Oral Med Flashcards

1
Q

What form of congenital heart defect needs abx prophy?

A

Cyanotic
5 that start wit T

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2
Q

What drug is used in pt’s that have a pen allergy for abx prophy?

A

Azithromycin

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3
Q

COndition where kidneys are unable to retain water
Body can’t produce or react to ADH properly
Polydipsia and polyuria

A

Diabetes Insipidus

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4
Q

ESRD that is undergoing dialysis is what ASA class?

A

ASA 3

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5
Q

What should be done for a pt that is choking and unconscious?

A

CPR

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6
Q

What should be used to check pulse in children?

A

Carotid

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7
Q

What should be used to check pulse in infants and babies?

A

Brachial artery

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8
Q

Pt is overweight, has elevated Hb, peripheral edema, coughing and wheezing: what we got here?

A

Chronic bronchitis

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9
Q

Does chronic bronchitis affect inspiration or expiration?

A

Both

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10
Q

Does emphysema affect inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration

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11
Q

Pt is older and thin, severe dyspnea, quiet chest, xray hyperinflation with flattened diaphragm?

A

Emphysema

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12
Q

What are the 4 classes of drugs that can be used to treat COPD?

A

Anticholinergics (Tropiums)
Beta-Adrengergic Agonists (Epi, albuterol)
Corticosteroids (Prednisone)
Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors (Theophylline)
ABCD

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13
Q

What are the 5 classes of drugs that can be used to treat asthma?

A

Antihistamines (Diphenhydramine)
Beta-adrenergiic agonist (Epi, albuterol)
Corticosteroids (prednisone)
Decongestant (Pseudophedrine)
Leukotriene Rc Antagonists (Montelukast)

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14
Q

What is Cushing’s syndrome main hormone effect?

A

Increased Cortisol

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15
Q

What hormone is the sign of primary Cushing’s?

A

Increased cortisol

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16
Q

What hormone is sign of secondary Cushing’s?

A

INcreased ACTH

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17
Q

What hormone is sign of tertiaryCushing’s?

A

INcreased CRH

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18
Q

Moon facies, buffalo hump, central obesity, HTN, Hypercalcemia, and mood changes/chronic tiredness are symptoms of _____

A

Cushings

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19
Q

What is the condition where cortisol is less very decreased?

A

Addison’s ds

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20
Q

Hyperpigmentation, Immuncompromised, fatigue, muscle weakness, and weight loss are symtoms of _____

A

Addison’s ds

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21
Q

What is the biggest concern in an Addisonian crisis?

A

Hypovolemic shock

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22
Q

What are the 4 phases of hemostasis in order?

A

Vascular (vasoc)
Platelet plug
Coagulation
Fibrinolytic

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23
Q

What are the 2 extrinsic clotting factors?

A

3 and 7

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24
Q

What are ht e 3 intrinsic factors of coag?

A

12, 11, 9

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25
Q

What are the 3 comon pathway clotting factors?

A

10, 2, 1

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26
Q

What clotting factor and pathway does Hemophilia A affect?

A

Factor 8 intrinsic pathway

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27
Q

What clotting factor and pathway does Hemophilia B affect?

A

Factor 9 intrinsic pathway

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28
Q

What clotting factor and pathway does Hemophilia C affect?

A

Factor 11 intrinsic pathway

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29
Q

What are the vitamin K dependent clotting facotrs?

A

2, 7, 9, 10

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30
Q

Von willebrand ds affects what clotting factor?

A

Factor 8 (intrinsic)

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31
Q

_____ drug pulls thrombin and anti-thrombin together blocking factor 2

A

Heparin

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32
Q

____ drug inhibits factor Xa

A

Apaxiban

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33
Q

____ drug directly binds to thrombin (Factor IIa)

A

Dabigatran

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34
Q

Does aPTT test intrinsic or extrinsic coag?

A

Intrisic

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35
Q

Does PT/INR test extrinsic or intrinsic coag?

A

Extrinsic

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36
Q

How does use of Marijuana affect heart rate?

A

Tachycardia

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37
Q

____ drug blocks reuptake of dopamine, serotonin, and NE
Abuse can lead to tachycardia, arrhythmias, HTN, pupil dilation, heart attack or stroke

A

Cocaine

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38
Q

Do amphetamines increase or decrease CNS?

A

Increaase

39
Q

DO opiods cause xerostomia?

A

No

40
Q

________ are a class of drugs that stimulate the central nervous system for the purpose of managing attention deficit hyperactivity disorder; also promote weight loss by causing appetite suppression. Amphetamines are also are used to manage daytime sleepiness due to narcolepsy and are associated with depression due to withdrawal.

A

Amphetamines

41
Q

Autoantibodies that target the TSH rc and stimulate the release of thyroid hormone
Fatigue, nervousness, heat intolerance, weight loss, tachycardia, exophthalmos, goiter

A

Graves ds

42
Q

Stress leads to tachycardia, a fib, sudden fever, sweating, and loss of consciousness
Tx w/ hydrocortisone, glucose, and propylthiouracil

A

Thyrotoxic crisis

43
Q

The following are symptoms of ______:
Weight gain, cold intolerance, bradycardia, goiter, Wormian bones

A

Hypothyroidism

44
Q

____ is severe hypothyroidism in children seen w/ severely stunted physical and mental growth

A

Cretinism

45
Q

____ is associated with severe hypotension
Stress leads to bradycardia, severe hypotension, low body temp
Tx: Levothyroxine, glucose

A

Myxedematous coma

46
Q

_____ involves multiple neuromas, medullary thyroid carcinoma, and pheochromomcytoma of the adrenal gland

A

MEN2

47
Q

What organ is the most common site of origin for metastasis to the thyroid gland

A

Kidney

48
Q

Which thyroid condition is assc with delayed eruption of teeth, macroglossia, xerostomia, and radiating pain

A

Hypothyroidism

49
Q

The following are signs of _____:
Kidney stones, painful bones, ab groans, psychiatirc moans
Browns tumors
Generalized loss of lamina dura
Salt and pepper
Elevated alkaline phosphatase levels
Loss of bone trabeculation

A

Hyperparathyroidism

50
Q

The following are signs of _____:
Paresthesai and tetany
RO in skull by basal ganglia
Pitted enamel hypoplasia
Late eruption
Dilaceration
Increased RO in jaws

A

Hypoparathyoidism

51
Q

In case of hyperparathyroidism, how is Ca affected?

A

iNcreased ca in blood and less accumulation in bone

52
Q

In case of hypoparathyroidism, how is Ca affected?

A

Increased Ca in bone and less in blood

53
Q

_______ presents in pregnancy is assc w/ high blood pressure, proteinuria, edema, and blurred vision

A

Preeclampsia

54
Q

Are cat A good or bad for pregnancy?

A

Good

55
Q

Cat D pregnancy drugs good or bad?

A

Bad

56
Q

If preg pt, how ot treat supine hypotension syndrome?

A

Roll on left side

57
Q

Oral manifestaions of _____
Gingivitis
Increased caries risk
Pyogenic granuloma
SInus congestion
Dental eriosion
Hypersensitive gag reflex

A

Preg

58
Q

Are HDL or LDL better for you?

A

HDL

59
Q

Oral manifestations of _____
Increased calcification in pulp chamber
Muscle pain and weakness
INcreased Perio Ds

A

High cholesterol and Statins

60
Q

What is most common H and N cancer?

A

SCC

61
Q

Is HIV RNA or DNA virus?

A

RNA retrovirus

62
Q

What is the CD4 count assc with AIDS?

A

<200

63
Q

What is the main Dx test for HIV?

A

ELISA

64
Q

What is the main bacteria involved in peptic ulcers?

A

H Pylori

65
Q

What is the second leading cause of peptic ulcers?

A

Chronic NSAID use

66
Q

What sleep cycle does obstructive events typically happen in children?

A

REM sleep

67
Q

What oral finding is seen in the following conditions?
Pierre Robin sequence
Treacher collins
Craniofacial microsomia

A

Mandibular hypoplasia

68
Q

What oral finding is seen in the following conditions?
MEN2B
Abeckman Wideman’s syndrome
Amyloidosis
Acromegaly
Hypothyroidism

A

Macroglossia

69
Q

What is the classification system to determine size of tonsils?

A

Brodsky score

70
Q

WHat Ig is the most common? Principal antibody?

A

IgG

71
Q

What Ig is the first responder?

A

IgM

72
Q

What Ig is in saliva?

A

IgA

73
Q

What 2 Heps are fecal oral?

A

A and E

74
Q

What 2 Heps are got from contaminated blood?

A

C and B

75
Q

2-6 week incubation period
Acute rapid onset
Doesn’t lead to chronic ds or carrier state
Jaundice, fever, malaise, loss of appetit, nausea
Vax available

A

Hep A

76
Q

High risk transmission
1-6 month incubation
DNA virus (Dane particle)
Jaundice, fever, malaise, loss of appetite, nausea
Vax available
OSHA requres that employers make the vax freely available to employees occupationally exposed to blood
PEP available

A

Hep B

77
Q

What form of Hep is the only DNA virus?

A

Hep B

78
Q

What form of Hep does OSHA require that employers make the vax freely available?

A

Hep B

79
Q

Most common bloodborne pathogen in US
Low risk of transmission
2 week-6 month incubation period
Usually asymptomatic
No vax available, but tx is

A

Hep C

80
Q

Oral manifestations of ____
Jaundice, petechiae, fetor hepaticus, atrophic glossitis, xerostomia, lichen planus, hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Liver dysfunction

81
Q

Which Hep is a superinfection assc with another hep virus?

A

Hep D

82
Q

The oral manfestations of ____ are:
Leukoplakia
SCC
Nictotinic stomatitis
Smoker’s melanosis
Hairy tongue
Halitosis
Smokeless tobacco keratosis
Perio ds

A

Smoking

83
Q

The following drugs are used to tx _____:
Isoniazid

A

Latent TB

84
Q

The following drugs are used to tx _____:
Isoniazid
Rifampin
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

A

Active TB

85
Q

______
Acid fast bacillus
Co infection with HIV common
Spread via droplet nuclei

A

TB

86
Q

____ is the TB skin test

A

Mantoux skin test

87
Q

Are dental employees requred to get a TB test prior to beginning work?

A

Yes

88
Q

ORal manifestations of _____
Ulcer
Tuberculous osteomyelitis
Scrofula

A

TB

89
Q

Cancer of plasma cells
-IgG, IgA, IgD
Bone resorption and bone marrow replacement
Anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia
Death by infection or renal failure
Elderly

A

Multiple myeloma

90
Q

Bence-JOnes protein found in urine is suggestive of _____

A

Multiple myeloma

91
Q

The following drugs tx ____
Thalidomide
Borrtexomib
Bisphosphonates

A

Multiple myeloma

92
Q

Oral manifestations of _____:
PUnched out RL
Amyloidosis of tongue
Paresthesia
Dysphagias

A

Multiple myeloma

93
Q

Oral manifestations of ____:
Oral submucous fibrosis
SCC
Attrition
Gingival recession
Extrinsic staining
NOT XEROSTOMIA

A

Betel quid

94
Q

Seed of areca palm fruit
Quid= leaf package for chewing
CNS stimulant similar to cocaine

A

Betel nut/quid