look back at a ds and determine what risk facotrs exist that caused the ds?

A

Case control

41
Q

Does the retrospective cohort or case control look back at a ds and determine what exposure factors exist that caused the ds?

A

Case control

42
Q

____ test: measures the association btwn 2 categorical values

A

Chi Squeed test

43
Q

____ test: measures the statistical difference between 2 means, small sample size

A

T-test

44
Q

____ test: measures the statistical difference between 2 means, large sample sample size, variance is known

A

Z test

45
Q

_____ test: used to test differences btwn 2 or more means

A

Anova test

46
Q

_____: statisstical measure that represents the strength of relationship btwn two quantitiative varieable

A

Correlation coefficient

47
Q

_____: probaility that 2 variables are unprelated

A

Satistical significane (p value)

48
Q

What Hep viruses are transmitted fecal oral?

A

A and E (fEcAl)

49
Q

What hep viruses are transmitted via contaminated blood?

A

B and C (Contaminated Blood)

50
Q

Which hep is transmitted via direct contact prior infection with Hep B?

A

Hep D

51
Q

30% risk of transmission after percutaneous injury
DNA virus
Vax available
PEP includes vax and possible iG

A

Hep B

52
Q

1.8% risk of transmission after percutaneous injury
RNA virus
No Vax available
PEP now available

A

Hep C

53
Q

0,3% risk of transmission after percutaneous injury
RNA virus
Dx via when antibodies are detected in blood via ELISA
No Vax available
PEP includes course of antivirals

A

HIV

54
Q

Inhalation of infected droplet nuclei
Dx by symptoms, sputum culture, chest xray, or a positive TB skin test
Pt with active TB should not be seen for elective dental care
Health care workers should have a TB skin test at least once a year

A

TB

55
Q

How often should a healthcare worker have a tb skin test be done?

A

ONce a year

56
Q

What office personnel is most at risk for eye injury?

A

Dentist

57
Q

Protets healthcare professionals from occupational hazards
ALl dental workers must be offered a free HBV vax
Any dental worker who experiences needle stick must get report, eval, and follow up
Clothing worn at work must not be washed at home
HazCom

A

OSHA

58
Q

Established max exposure levels for Hg vapor
Regulates transportation of dental waste from dental offices

A

EPA

59
Q

Destruction of all life forms including bacteria, viruses, and spores

A

Sterlization

60
Q

How does autoclave work? Temp, pressure, and time; how it destorys bacteria

A

121 C, 15 psi 30 mins; destorys via denaturatoin

61
Q

How does dry heat sterlization work? Temp time and how it destroys bacteria

A

160 C for 60 mins: Destorys bacteria by coagulation

62
Q

_____ used on inanimate objects
Spores are not destoryed in this process, but Mycobacterium tb is
Let sit for 10 misn

A

Disinfection

63
Q

Used on living tissue to reduce bacterial load
- Alcohol, CHX, Detergents, Quats

A

Antisepsis

64
Q

______: (spaulding classification system):
COntacts sterile tissue or vascular system
Requires sterilization
Ex: needles

A

Critical

65
Q

______: (spaulding classification system):
Contacts mucosa
Minimum of high level disinfection but sterilization if material is heat stable
Ex: mouth mirror

A

Semi-critical

66
Q

______: (spaulding classification system):
Contacts skin
Requires disinfection
Ex: blood pressure cuff

A

Noncritical

67
Q

______:
Muscle weakness
Loss of hair
Weight loss/ GI ulcers
Exhaustion

A

Acute mercury toxicity

68
Q

___ airborne particles: visible more than 50 microns, fall within 3 feet of pt’s mouth can carry blood borne pathogen

A

Splatter

69
Q

___ airborne particles: invisible less than 50 microns: remain floating in air for hours can only carry resp infections

A

Aerosols

70
Q

EPA requires less than or equal to ____ CFU of heterotrophic bacteria per mL of water

A

Less than 500 CFU

71
Q

Who is responsivle for MSDS?

A

Manufacturer

72
Q

_____: dentist is paid a flat fee for each pt seen
Paid on capitation plan

A

HMO

73
Q

IN an HMO, of value of service is greater than payment, is it dentist’s loss or gain?

A

Dentist loss

74
Q

IN an HMO, of value of service is less than payment, is it dentist’s loss or gain?

A

Dentist gain

75
Q

(Fraud terms) The separation of a dental procedure into component parts

A

Unbundling

76
Q

(Fraud terms) the combining of distinct dental procedures

A

Bundling

77
Q

(Fraud terms) reporting a more complex or higher cost procedure than was actually performed

A

Upcoding

78
Q

(Fraud terms) code changed to a less complex or lower cost procedure than was reported

A

Downcoding

79
Q

(Fraud terms) charging more than legally or ethically acceptable

A

Overbilling

80
Q

Panel of providers agree to accept less than usual fees in exchange for higher volume of pts, since subscribers to this plan have a financial incentive to use providers from this panel

A

PPO

81
Q

What gov agency should you contact in case of suspected elder abuse?

A

HHS

82
Q

Headstart is under what gov agency?

A

ACF

83
Q

Does medicare cover dental care?

A

NOpe

84
Q

What type of sterilization is least likely to dull and corrode carbide instruments?

A

Dry heat

Boards Prep (21 decks)

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