Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AJX Study > AOR Questions > Flashcards

AOR Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the RTO policy of calling out any malfunction during the take-off roll?

A
  • The crewmember recognising a malfunction before V1, deeming the takeoff should be rejected shall call it out clearly
  • Although callout for all other malfunctions shall be left to the crewmember’s judgement depending on circumstances
  • Care should be taken for not causing an unnecessary high-speed RTO
  • In the case of engine failure, it is enough to call out only “Engine Failure” without mentioning the engine number
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the minimum amount of braking required during an RTO if there is a failure of the RTO braking system?

A
  • Maximum manual braking must be applied, until the airplane is sufficiently decelerated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Can reverse thrust be used on an RTO following an engine fire indication?

A
  • Yes
  • Use all reversers even where there is an engine fire warning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When should the V1 call be made?

A
  • As the airspeed needle is observed within 5kts of V1 and completed by V1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Who has control of the aircraft during an RTO?

A
  • Captain decides, he calls “Reject”, assumes control and initiates the procedure
  • The Co-pilot shifts to perform the PM duty
  • The call of “Reject” should also be interpreted as “I have control”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Following a “Go” decision, until when are the thrust levers the Captain’s area of responsibility?

A
  • Until the landing gear lever is placed to UP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are some considerations following an RTO?

A
  • Necessity of passenger evacuation
  • Passenger notification (PA)
  • Necessity of brake cooling
  • Use of parking brakes
  • Risk of tire burst with ground crew in the vicinity
  • Necessity for brake energy calculation prior to another attempted take-off
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

An RTO executed at V1 + 4kts will cross the threshold at what speed?

A
  • 65kts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Explain the required V1 take-off performance standard:

A
  • Airplane will be able to attain a height of 35ft over the end of the runway when an engine failure occurs before V1 (VEF) and the take-off is continued
  • Also requires that the airplane will be able to stop on the runway without using reverse thrust when an RTO is initiated at V1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the “Balanced field length concept”?

A
  • V1 is selected so that the accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How should the initiation of a non-normal procedure be made?

A
  • Do not start reflex reaction even if checklist includes memory items
  • Captain must verify condition then select an appropriate procedure according to situation and decide whether to take over PF duty
  • Then Captain shall command required non-normal procedure at the right time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Is a wind correction required during autothrottle use?

A
  • No
  • The autothrottle automatically adjusts thrust for any wind speed changes at varying altitude
  • A 5kt tolerance is added on the approach path though
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the basic PF and PM task assignment during a non-normal procedure:

A
  • PM takes charge of all the operations except for those directly related to vertical / lateral navigation (such as special escape procedure / rapid depress manoeuver / requirement to enter the holding pattern etc)
  • When the Captain instructs to commence a non-normal procedure, the PF concentrates on the flight path
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the confirmed action switches and how are these performed?

A
  • Procedures to be carried out only after confirmation by the other crew member
  • Confirmed actions are those that are hard to recover or irreversible such as:
  • Engine fire switch
  • APU fire switch
  • Cargo fire arm switch (NOT the discharge switch)
  • Generator drive disconnect switch
  • Engine shutdown (i.e. fuel control switch)
  • But this does not apply during the DUAL ENGINE FAILURE checklist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why is a wind correction to target approach speed required?

A
  • Generally, wind speed is lower closer to the ground surface so airspeed decreases during approach in a headwind, possibly leading to a short touchdown
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the wind correction on target approach speed formula?

A
  • Basic target approach speed is BUG + (1/2 Headwind + all the Gust)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When should the wind correction on target approach speed be held until?

A
  • The nearer the aircraft approaches the threshold; the less important it becomes to maintain the ½ head wind speed additive to prevent a short landing
  • When passing through the threshold, airspeed of BUG + Gust will be appropriate
  • Due to landing performance, unnecessary speed additive should be eliminated, gradually and not forcibly during approach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What target approach speed is used when wind is reported as calm?

A
  • BUG + 5
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Can the engine pod ever scrape the runway with a nose-up attitude?

A
  • No
  • Nose down attitude must be greater than minus 1, and roll angle must be 12 degrees or greater
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which parts of the aircraft are suspect to ground contact during inappropriate landing pitch and roll values?

A
  • Nose gear
  • Engine nacelle
  • Leading edge slat
  • Wing tip
  • Elevator
  • Tailskid
  • Aft body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

At what pitch angle is there a possibility of tail contact on landing?

A
  • Struts extended = 9.5 degree when roll is zero
  • Main gear compressed = Decreases by approximately 2 degrees to 7.5 degrees
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the definition of “standard callouts”?

A
  • Minimum required callouts relating to the following items:
  • Altitude / Position / Speed / Significant deviation in flight path / speed / descent rate / Flight and navigation instruments / Autopilot system status
  • Information to aid judgement for making a landing or missed approach
  • Excludes callouts that instruct specific operation (i.e. Gear Up / V1):
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the main objectives of standard callouts?

A
  • To confirm information on altitude, position, speed and system status and enhance crew coordination, common recognition, and fail safe function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the purpose of acknowledging a crew callout?

A
  • To ensure that the PF has understood the message
  • Also an effective way of quickly detecting incapacitation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the purpose of an altitude callout at the outer marker or fix?

A
  • To confirm that you’re not capturing a ghost beam
  • Altitude callouts are called off the PM’s altimeter
  • The ghost beam appears above the normal beam and its path is double that of the normal glide path
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Below what height should deviation calls related to speed be called? What is the tolerance for these speeds?

A
  • Below 1000ft above field elevation
  • “Airspeed” calls should be made 10kts above or 5kts below target approach speed (with landing flaps)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the PF’s callout after “continue” at the MDA?

A
  • In a non-precision approach there are no standard callouts after calling “continue” at MDA, and the PF continues to descend of circle with the runway in sight
  • The PF should make a callout to show of his intention and clarify his intentions to the situation, such as “Landing”, or “Flaps 25/30”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the purpose of the 5000ft standard callout?

A
  • To give attention to the PF that the maximum speed is now 300kts and maximum decent rate is now 2500fpm
  • Even if a speed limit is not specified
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the purpose of the VDP standard callout?

A
  • To notify the PF of reaching optimum descent point for landing in a non-precision approach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When is the “Altitude” callout made when attempting to maintain MDA?

A
  • When the PF descends more than 50ft from MDA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When is the light forward pressure on the control column released during the take-off roll?

A
  • When approaching VR, reduce the forward pressure to make it neutral at VR
32
Q

What is the normal pitch-up rate during rotation?

A
  • Smoothly and continuously at a rate of 2 to 2.5 degrees per second
33
Q

What are the ‘general’ deviations from steady flight conditions that may indicate the presence of windshear?

A

Generally, at an altitude of 1000ft and below, it could be said that windshear causes deviations from normal steady flight conditions in excess of the following:

  • 15kts indicated airspeed
  • 500fpm vertical speed
  • 5 degrees pitch attitude
  • 1 dot displacement from the glide slope
  • Unusual thrust lever position for a significant period of time
34
Q

What are some possible weather related indications that low level windshear may be present?

A

The following may be used to assess the possibility of low-level windshear:

  • A thunderstorm in the vicinity of the airport, especially when accompanied by heavy rain, and when generally in the vicinity of 5 to 6 miles, (sometimes up to 12 miles)
  • When a passing front has a temperature difference of over 5c before and after the front and is moving at over 30kts
  • When virga is present
35
Q

What is the initial pitch-up attitude when encountering windshear?

A
  • To begin with, maintain 15 degrees nose-up and if a drop in altitude is still seen, bring the pitch to that prior to occurrence of the stick shaker
36
Q

What is the reason that 15 degrees pitch-up is used for windshear recovery?

A
  • It has been indicated that when encountering severe windshear, the higher the pitch attitude is, the higher the windshear recovery ability is, but at the same time it has been confirmed that stick shaker margin becomes a factor
  • For this reason, compromising on both recovery ability and stick shaker margin, 15 degrees was adopted as an initial pitch target
37
Q

What is the recommended maximum speed for turning on a slippery taxiway?

A
  • 3kts
38
Q

What is the most VR can be increased if using an increased VR for potential windshear?

A
  • 20kts, but not above the V1 for the performance limited take-off weight, so that obstacle clearance and climb gradient can still be met, whilst avoiding an overrun during the take-off
39
Q

How far is the nose gear behind the pilot position?

A
  • 2 meters behind the pilot position
40
Q

When taxiing, when should you turn the nose wheel when entering a taxiway of 45 degrees or 90 degrees?

A
  • 45 degree turn: Turn when the pilot’s eye position intersects the outer edge of the taxiway you are entering
  • 90 degree turn: Turn when the pilot’s eye position intersects the extended centreline of the taxiway you are entering
41
Q

What are the 4 principle policies of operational procedures?

A
  • Fly first
  • Assure secured and reliable operation
  • Achieve effective and efficient operation
  • Promote standardised and uniform operation
42
Q

What is meant by “assure secured and reliable operation”?

A
  • Secured operation means establishing procedures that are immune from mistakes
  • Reliable operation means employing fail-safe features and procedures to prevent mistakes
43
Q

What is meant by “effective and efficient operation”?

A
  • Constantly reviewing (or establishing new) procedures with operational and technological improvements and advancements
44
Q

What is meant by “promoting standardised and uniform operation”?

A
  • With various combinations of flight crew, small variations in individual procedures in the cockpit could greatly compromise safety
  • Therefore uniform standard operating procedures are established that are built on practical reasoning and clear-cut concepts that all flight crew can accept and carry out
45
Q

What are the 6 principle concepts when establishing operational procedures?

A

As follows: (TCCMWD)

  • Task sharing
  • Crew coordination
  • Crew communication
  • Monitor and cross-check
  • Workload management
  • Discipline
46
Q

What is meant by “task sharing”?

A
  • The present concept can be described as PF / PM roles based on area of responsibility
  • PF mainly controls the aircraft, and PM mainly does tasks other than flying the aeroplane
  • The concept is consistent throughout all phases of flight
  • Tasks are assigned to PF / PM according to the accessibility of a panel or a switch position
  • The Captain maintains the ultimate responsibility
47
Q

What is meant by “crew coordination”?

A
  • Safe flight is not assured without well-coordinated teamwork
  • ‘Mind your own business’ does not apply
  • Good coordination consists of timing and proceeding with due consideration to your colleagues progress

Major elements of crew coordination are:

  • Use of checklists: Checklists are the last guard to ensure secured and reliable operation, and there are procedures in place to detail how to start the checklist, how to challenge and respond, and what to do when the checklist is interrupted etc
  • Confirmed actions: The more critical the situation, the more imperative secured operation and good coordination become. A cross-check procedure is employed when shutting down a failed engine in the air due to damage or fire, even if it may be time consuming
48
Q

What is meant by “crew communication”?

A
  • Many accidents are attributed to ineffective human redundancy due to poor expression, failure to hear correctly, or lack of understanding among crewmembers

Major elements of crew communication are:

  • Standard response to order: It is basic operational procedure that crewmembers respond to an order by repeating the order before initiating the action. The crewmember then carries out the action, and then reports to the PF on completion of the action
  • Standard callouts: Standard callouts play a role as a fail-safe function, and to make crew members aware of the current flight situation
  • Briefing: The PF makes his intentions clear to all crewmembers and lets them participate in verifying the plan. It is done especially for take-off and landing where a considerable amount of vital information must be gathered
49
Q

What is meant by “monitor and crosscheck”?

A
  • Bad weather or failure of systems and equipment in flight tends to draw entire crewmember’s attention, and can lead to a lack of monitoring of aircraft status

Major elements of monitor and crosscheck are:

  • Scan pattern and instrument monitor during approach: This prevents the danger of simultaneous head-down, or simultaneous head-up
  • Speed and descent rate during descent and approach: Particularly at low attitude
  • Verification of autopilot and autothrottle engaged mode: It is important for crew to keep aware of exactly what systems are currently controlling, and what the system is doing, so engaged modes, armed modes and their changes should always be verified
  • CDU or MCDU operation: Both pilots simultaneous concentration on the CDU operation should be avoided, and to avoid erroneous data entry a mutual crosscheck of the data before and after entry should be made
50
Q

What is meant by “workload management”?

A
  • Workload may increase during take-off and landing, as well as when experiencing bad weather or system malfunction
  • Workload management is defined as establishing task priorities or changing task assignment to keep workload within the controllable range
  • Workload management is basically left to flight crew discretion, however effective use of auto flight systems supports the “fly first” and affords the pilots time to make comprehensive decisions

Workload management can broken into:

  • Flying the aeroplane: The more critical the condition becomes the more correct judgement and operation becomes necessary, so positive use of the auto flight system in an urgent situation in recommended
  • Use of auto flight systems: In approach and landing under low visibility, autoland is recommended in addition to effective use of the auto flight system in other situations
51
Q

What is meant by “discipline”?

A
  • Flight crew are expected to conduct themselves in a professional manner
  • It is important to confirm all actions using reliable references, which is standard operating procedures
  • Intentional deviation from standard operating procedures will upset crew coordination and deteriorate mutual monitoring that could result in mistakes and greatly impair secured and reliable operation
  • The most important discipline is strict adherence to standard operating procedures.
52
Q

Why is raw data monitoring required when flying a VOR approach in LNAV?

A
  • According to the NAV database coding rules, a “RWXX” (which is at the runway threshold) is coded on the final approach course of the VOR approach
  • This means that the coded approach to the runway threshold could be parallel to the published chart course
  • There will be an increase in deviation from the published chart as you gradually approach the runway
53
Q

What is the tolerance on raw data monitoring during a VOR approach being flown in LNAV?

A
  • Raw data should be monitored and the course deviation should be within 5 degrees which is 1 dot on the HSI
54
Q

What should be done if raw data monitoring indicates that the deviation on the VOR approach (in LNAV) exceeds 5 degrees?

A
  • Change LNAV to HDG SEL in order to modify the course
  • Except if visual reference is already established
55
Q

What touchdown point has been used in the non-normal configuration landing performance data?

A
  • 1250ft
56
Q

What brake setting has been used in the non-normal configuration landing performance data?

A
  • Full manual braking
57
Q

What temperature and pressure altitude has been used in the non-normal configuration landing performance data?

A
  • Pressure altitude 0

Sea level Temperature:

  • 30 degrees (dry/wet runway)
  • 0 degrees (snow/ice/slush)
58
Q

Over what slush depth is take-off prohibited?

A
  • 13mm
59
Q

What are the 4 maximum wind categories to be considered prior to landing?

A
  • Crosswind
  • Tailwind
  • Wind components for autoland (Headwind, tailwind, crosswind)
  • Crosswind for Cat I, Cat II and III operations
60
Q

When must the reported wind be under the maximum values for take-off?

A
  • When take-off clearance is received
61
Q

Can the IRS/CDU wind data be used in calculating maximum wind values for landing?

A
  • No
  • Decision to land must be made based on the reported runway winds by the tower
62
Q

When must the reported wind be under the maximum values for landing?

A
  • When landing clearance is received
  • If the reported wind when receiving a landing clearance is over the allowable values approach may be continued
  • The updated surface wind must be within the allowable values before reaching 500ft AGL
63
Q

If landing clearance is given at 600ft AGL and wind limitations are not exceeded, what actions should be taken if, at 300ft the reported wind is over the maximum limits?

A
  • Proceed with the landing, regardless of the wind condition reported thereafter
  • As long as it is judged that the airplane can land safely
64
Q

What is the reasoning behind continuing the approach if, below 500ft the wind strength is in excess of the maximum limit?

A
  • At low altitudes below 500ft, flight crew should concentrate on the control of the airplane rather than the complicated procedure of confirming whether the reported wind is within the allowable values or not
  • The airplane must however be in a stabilised condition and able to approach and land safely
65
Q

Will braking action be reported on a runway covered with thin slush of less than 2mm?

A
  • On thin slush of less than 2mm, slushplaning cannot arise and slipperiness is similar to braking action in “good” conditions
  • Current measuring devices cannot measure reliable friction coefficient in slush conditions, therefore braking action will not be reported
66
Q

What are the 2 forms of drag created by take-off and landing on runways covered with standing water, snow or slush?

A
  • Displacement drag: The drag created when the aircraft wheels push through standing water, snow or slush
  • Spray impingement drag: Is a secondary drag created when water or slush is sprayed by the spinning wheels against the fuselage and wing
  • It is possible to cause damage to the wheels, flaps etc
67
Q

What are the major differences between “Company Standard” (Critical operation) and AFM (Wet) in landing performance standards?

A
  • Company standard: Threshold speed Ref + 15kts Touchdown point 2000ft Transition time 3 seconds
  • AFM Wet: Threshold speed Ref + 0 Touchdown point 950ft Transition time 0.3 seconds
68
Q

Who makes the final judgement for runway conditions (i.e. Damp / Wet / Flooded / Ponding)?

A
  • Runway conditions are generally not issued from airport authorities, and so flight crew or flight dispatch officers should make the final judgement for runway conditions, based on information such as visual observation, intensity of precipitation, and METAR code
69
Q

What is the approximate definition of a damp runway?

A
  • Runway surface is damp but not glittering, meaning no water film
70
Q

What is the approximate definition of a wet runway?

A
  • Runway surface is sufficiently wet and glittering
71
Q

In Japan, what precipitation rate will determine a runway to be flooded?

A
  • If the intensity of precipitation is more than 30mm/hr the runway is considered to be flooded
  • In Japan, if more than 30mm/hr. precipitation is observed the met office will issue a METAR code with RI++
72
Q

What is meant by “ponding”?

A
  • Ponding is a locally flooded condition that results from a geographical shape of the runway
73
Q

Who makes the observation or judgement for snow or ice covered runways?

A
  • A runway covered with snow or ice is issued a “SNOWTAM” by the airport authorities, so the flight crew makes the decision for operations based on the report
  • In case the official information is not available, then the reports from other flight crew or flight dispatch may be used as an alternative
74
Q

How is snow measured on a runway?

A
  • In the SNOWTAM, the runway is divided into 3 segments and for each segment the snow depth is measured at more than 2 points at relatively flat snow surface 2 to 8 meters on both sides of the runway centreline, then the average snow depth is reported on each segment
75
Q

If the runway is covered in different characteristics of snow type, snow depth and braking action, what is used for take-off performance and braking action?

A
  • Take-off / landing restriction by snow depth: Apply the performance for the worst condition of all three segments
  • Braking action: Use the worse of the last two segments
76
Q

Notes on “Situations beyond the scope of Non-Normal checklists”:

A

GENERAL:

  • Situations resulting from mid-air collision, bomb explosion, catastrophic failure, or other major malfunction
  • Selected elements of several different checklists may need to be applied to fit the situation

BASIC AERODYNAMICS AND SYSTEM KNOWLEDGE:

  • Aileron control to serve as rudder control and vice versa - If both aileron and rudder control affected, the use of asymmetrical engine thrust may aid roll and directional control
  • If elevator control is affected, stabiliser trim, bank angle and trust may be used to control pitch
  • Pitch up with thrust increase, pitch down with thrust decrease
  • Flight control break-out feature is incorporated onto the 767
  • There should be no concern about damaging the mechanism by applying too much force to the control columns during break-out
  • Limit bank angle to 15 degrees if manoeuvring capability is in question
  • Trading airspeed for altitude and vice versa should be considered

FLIGHT PATH CONTROL:

  • Take whatever action is necessary to maintain a safe flight path
  • Fuel jettison (if installed) should be a primary consideration is performance appears to be critical
  • If operation of flaps is in doubt, leading and trailing edge devices should not be changed unless performance requires such action
  • Anytime an increased rolling moment is experienced during flap transition (indicating a failure to automatically shutdown an asymmetric flap situation), return the flap handle to the previous position
  • On the ground during landing, aggressive differential braking and / or use of asymmetrical reverse thrust, in addition to other control inputs, may be required to maintain directional control

CHECKLISTS WITH MEMORY STEPS:

  • Only after the flight path control has been established, do the memory steps of the appropriate non-normal checklist
  • Complete all non-normal checklists prior to beginning final approach
  • There may be times where two non-normal checklists conflict with directions. The intended course of action should be consistent with the damage assessment and handling evaluation

COMMUNICATIONS:

  • Establish flight deck communications as soon as possible. This may require use of the interphone, or in extreme noise levels, hand signals and gestures
  • Declare an emergency with ATC to assure priority handling and declare emergency services on the ground
  • If possible, organise a discrete radio frequency to minimise distractions and frequency changes
  • Squawk 7700
  • Communications with the cabin crew and with the company are important, but should be accomplished only as time permits

DAMAGE ASSESSMENT AND AIRPLANE HANDLING EVALUATION:

  • If possible, attempt to take time to assess the effects of the damage before attempting to land
  • Make configuration and airspeed changes slowly
  • Conduct the damage assessment and handling evaluation at an altitude that provides safe margin for recovery should flight path control be inadvertently compromised
  • If structural damage is suspected, attempt to access the magnitude of the damage by direct visual observation from the flight deck and / or passenger cabin
  • Consider contacting the company and use them as a valuable source of technical information if required from expert sources
  • If controllability is in question, consider performing a check of the airplane handling characteristics. The purpose of this check of to determine minimum safe speeds and the appropriate configuration for landing

LANDING AIRPORT:

  • The following items should be considered when selecting an airport for landing:
  • Weather conditions (VMC preferred)
  • Enroute time
  • Length of runway available (Longest possible runway preferred, wind permitting)
  • Emergency services available
  • Flight crew familiarity
  • Other factors dictated by the specific situation

AJX Study (30 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions