Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AJX Study > Prog check chapter 2/3 > Flashcards

Prog check chapter 2/3 Flashcards

1
Q

Standard Callouts & their Purpose?

A

There are 4 purposes of standard callouts. They are to provide and share information relating to: AS IF!

  • Altitude, position or speed
  • Significant deviation in flight path, speed or descent rates
  • Information to aid in judgement for making a landing or a missed approach
  • Flight and navigation instruments and autopilot system status

Standard callouts also serve the objective of:

  • To confirm information on altitude, position, speed and system status which does not require crew action
  • To enhance crew coordination, common recognition and fail safe functions
  • “10,000ft” To notify the PF of 250kts below 10,000ft
  • “5,000ft” To notify the PF that the maximum speed is now 300kts and the maximum rate of descent is 2,500 ft/m

The standard significant deviations on approach are:

  • G/S: More than one dot
  • LOC: More than 1/2 dot (more than 1 dot on the expanded scale)
    • More than 1/3 dot on normal scale (1/2 a dot on the expanded scale) after the “APPROACHING MINIMUM” callout CAT11/111
  • Sink rate: More than 1,000 ft./min below 1,000ft AGL
  • Airspeed: Above 10kts or less than 5kts from bug target speed below 1,000ft AGL with landing flap
  • AOM 3-1 (10) / AOR 2-1-9 (1)”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

PF duties?

A
  • The PF will take charge mainly to control airplane and monitor the flight conditions
  • General Duties: TFAN
    • Taxiing
    • Flight path & Airspeed control
    • Airplane Configuration
    • Navigation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

PM Duties?

A
  • The PM will take charge of mainly other than airplane control, monitor the flight conditions and PF’s operations, and make callouts and advice when necessary
  • General Duties: CCTM
    • Checklist Reading
    • Communications
    • Tasked asked by the PF
    • Monitoring Taxiing, Flight path, Airspeed, Airplane configuration, and Navigation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When do the ILS standard callouts start? & what are they?

A
  • Glideslope Alive
  • LLZ Capture
  • Glideslope Capture
  • Outer Marker or ___DME, ____ (feet)
  • Land 3/2 No Autoland
  • One Thousand
  • Five Hundred
  • _____ In Sight
  • Approaching Minimum
  • Minimum
  • Flare/No Flare, Idle/No Idle, Rollout/No Rollout
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Deviation Callouts?

A
  • Procedure Airway (XTK error FM LNAV 1xRNP or more)
    • COURSE or NM LEFT/RIGHT
  • AFTER FINAL DESCENT
    • VOR: Degree or DOT LEFT/RIGHT (More than 5’ or 1 DOT)
    • VNAV: GLIDE PATH (-50ft / -100ft)
  • AFTER 1,000ft AFE
    • BANK (Exceeds 30’)
    • AIRSPEED or VREF +/- kt (ABV 10 or BLW 5 KIAS)
    • SINK RATE or ____ft per min (Exceeds 1000fpm)
    • LLZ or DOT LEFT/RIGHT (More than 1/2 DOT, 1 DOT EXP SCALE)
    • After “Approaching Minimums” on CAT II/III App (More than 1/3 DOT, 2/3 DOT EXP SCALE)
    • GS or DOT ABV/BLW (More than 1 DOT)
  • If Altitude exceeds 50ft FM MDA
    • ALTITUDE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

10,000ft, 500ft, 100ft Referenced to what?

A
  • 10,000ft Altimeter
  • 500ft AFE
  • 100ft RA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If a Callout is missed by the PM should the PF take it up?

A
  • Yes anytime a callout is omitted the other crew member should take it up
  • 3-1-(7)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When must the PF put his thumb near the autopilot disengage button?

A
  • Below 1,000ft AFE
  • 3-1-(12)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If Autoland is not planned when must the autopilot be disconnected on approach?

A
  • Immediately after descending BLW DA or when commencing descent from MDA
  • 3-1-(13)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If EICAS alert/status message is displayed after Block out prior to the beginning of takeoff what should be done?

A
  • After completing the NNC refer to the EICAS msg X Ref list to make a decision
  • 3-1-(13)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Who handles the thrust levers during takeoff and until when?

A
  • The captain handles the thrust levers after take off thrust is set until the LDG gear lever is moved up
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

SCAN Pattern on Approach using DA/DH?

A
  • PF Includes outside view in scan pattern after “____ in sight” or “Approaching Minimum is called by PM
  • PM Calls out “____ In sight” or “Approaching Minimum” and, after verifying PF’s response, concentrates on scanning/monitoring of the flight and navigation instruments, etc and calls out if any abnormality is observed.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

SCAN Pattern on Approach using MDA?

A
  • PF Includes outside view in scan pattern after “____in sight” is called by PM
  • PM Calls out “_____ in sight” and, after verifying PF’s response, concentrates on scanning/ monitoring of the flight and navigation instruments, etc, and calls out if any abnormality is observed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

SCAN Pattern on Approach using AH (CAT III Approach)

A
  • PF Includes outside view in scan pattern after touchdown
  • PM Intent on scanning/ monitoring of the flight and navigation instruments, etc, and calls out if any abnormality is observed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the purpose of Normal Checklists?

A
  • To achieve safe and efficient airplane operations
  • Checklists are used to check, verify and grasp the situation of important aspects of normal procedures performed by memory for each phase of flight
  • 3-2-(1)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Items to be checked in Originating flight?

A
  • Log and documents
  • Flight deck access system
  • Emergency equipment
  • Gear pins
  • Side panel
  • Circuit breakers
  • Emergency evac and cabin interphone
  • Oxy mask microphone check
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Maintenance Status Verification?

A
  • Prior to flight, maintenance status should be checked with Journey & Radio Log etc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Fast Alignment of IRS?

A
  • Only domestic flight except first flight of the day
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Use of ignition switch to 1 or 2?

A
  • 1 for odd flight number & 2 for even
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Oxygen pressure? Portable oxygen pressure?

A
  • PAX 850psi other than URMQI
  • URMQ 1250psi
  • Non-ETOPS- 850psi
  • ETOPS 2 occupants 850psi
  • 3- 1200psi
  • 4- 1500psi
  • Portable Oxygen Cylinder- @ or ABV 1750psi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When to check Brake temperature checklist?

A
  • Brake temp @ or ABV 1 unit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

RVSM transponder selection?

A
  • 1- If C/L-autopilot in use
  • 2- If R-autopilot in use
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the two messages that may appear during engine start that are not malfunctions?

A
  • ENGINE STARTER (Caused by start valve opening slowly)
  • L,R ENG BLEED OFF (Not a malfunction if momentary)
24
Q

When can the cabin attendants be informed to remove there oxygen masks? When can flight crew?

A
  • CABIN @ or BLW 13,000ft
  • FLIGHT CREW @ or BLW 10,000ft
  • 2-1-(2)
25
Q

When smoke, fire or fumes exist in the cabin do you turn on the PAX OXY switch?

A
  • No, do not turn on the PAX OX as long as cabin altitude does not exceed 13,000ft
  • Oxygen system supplies oxygen mixed with cabin air, when there is smoke/fumes it will also be inhaled
  • Also in fire conditions oxygen increases the hazard of combustion
  • 2-1-(2)
26
Q

Tripped Circuit Breakers?

A
  • Do not reset any tripped fuel pump circuit breaker or fuel pump control circuit breaker
  • In flight, flight crew reset of any other tripped circuit breaker is not recommended
  • However these other circuit breakers may be reset once after a cooling period of 2 minutes if it is judged that the situation resulting form the circuit breaker trip has a significant adverse affect on safety
27
Q

What is pattern altitude?

A
  • Used in non-normal checklists it is assumed to be an altitude between the start of final approach and 1,500ft AFE
28
Q

When should an Emergency Landing at the nearest suitable Airport be considered?

A

WWOOOPE

  • When smoke, fire or fumes are present in the cabin and they cannot be positively determined to be eliminated or extinguished
  • When trouble occurs in the altimeter, and a correct altitude is not confirmed surely with related procedures or a standby altimeter etc. (In this case contact ATC immediately and follow instruction)
  • One main hydraulic system remaining
  • One main AC power source remaining
  • Other situation where significant adverse effects on safety may be possible if flight is continued.
  • “Plan to land at nearest suitable airport” is contained in the non-normal checklist.
  • Engine failure or Engine fire
  • 2-1-(4)
29
Q

When should an Immediate Landing be considered?

A
  • If smoke, fire or fumes become uncontrollable. the flight crew should consider an immediate landing
  • Immediate landing implies immediate diversion to a runway
  • However in a severe situation, an off-airport landing or ditching should be considered as well
  • 2-1-(4)
30
Q

How many Unannunciated Checklists are there and what does it mean?

A
  • 31 Unannunciated Checklists
  • EICAS messages are not displayed
  • 2-1-(5)
31
Q

Why are some checklists printed in large font?

A
  • Checklists which may have to be performed in poor visibility (for example while donning smoke goggles) are printed in large font
32
Q

What are Confirmed Actions?

A
  • Items which the PF and PM must verbally confirm before the action is taken
  • Thrust lever
  • Fuel control switch
  • Engine or APU fire switch and cargo fire arm switch
  • Generator drive disconnect switch
33
Q

During a CARGO FIRE on a freighter what altitude should be maintained and why?

A
  • 25,000ft This is the highest altitude for unpressurised flight
  • Also the fire can be extinguished easier as there is less concentration of oxygen
  • 2-1-(23)
34
Q

What does the AFDS command when autopilot is initially turned on with no F/D’s on?

A
  • Bank
  • Bank > 5 but
  • Maintains bank, V/S & ATT display
  • Bank > 30
  • Bank is returned to 30, V/S & ATT display
35
Q

RNAV approach when to set RNP value and what is it?

A
  • 0.3 set prior to FAF
  • 4-2-4-(8)
36
Q

In an RNP approach what are the values that need to be verified and set?

A
  • Initial/Intermediate Approach: 1nm
  • Final Approach Segment: 0.3nm
  • Missed Approach Segment: 1nm (Can be omitted if RNP value is not manually entered)
  • 4-2-4-(8)
37
Q

For an instrument approach using VNAV what MDA is set if there is no DA?

A
  • Use MDA+50 as DA for straight in approaches where DA is not applicable
  • 4-2-4-(8)
38
Q

What GP angle needs to be verified and when on an approach using VNAV?

A
  • Between 2.75 and 3.77 must be displayed on the Final approach segment on the legs page
  • 4-2-4-(8)
39
Q

When do you set DA on a RNAV or RNP approach?

A
  • Approx 4nm prior to FAF or equivalent fix and after ALT HLD or VNAV PTH is annunciated
  • Set to closest 100ft increment below the constraint
40
Q

When do you set missed approach altitude in an RNAV or RNP approach?

A
  • Prior to reaching DA when airplane is at least 100ft below MAP altitude
41
Q

During a one engine taxi which engine should be shut down and how long should it run at idle before hand?

A
  • Left should be shutdown
  • Allow to run for about 3 min
42
Q

Is Take-off permitted with frost?

A
  • Yes but only 3mm in thickness on the lower wing surfaces due to cold fuel is permissible
  • Thin Hoar frost is also acceptable on the upper part surface of the fuselage, however it must not adhere to the cockpit window and forward fuselage
  • 4-3-1-(1)
43
Q

What is the engine run up time and when should it be accomplished in icing conditions?

A
  • When engine anti Ice required and OAT is 3’ or BLW
  • Run up to a minimum of 60% N1 for approximately 30 seconds at intervals not exceeding 30 minutes
  • 4-3-1-(3)
44
Q

How is fan Ice removal accomplished in flight?

A
  • Increase thrust on one engine at a time to 70% N1 for 10 to 30 seconds every ten minutes
  • 4-3-1-(7)
45
Q

What must be done different after LDG in icing conditions?

A
  • Do not retract Flaps to less than 20 until the flap areas have been checked to be free from contaminates
  • If ENG anti ice is needed perform ENG run up as needed if temp BLW 3’
46
Q

Severe Turbulence?

A
  • Delay Flap extension as long as possible
  • Seat belts ON
  • ENG start SEL CONT
  • 290 KIAS/0.78M whichever is lower
  • Check chapter 8-6 for turbulence N1 penetration SPD
  • Use ALT HLD for LVL flight and VS (for CLB DES)
  • Use CWS if installed
  • A/T will be disengaged
  • BLW 15,000ft the A/C can be slowed to 250KIAS if BLW the MLW
47
Q

When must FD (APP mode) or AP (APP mode) be used?

A
  • RVR of less than 1,200m is conducted
48
Q

If on CAT I, II approach and the ground station is lost what is the indication?

A
  • A/P caution activated
  • LOC and/or G/S display on EADI changes to mode fail display
  • LOC and/or G/S deviation pointers disappear
49
Q

Can you do a CAT II, III approach with one engine?

A
  • Both engines must be operating for cat II/III approaches
50
Q

What is some of the mandatory equipment for a CAT II approach?

A
  • Both engines operate normally
  • LAND 2/3 is displayed
  • 2 or 3 IRS’s operate normally in NAV mode
  • Autopilots in the channel of operative ILS’s are operative
  • 3 Hydraulic systems
  • 2 Elec sources (APU can be one)
51
Q

What is some of the mandatory equipment of a CAT III approach?

A
  • Both engines operate normally
  • LAND 3 is displayed
  • All IRS’s operate normally in NAV mode
  • 3 Hydraulic systems
  • 2 Elec sources (APU can be one)
  • A/B, ANTI SKID, NWS
52
Q

Driftdown altitude and speed?

A
  • M0.80/310KIAS & 20,000ft
53
Q

When to call out 1000ft to LVL off in a descent?

A
  • Precision Approach: Before Glideslope intercept
  • Non Precision Approach: Before initiating final descent, PM & PF should discuss
  • Info 403
54
Q

What is the MAX bank in a MAP?

A
  • 30 degrees
55
Q

PF & PM task assignment in Non-normal?

A
  • PF Works on the future flight plan
  • PM Takes charge of all operations except for those directly related to vertical/lateral navigation
  • AOR-2-1-5-(1)
56
Q

What is the Glide path angle for a CAT I approach?

A
  • 2.5 - 3.25’
  • AOR 2-1-15-(2)

AJX Study (30 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions