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AJX Study > Pack C Questions > Flashcards

Pack C Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Please explain company basic policy

A

Policies for High Quality Operations:

  • Ensure safety
  • Achieve max efficiency
  • Maintain schedule
  • Passenger comfort
  • Conduct flight based on policy above
  • Any disagreement, use safer option
  • If either think the flight is unsuitable, DON’T GO!
  • Captain has final responsibility for safety
  • Dispatcher supports captain using personnel, equipment & authorities so that flights are safe & efficient
  • Do not fly if crew members are unfit for duty
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2
Q

Explain Go-mindedness

A
  • Except for the occurrence of a problem or hindrance, where there is a serious doubt that the airplane can fly safely, it is safer to continue the take-off than to reject it from a point near V1

Points to note:

  • Decision is left to the Captain’s best judgement
  • Engine failure with thrust loss, or a take-off warning that would render the airplane unflyable prior to V1: reject takeoff
  • Over EGT or engine fire without thrust loss near V1: continue takeoff
  • Malfunctions such as tyre or anti-skid failure can hinder braking performance during an RTO
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3
Q

Explain stabilised approach

A

Benefits:

  • Enhance situational awareness through monitoring
  • Avoid configuration changes providing more time to respond to ATC, weather changes and system operation
  • Assists in making go-around / missed approach decision
  • Provides margin for landing performance by ensuring correct touchdown speed & point Stabilised by 1,000’ AFE with Landing Checklist completed
  • 1,000’ not mandatory, but should be stabilised asap
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4
Q

Lost communication procedure

A
  • Continue the climb to the assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher
  • In a radar environment: 7 mins after 7600 set, OR 7 minutes at MEA, continue climb to the filed cruising altitude
  • Non-radar environment: After passing a reporting point which cannot be reported, wait 20 mins then climb to the filed altitude
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5
Q

Lost communication procedure NRT?

A

??

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6
Q

Why should you keep the VORs in Auto?

A
  • FMC tunes VORs and DMEs for position updating
  • Can only be in auto when HSI in MAP or PLAN mode
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7
Q

In flight, can you change cost index? What is the range?

A
  • ANA range: 20 - 200 (20 40 73 110 150 200)
  • B767 range: 0 - 999, but do not use
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8
Q

Seven scenarios for emergency landing? Any other scenarios?

A
  • Engine Failure / Fire
  • Smoke / Fire / Fumes in cabin
  • One hydraulic system remaining
  • One AC power source remaining
  • Altimeter problem (contact ATC immediately for instructions)
  • NNC contains “Plan to land at the nearest suitable airport”
  • Any other situations where continued flight safety affected
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9
Q

How many memory item checklists?

A
  • 8
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10
Q

Can you explain all eight memory item checklists?

A

??

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11
Q

Warning letter to passengers: who issues warning? Who signs letter?

A
  • Chief Purser issues letter, signed by the captain
  • Not mandatory if it may make the situation worse
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12
Q

Three types of passenger behavior?

A
  • Category 1, 2 and 3 behavior
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13
Q

Category 1 passenger behavior?

A
  • Current laws (e.g. criminal law) Hijacking / damaging aircraft
  • Violence against crew/passengers
  • Damage to property
  • Leads to Warning, Restraint, Police, etc
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14
Q

Category 2 passenger behavior?

A
  • Aviation Law (73-4)
  • Tampering with exit or emergency doors
  • Smoking in lavatory
  • Disturbing crew from duties
  • Using electrical device (e.g. phone)
  • Not wearing seatbelt when ordered
  • Not positioning seat back / table / footrest
  • Leaving baggage in aisle
  • Operating, moving or damaging emergency equipment
  • Leads to prohibition order
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15
Q

Category 3 passenger behavior?

A
  • Aviation Law, but not to be punished
  • Smoking in non-smoking area except lavatory
  • Shouting or making unreasonable noise
  • Leads to warning
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16
Q

Prohibition order? Who issues it and when?

A
  • If the passenger’s behaviour corresponds to “Behaviours subject to prohibition order” (Category 2)
  • Passenger continues behaviour after explanation from cabin attendant
  • Captain orders chief purser to issue prohibition order
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17
Q

Please explain three phases of Search and Rescue

A
  • Uncertainty phase
  • Alert phase
  • Distress phase
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18
Q

Where is SAR control centre?

A
  • Haneda Airport
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19
Q

Please explain TCAS RA. What phraseology is used?

A
  • Follow RA immediately (unless unsafe)
  • Stall warnings, alerts and GPWS have priority over RA
  • Visual traffic may not be the one causing RA
  • RA takes priority over ATC
  • Do not move opposite to RA
  • As soon as possible, notify the appropriate ATC unit of any RA as follows:
  • “TCAS RA”
  • “CLEAR OF CONFLICT, RETURNING TO (assigned clearance)”
  • “CLEAR OF CONFLICT, (assigned clearance) RESUMED”
  • If unable to comply with ATC instruction “UNABLE, TCAS RA”
  • File a report post-flight!
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20
Q

Please explain CMV

A
  • Converted Meteorological Visibility
  • Substitute for RVR when RVR not available
  • Calculated by factoring reported met. vis.
  • Depends on daytime or nighttime
  • Can be used for straight in NPA or CAT I ONLY

Cannot be used:

  • Takeoff
  • CAT II/III
  • Circling
  • Alternate airport

Minimum: Cat I: 800m NPA: 1200 - 2000m. See table

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21
Q

Weather / terrain issues at NRT

A
  • Seasonal weather
  • Fuji / mountain waves
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22
Q

Signs of volcanic ash in IMC?

A
  • Considerations
  • Checklist (180° turn, reduce power etc.)
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23
Q

What action should you take if you encounter volcanic ash on short final?

A
  • Don’t use wipers
  • Consider go-around if you lose visibility
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24
Q

Explain the volcanic ash checklist

A
  • QRH
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25
Q

Explain the derated thrust settings

A
  • TO1: max thrust derate 95% (300), 90% (ER)
  • TO2: max thrust derate 85% (300), 80% (ER)

ABV 10,000ft Derated thrust gradually changes to reach full CLB thrust by:

  • (300) 12,000ft. The 1 or 2 annunciation disappears from the display by 12,500ft
  • (300ER,F) 30,000ft. The 1 annunciation disappears by 30,500ft The 2 annunciation remains until either flaps are extended or GA
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26
Q

Explain takeoff segments. Requirements for 2 engine aircraft?

A
  • Explain
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27
Q

Why do you need to make accurate Standard Callouts?

A
  • AOR
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28
Q

Please explain cruise settings (Econ, MRC, LRC)

A
  • ??
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29
Q

How do you handle blind passengers?

A

Requirements:

  • 1 attendant can escort max 2 blind people
  • 1 blind person can travel with max. 1 guide dog (treated as 1 attendant)
  • Seat assignment not in an exit row
  • Attendant (including dog) assigned to the adjacent seat
  • First to board, last to deplane
  • Limit on max. blind people: No limit at all to/from US
  • Otherwise, only limited by passenger handling capacity if no attendants on board
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30
Q

What is a flight deck observer weight? Always 170 lbs?

A
  • Weight: 170 lbs
  • Index: -1
  • It may be rounded to nearest 100
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31
Q

In CTZ: speed restriction?

A
  • Greater than 3,000 = 250 kts
  • 3,000 or less = 200 kts (piston 160)
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32
Q

How do you check NOTAMS?

A
  • If Route Manual is up-to-date, NOTAMS attached to FPL are OK
  • If non-standard airport, need to use AIP
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33
Q

Integrated Aeronautical Information Package contents

A
  • AIP (Publication) - In accordance with ICAO annex 15 - Information of lasting character essential to air navigation - AIRAC cycle 28 days
  • AIP Amendments (pink: permanent changes)
  • AIP Supplements (yellow: > 3 month temporary)
  • NOTAMs & PIB (pre-flight information bulletin) Airport type Route type Area type Flight plan type
  • AIC (aeronautical information circular)
  • Checklists
  • Summaries
34
Q

All passengers on board with the door still open. If there is a cabin fire, who is responsible?

A
  • Responsibility shared between captain and handling agent
  • However, evacuation must be ordered by captain
35
Q

When you arrive at the aircraft, how much fuel do you need to have?

A
  • The Captain shall confirm the the FOB approved in company clearance has been loaded
36
Q

What is the required fuel?

A

Air Law (MINIMUM):

  • Burn-off
  • Contingency (min. 5% BOF or 15 mins holding)
  • Alternate
  • Reserve (30 mins holding in ISA)

Company As above, plus:

  • Taxi
  • PCF
  • Extra
  • May use some fuel prior to block-out, but must have at least minimum fuel at block-out
37
Q

Explain minimum fuel. Can you get priority?

A
  • Minimum fuel reported to ATC when little or no delay can be accepted
  • Not an emergency nor priority request
  • Report “MINIMUM FUEL”
38
Q

To get priority in fuel emergency, what do you say?

A
  • “MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL”
  • When estimated landing fuel < 30 mins holding
39
Q

How do you apply the MEL?

A
  • Maintains an acceptable level of safety when equipment/systems inop
  • Applied in cases where repair/replacement can’t be made in time e.g. lack of spare parts, facilities, personnel or time
  • Only applied before Block Out (may need to use EICAS Cross-Ref)
  • Final decision for accepting MEL is by PIC
  • A = As specified
  • B = 3 days (72 hours)
  • C = 10 days
  • All excluding the day the malfunction discovered
40
Q

Where is ANA touchdown zone & aiming point?

A
  • Touchdown = 750 - 2000 ft
  • Aiming point = 1250 ft
41
Q

Definitions for fuel?

A

??

42
Q

Today’s weight is 280,000lbs. What is the takeoff/landing distance? What is the maximum / optimum altitude?

A
  • Take-off (F5, D2, 25oC, 0ft) 5,900’
  • Landing (F30, Dry, with anti-skid) 4,900’
  • Optimum altitude (ECON cruise) 37,300’ / FL370
  • Maximum altitude 1.3G = 41,100’ 1.5G = 37,900’ ISA + 10o = 42,300’ So FL410
43
Q

What is the aerodynamic advantage of optimum altitude?

A
  • Optimum altitude: best fuel mileage for a given airspeed and weight
  • Max. altitude: altitude at which planned cruising airspeed is obtainable with thrust at MCRT with 0fpm residual climb capacity
  • So optimum is best efficient level for burn off fuel and gives some margins for turbulence & TCAS RA
44
Q

Why not fly at maximum altitude?

A
  • Can’t do TCAS climb
  • No buffet margin
  • Less fuel efficient
45
Q

Captain’s responsibilities and duties

A

??

46
Q

Definition of typhoon. Which area to avoid?

A

??

47
Q

Explain alternate weather minima (company).

A

Also learn Air Law minima for route flying

48
Q

When do you need a second alternate?

A

If destination weather forecast to be below minimums intermittently at ETA:

  • Need 2 alternates
  • Unless alternate is more than 1,500ft CIG and 5,000m VIS at the ETA over the alternate
49
Q

Explain TEMPO in a weather report

A
  • Temporary changes in the weather
  • Each change 30-60 mins
  • Does not cover more than half of the total period
50
Q

SDE2FGHILORVWX/P on flight plan?

A
  • S = Standard equipment (VHF, VOR, ILS)
  • D = DME
  • E2 = ACARS
  • F = ADF
  • G = GNSS
  • H = HF
  • I = IRS
  • L = ILS
  • O = VOR
  • R = PBN (RNAV)
  • V = VHF
  • W = RVSM
  • X = MNPS
  • /P = ModeS
51
Q

PBN/A1B1C1D1L1O1S1 on flight plan?

A
  • Performance-based navigation (RNAV)
  • A1 = RNAV (RNP) 10
  • B1 = RNAV 5
  • C1 = RNAV 2
  • D1 = RNAV 1
  • L1 = RNP4
  • O1 = Basic RNP1
  • S1 = RNAV Approach
52
Q

What is DRM? Explain the difference between DRM and company clearance

A
  • Dispatch Release Message: provided by flight dispatcher includes Operational Flight Plan approved by the flight dispatcher
  • Company Clearance: when the captain and the flight dispatcher approve the operational flight plan the DRM becomes the company clearance
53
Q

Which RNAV will be used today? SID? Oceanic?

A
  • SID/STAR: RNAV 1
  • Enroute: RNAV 5
  • Oceanic: RNAV 10 / RNP 4
54
Q

Required equipment on board RNAV

A

RNAV 1/2:

  • DME, GPS, IRS, FMS

RNAV 5:

  • DME, GPS, IRS, FMS, VOR

RNAV 10:

  • 2 x IRS, GPS, FMS (1 or 2?) If no GPS, limit 09:33
55
Q

Required equipment on board RVSM

A
  • 2 independent altitude measuring systems
  • 1 automatic altitude control system
  • 1 altitude alert system
  • 1 SSR altitude reporting transponder
56
Q

Required equipment on board CAT1

A
  • 1 ILS Receiver
  • 1 Marker Receiver (if approach includes marker beacon)
  • FD or AP with APP mode (for RVR <1200m)
57
Q

What is the tolerance of RVSM equipment? Altitude of overshoot?

A
  • On ground: Primary altimeter / field elevation diff: 75’
  • 2 primary altimeters difference: 40’
  • In flight: 2 primary altimeters difference: 200’ (check every hour)
  • Overshoot / undershoot reported if deviation >150’
  • Deviation by 300’ reported once established
58
Q

Explain Critical DME & DME Gap

A

Critical DME:

  • A DME facility that, when unavailable, results in a navigational service which is insufficient for DME/DME or DME/DME/IRU based operations along a specific route or procedure

DME Gap:

  • A section of route that does not receive the combination of DME signals that satisfy specific navigation accuracy
  • When Critical DME is unservicable resulting in DME gap of >14nm RNAV 1/2 is prohibited. Vectors should be requested from ATC
59
Q

Designation purpose of approach ban, and locations. How can you check?

A
  • Definition: The regulation of forbidding to continue approach beyond a specific point unless the reported weather condition is above the specified Company Minima
  • It is established, additionally to the regulations regarding PIC’s decision to continue at DA/MDA, to enhance the sureness of the landing and reduce unnecessary maneuver at low altitude
  • Some states don’t have Approach Ban; however Company does
  • In Japan: FAF Outer Marker 1,000’ AFE
  • Otherwise: If published in state’s AIP, it will be in Route Manual
  • Otherwise 1,000’
60
Q

Explain Trans-Cockpit Gradient (TAG)

A
  • Shows the relative power relationship between crewmembers in the cockpit
  • Crew acts accordingly in recognition of the relationship
  • The gradient between the Captain and Copilot should be neither too STEEP, nor too FLAT
  • Appropriate TAG results in free communication among crew while Captain can still exercise necessary authority
61
Q

What are the three levels of assertion?

A
  • Inquire
  • Advocate
  • Assert
62
Q

Explain Doppler LIDAR

A
  • Like Doppler Radar, using Laser transmission and return echo intensity measurement to detect windshear, turbulence, and microbursts
  • Used in RJAA (NRT) and RJTT (HND)
  • Difference between Radar and Lidar: Lidar CAN issue WS alerts without precipitation present. Radar CANNOT.
63
Q

What is the dynamic aquaplaning speed?

A

Three types:

Dynamic hydroplaning:

  • Hydroplaning speed Vp = 9 √ P Tyre pressure ≈ 160psi, so Vp = 114kts
  • Continues until speed less than 85% Vp (97kts)

Viscous hydroplaning:

  • Thin water film prevents tyre contact with runway

Rubber reversion:

  • Tire melts, and water vapour from friction heat lifts tyre off runway
64
Q

When do you need to switch to transponder 2?

A
  • When using right autopilot
65
Q

In climb, ADC failure occurs. What are the considerations?

A
  • RVSM is FL290-410
  • Transfer control if necessary
  • Select ADC alternate on source selector panel
  • Once indications return to normal, advise ATC “unable RVSM due equipment.”
  • Negotiate an RVSM altitude, if possible
  • If lower altitude is expected, contact ANA for updated fuel figures
66
Q

Windshear on takeoff near/after V1. What actions do you take?

A
  • May not be sufficient runway to stop
  • Rotate normally within last 2,000’, even if airspeed low
  • Set maximum thrust
  • 3,000’ Centreline lights alternate red/white
  • 2,000’ Edge lights turn yellow
  • First (double) touchdown zone marking before aiming point at far end
  • 1,000’ Centreline lights turn red
67
Q

Describe the three types of takeoff. What are the advantages/disadvantages?

A

Normal:

  • Effective for maintaining directional control
  • Best for slippery runways

Rolling:

  • Recommended for strong crosswind (greater than 20kts) and tailwind (greater than 10kts) to prevent engine surging
  • Shortens T/O time but increases T/O distance by approx. 150’
  • Makes directional control more difficult

Static:

  • Less TODR and good directional control
  • In slippery conditions, a/c may slip and move even with full brakes on
  • Increased chance of FOD
  • Very noisy Passenger discomfort
68
Q

Explain rainy seasons in Japan

A
  • There are 2 rainy seasons in Japan
  • The “Bai-u,” (early May through later June, early July) Bai-u front / Bai-u frontal zone
  • A stationary front runs along the southern coast forming a frontal zone
  • Largest rainfall in SW Japan
  • The “Shurin,” or “Akisame” (autumn rain), after the summer
  • Shurin (Akisame) front / Shurin frontal zone
  • Largest rainfall in E Japan
  • Shurin season is also the typhoon season
  • Very humid air flow and spiral rain bands, which lie around a typhoon over the southern ocean, are joined to the Shurin frontal system
69
Q

Wake turbulence separation:

A

Size:

  • 1 wingspan high, 2 wingspans wide

Strongest:

  • With heavy aircraft, clean, low speed

Duration:

  • 2-3 mins (shorter with turbulence)

Effects:

  • Rolling moment, gust load, up/down drafts

Characteristics:

  • Sink rate 400-500 fpm
  • Stopping 900 ft below flight path
  • Lateral movement ≈ 3 kts
  • Vortices stay in calm wind - use caution

Operational recommendations:

  • Stay above flightpath of preceding aircraft
  • Use caution landing on same runway with a light quartering tailwind
  • Use caution landing behind heavy on parallel runway (< 2,500’ apart)
  • Takeoff / landing: 2 min separation behind heavy on a missed approach
  • Note the rotation / touchdown point of preceding aircraft
70
Q

What is the required paperwork on board? If the pouch seal broken, what actions would you take?

A

Required by law: (RARE JAL OPS RAM)

  • Registration certificate
  • Airworthiness certificate
  • Radio Station Licence (and Aircraft Earth Station Licence if SATCOM)
  • Emergency Documents
  • Aircraft Logbook (Journey Log & Radio Log)
  • AOC Original Transcript (Air Operator Certificate True Transcript if international)
  • Operational Limitations
  • Operations Manual
  • Operations Policy Manual
  • Operations Specifications
  • Route Manual & Charts
  • AOM/QRH (Flight Manual)
  • MEL/CDL

Required by other countries/authorities:

  • Civil Aircraft Landing Permit (USAF only - in Route Manual)
  • Dangerous Goods (US only)
  • Noise documents

Required by Company:

  • AOC copy
  • FPDM
  • Normal Checklist
  • Landing performance chart
  • Handy Speed Book

If the seal is broken on the Certification Holder (pouch): Captain checks each document and reports to ANA maintenance If none missing, may fly. If some are lost, report to Flight Ops & Ground personnel

71
Q

TAF validity period?

A
  • 30 hours
72
Q

Dispatch comments? How many conditions?

A
  • Condition A
  • Condition B
  • One of these is bad
73
Q

Explain the procedure for passenger seat zone changes before departure

A
  • Max 3 FWD AND 3 AFT (Total 6)
  • If more than this: On ground: Notify load controller
  • Recalculate W&B
  • After departure: Max seat changes displayed on ACARS loadsheet
  • Captain approves/disapproves
74
Q

If the copilot calls “Go Around”, what should you do?

A
  • Go around, in the interests of safety
75
Q

Holding speeds

A

Jet maximum holding speeds: Altitude over Navaid / DME fix ≤ 6,000 ft: 210 / 200 kts ≤ 14,000 ft: 220 / 230 kts > 14,000 ft: 240 / 265 kts Turbulence: 280 kts / M 0.8 (whichever lower)

76
Q

What is pitch angle on touchdown with 10kt tailwind?

A

0° Be careful with nose gear

77
Q

What is the time of useful consciousness at FLxxx?

A

FL250: 3- 6mins FL300: 1- 3mins FL 350: 30 - 60 secs FL 400: 15 - 20 secs

78
Q

What happens in the cockpit if FWD cargo hold depressurises?

A

Cockpit also depressurises, and temperature drops to outside temp! Rapid descent is key to survival

79
Q

Difference between F20 & F30 landing

A

F20 has less drag, so increased landing distance Also floats more, which could further increase distance

80
Q

How does CG move with fuel burn?

A
  • While on Centre tank fuel: AFT
  • Wing tanks (80,000 lbs remaining): FWD
  • When wing tanks ≈ half (47,000 remaining): AFT
81
Q

What are the operational and working limits of the CG?

A

??

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