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Boards Prep > Oral Path and Radio: Bootcamp > Flashcards

Oral Path and Radio: Bootcamp Flashcards

1
Q

If a pathological biopsy reveals cells with duct-like structures in a background of myxoid stroma, that cells are most likely to have proliferated?

A

Myoepithelial

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2
Q

Where are granular cell tumors most commonly located in the oral cavity?

A

ANterior tongue

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3
Q

IF a biopsy revelas the following, what is it?
-Dome shaped tumor, keratin pearls, and hyperchromatic nuclei

A

Keratocanthoma

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4
Q

Common dentoalveolar anomalies associated with _______

supernumerary teeth
missing teeth
ectopic teeth
crossbite
retrusive maxilla
oro-nasal fistulas.

A

cleft lip and palate:

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5
Q

What is the treatment for a traumatic bone cyst?

A

Curretage

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6
Q

IF an amalgam filling is placed and gingiva surrounding presents erythematous and with white striae, what should you do?

A

Remove amalgam

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7
Q

iF an HIV + pt presents with a white plaque on lateral borders of the tongue that can’t be wiped off, what caused it?

A

EBV
(Candida can be wiped off)

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8
Q

Cytomegalovirus is assc with what HHV virus?

A

HHV 5

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9
Q

WHat causes the blue hue of a mucocele?

A

Vascular congestion

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10
Q

Histology of the excisional biopsy of the lesion reveals lots of granulation tissue and multinucleated giant cells

What is this lesion?

A

Peripheral giant cell granuloma
(Pyogenic granuloma does not have multinucleated giant cells0

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11
Q

What bacteria typically causes erysipelas?

A

Strep pyogenes

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12
Q

If a pt has a lesion suspicous of herpetic ulcer, what type of biopsy technique should be used?

A

Cytological smear

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13
Q

Is a ranula trauma related or due to a sialolith?

A

Trauma

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14
Q

WHat cell is malfunctioning in the case of a OKC?

A

Basal cells

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15
Q

WHat cell is malfunctioning in the case of a Langerhans cell histiocytosis?

A

Dendritic cells

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16
Q

WHat cell is malfunctioning in the case of a central ossifying fibroma?

A

fibroblasts

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17
Q

WHat cell is malfunctioning in the case of a osteoblastomas?

A

Osteoblasts

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18
Q

What Dx has Verocay bodies in Antoni-A areas?

A

Schwannoma

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19
Q

IF a pt is on cyclophosphoamide, what is the pt more likely to have an infection of?

A

Herp zoster

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20
Q

When Can pregnant pts receive radiographs?

A

At any point during pregnancy

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21
Q

What is the radiographic presentation of sickle cell anemia?

A

Step ladder trabeculae

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22
Q

Which of the following causes contrast differences in radiographs?
Size of sensor
Exposure time
Beam collimation
mAs

A

Beam collimation

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23
Q

Where are structures that appear as double images positioned in a pano?

A

Near midline

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24
Q

What is the best radiographic modality when a pt is experiencing trismus and limited mouth opening?

A

Pano

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25
Q

IN the case of a subcondylar fracture, what direction is the condyle being pulled?

A

Anteriorly and medially by lateral pterygoid

26
Q

If an impacted tooth is resorbing an already erupted tooth, what type of resorption is happening?

A

External inflammatory resorption

27
Q

What is the best imaging modality to locate a broken needle that has gone into the submand space?

A

Occlusal or CT

28
Q

What is the first line treatment for a pt with ectodermal dysplasia

A

Ortho

29
Q

___________ is a neurological disorder that can result in recurrent facial paralysis, granulomatous swelling of the lips and face, and a fissured tongue. This syndrome usually becomes evident in young children and adolescents, and the cause is unknown.

A

Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome

30
Q

__________ is a rapidly progressive muscle weakness caused by immune-mediated peripheral nervous system inflammation. It involves progressive muscle weakness beginning in the extremities that spreads proximally.
-Usually preceeded by an infection

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS)

31
Q

The disease process characteristic of tuberculosis is an example of which type of necrosis?

A

Caseous

32
Q

This is the most common type of necrosis. It usually occurs due to hypoxia and results in the coagulation of proteins. One important thing to note is that tissue architecture is maintained
-This type of necrosis can occur in all cells of the body except for the brain.

A

Coagulative necrosis

33
Q

The main mechanism involved in this necrosis is enzymatic destruction. This, as the name suggests, leads to liquefaction and loss of tissue architecture. This type of necrosis usually occurs in the brain or as a result of bacterial infection.

A

LIquefactive necrosis

34
Q

Cafe Au Lait spots are present in what syndrome?

A

McCune Albright

35
Q

What is the maximum viral load count of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) considered to be “undetectable” in a patient?

A

<50 copies/mL

36
Q

Background and/or Patient History
Optic glioma
Patient has vision loss in the right eye

Current Findings
Multiple pigmented lesions on the patient’s iris
Pigmented lesion seen on the patient’s arm

A

Neurofibromatosis type 1

37
Q

Which ganglion is HSV latent in?

A

Trigeminal gang

38
Q

_______ is a condition of possible autoimmune or familial origin characterized by hypopigmentation of the skin due to an acquired loss of melanocytes. This condition causes areas of patching with loss of skin pigmentation, usually appearing white or pink. This can occur on any location of the body, including the hair and the oral cavity.

A

Vitiligo

39
Q

_______ necrosis which describes tissue death caused by extreme ischemia, oftentimes localized to the extremities.

A

Gangrenous

40
Q

________ refers to high blood pressure that does not have a known or identifiable cause. It is also referred to as primary hypertension. This is the most common form of hypertension, with a prevalence of 90% for all hypertension cases.

A

Essential hypertension

41
Q

Each of the following are common features of multiple myeloma EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
Hypocalcemia
Anemia
Lytic bone lesions
Dence Jones Proteinuria

A

Hypocalcemia

42
Q

______ presents as an acute, large, doughy swelling that causes severe and generalized pain.

A

Cellulitis

43
Q

What can caused an enlarged tongue in Rheumatoid arthritis?

A

AMyloidosis

44
Q

An increase in stimulated salivary output is seen in which of the following conditions?
Sjogren’s syndrome
SLE
Lichen planus
Mononucleosis

A

Mononucleosis

45
Q

How do you handle a situation where a pt is symptomatic Tb and is seeking elective dental care?

A

Delay care until pt has been declared noninfectious by a physician

46
Q

Which of the following HPV strains are assc with oropharyngeal cancer?
2
6
11
16

A

HPV 16

47
Q

What lab value is increased in osteomalacia?

A

Alkaline phosphatase

48
Q

________ is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by the presence of lower lip pits and either cleft lip with/without cleft palate or isolated cleft palate. Lip pits form as a result of improper fusion of the four growth centers of the lower lip in fetal development. The patient has had repair of her cleft lip and lip pits, but has a persisting cleft palate.

A

Van der Woude syndrome

49
Q

What bacterial growth phase do abx ideally attack bacteria in?

A

Log phase

50
Q

The majority of bacteria in the oral cavity fall into which of the following temperature requirement categories?
Mesophile
Psychotroph
Thermophile
Hyperthermofile

A

Mesophile

51
Q

What bacteria causes infective endocarditis?

A

Strep viridans

52
Q

What are the oxygen requirements for the majority of the bacteria in the oral cavity?

A

Facultative anaerobe

53
Q

All of the following are microorganisms found in an odontogenic periapical radiolucency EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
Lactobacillus
Fusobacterium
Actinomyces
Enterofaecalis

A

Lactobacillus

54
Q

What should you do about scheduling a pt with erypsielas with an active infection?

A

Refer to PCP to get Abx prior to scheduling

55
Q

The bacterial enzyme glucosyltransferase, of Streptococcus mutans, produces which polysaccharide that contributes to the adherent properties of dental plaque?

A

Dextran

56
Q

What bacteria does clinda not have any activity against?

A

Pseudomonas aureginosa

57
Q

Which of the following types of cancer is most commonly associated with Epstein Barr virus?
ORal
Nasopharyngeal
Oropharyngeal
Salivery gland

A

Nasopharyngeal

58
Q

Does Cleidocranial dysplasia present with hypo or hyperdontia?

A

Hyperdontia

59
Q

Factor V leiden casuses what complication of the jaws?

A

Osteonecrosis

60
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis of the findings?
Current Findings
Right eye ptosis and miosis
Right-sided facial anhidrosis

A

Horner syndrome

61
Q

What is the treatment of choice for regional odontodysplasia?

A

Removable partial dentures

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