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ATPL KANE Flashcards

1
Q

Can a person other than a crewmember occupy a control seat?

A
  • NO
  • Never have persons other than flightcrew members seated on the pilot’s seat except in an emergency situation
  • In the case that it is judged to be necessary for safety of operations
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2
Q

What fire suppression and extinguishing is available for cargo fires on the different aircraft?

A
  • Fire suppression and extinguishing is aircraft type dependant and is provided by:
  • 300, -300F and -300ER:
  • 2 or 3 fire extinguishing bottles are installed
  • The 2nd bottle discharges at as later time or at a reduced rate
  • 300BCF:
  • Fire suppression in the cargo compartment is accomplished by shutting off air to the compartment
  • The airplane gradually depressurises and the oxygen required for combustion is eliminated
  • 300F MAIN DECK
  • Fire suppression in the cargo compartment is accomplished by shutting off air to the compartment
  • The airplane gradually depressurises and the oxygen required for combustion is eliminated
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3
Q

What is the standard significant deviation for sink rate on approach?

A
  • Sink rate exceeds 1000fpm below 1000ft
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4
Q

What are the 3 types of hydroplaning?

A
  • Dynamic
  • Viscous
  • Reverted Rubber
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5
Q

What types of actions are known as “behaviour impeding aircraft safety”?

A
  • Per aviation law 164-15
  • Tampering with the passenger door or emergency exit without proper reason
  • Smoking in the lavatory
  • Disturbing any person to perform their duty on-board
  • Operating a mobile phone or other electric device which harms the safety of the aircraft
  • Not wearing a seatbelt during take-off or landing or when instructed by the Captain
  • During take-off or landing, not placing the seat back, table or footrest in position
  • Leaving baggage in the aisle or other area where it could disturb an emergency evacuation
  • Operating, transferring or malfunctioning of the emergency device or emergency equipment
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6
Q

When does the operational flight plan become “company clearance”?

A

When the Captain AND Flight Dispatcher approve the operational flight plan

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7
Q

What level of reverse thrust is used for non-normal landing distance calculations?

A
  • If both reversers available they remain at 85% N1 until 70kts
  • If one reverser is available, it remains set at idle reverse
  • If neither reverser is available, both engines remain set at forward idle
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8
Q

What are the 3 phases of search and rescue?

A
  • Uncertainty phase
  • Alert phase
  • Distress phase
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9
Q

What is the maximum allowable tailwind for take-off and landing?

A
  • Runway 2001m or more = 15kts
  • Runway 2000m or less = 10kts
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10
Q

What is the required 2nd segment climb gradient for the B767?

A
  • 2.4%
  • The second segment begins at gear up and continues to the level off point
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11
Q

When can the Captain commence a circling approach at or above the MDA?

A
  • The runway or:
  • The circling guidance lighting is clearly visible and identifiable or:

At least one of the following visual references is clearly visible and identifiable:

  • Threshold
  • Markings (Numbers/Threshold stripes/Touchdown zone)
  • Approach lighting system or runway alignment indicator
  • Runway/Threshold/Touchdown zone/Edge Lighting
  • Visual guidance slope indicator
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12
Q

What is the maximum lateral fuel imbalance?

A

It is higher at lower fuel weights, and lower and higher fuel weights as follows:

  • Below 48,000lbs the maximum imbalance is 2500lbs
  • Between 48,000lbs and 79,800 it is linear from 2500lbs to 1500lbs and the graph needs to be consulted and interpolated
  • Above 79,800, the maximum imbalance is 1500lbs
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13
Q

When must the Captain declare an emergency with low fuel?

A
  • Declare an emergency and request ATC priority for landing when estimated fuel on landing is expected to be less than 30 minutes holding fuel
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14
Q

Is take-off thrust still limited to 5 minutes if using derate 1 or derate 2 thrust, or ATM reduced thrust?

A
  • Yes
  • Maximum time use of take-off thrust is 5 minutes
  • This includes derated take-off thrust and reduced take-off thrust
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15
Q

Whilst enroute to the destination, the alternate airport weather conditions deteriorate to below the alternate minima. No other alternate airport can be selected. Under what conditions can the aircraft continue to the destination?

A
  • Yes if the flight time to destination is no more than 6 hours and:
  • For at least one hour before and after the ETA at the destination, the weather indicates that:
  • Ceiling 2000ft, or DH/MDA + 1500ft, whichever is greater
  • Visibility 5000m, or RVR/VIS +3200m, whichever is greater
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16
Q

In Japan, what is meant by the phrase “Minimum Fuel”?

A
  • Fuel has reached a stage where little or no unexpected delay can be accepted
  • It is NOT an emergency situation, and priority will NOT be given by ATC
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17
Q

In Japan, what are the specific points of an approach ban?

A

They are in the following priority, and are indicated in the company minima table of the route manual:

  • FAF
  • Outer marker
  • 1000ft AFE
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18
Q

What non-normal event requires the longest landing distance?

A
  • All AC bus off requires the longest landing distance
  • Dry runway @ 280,000lbs = 7400ft
  • Wet runway = 10800ft
  • On a snow or slush covered runway is can be over 11500ft, depending on runway condition
  • This is because both engine reversers may be inoperative, half the spoilers are inoperative, outboard wheel antiskid is inoperative, and auto speedbrake is inoperative
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19
Q

What is the company alternate minima?

A
  • 800ft / 3600m Circling Approach
  • 800ft / 3000m Non-precision or APV
  • 600ft / 2000m Cat I
  • 300ft / 1200m Cat II
  • 1200m Cat III
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20
Q

What is the required approach climb gradient for the B767?

A
  • 2.1%
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21
Q

What are the limitations of VR?

A

VR must be:

  • Greater than or equal to V1
  • 5% greater than VMCA
  • 5% greater than engine out VMU
  • 10% greater than 2 engine VMU
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22
Q

What are the requirements if while enroute; the destination airport weather conditions are forecasted to be below the Captain’s landing minima?

A
  • Captain and Flight Dispatcher communicate via flight watch

Flight can’t continue unless:

  • An additional alternate airport is selected

Additional alternate airport is NOT required if:

  • Holding is possible until weather improves or:
  • Alternate airport weather better than 1500ft and 5000m
  • Aircraft diverts to original alternate airport
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23
Q

What is the required phraseology when clear of a TCAS RA and you have returned to the cleared level or clearance?

A

“CLEAR OF CONFLICT (assigned clearance) RESUMED”

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24
Q

What main wheel clearance can be assured when taxiing around a corner on a taxiway?

A
  • ICAO annex 14 recommends the taxiway should be designed to provide clearance of more than 4.5 metres
  • Between the paved taxiway and the main landing gear when the cockpit (nose gear by Japan’s criteria) is passing over the centreline
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25
Q

Who conducts the pre-flight security check on a passenger airplane?

A
  • Cabin attendants shall check and report to Captain that inspections completed
  • When no cabin attendants carried flight crew shall check the cabin
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26
Q

Can a flight be planned to an airport with only a GPS stand-alone approach?

A
  • Yes
  • Flights based on a GPS stand-alone approach may be planned when ALL of the following requirements are met:
  • RAIM prediction must be available
  • At least one instrument approach procedure without depending on GPS equipment shall be available at an alternate airport if selected, or at the destination if an alternate airport is not selected
  • In the case of selecting a take-off alternate or enroute alternate, at least one approach shall be available that is not dependant upon GPS
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27
Q

What is the maximum crosswind limit for a wet ungrooved runway?

A
  • 20kts
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28
Q

When may the Captain restrain a passenger?

A
  • From the moment when ALL external doors are closed for take-off until the moment any door is opened for disembarkation
  • May adopt measures to restrain a person if he has reasonable grounds to believe that any person on board an aircraft may impede safety or is about to commit such acts
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29
Q

What are the RVSM flight levels in the Fukuoka FIR?

A
  • FL290 to FL410
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30
Q

What is the minimum safe altitude when an MEA is not specified?

A
  • 2000ft above highest obstruction within 5nm either side of track
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31
Q

What are some points that the Captain shall brief the cabin crew on during a crew briefing?

A
  • Outline of the flight - airports, route, weather
  • Allocation of emergency equipment onboard and its usage
  • Assignment of duty for each crew member in emergency
  • Precautionary measures against hijacking
  • Assignment of duty for each crewmember when other than regular composition
  • Type, quantity, loading position radioactive materials if loaded
  • Other items as required
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32
Q

Does the completion of the cabin preparations need to be made before entering the runway?

A
  • Yes
  • Except in the following cases where you may receive the report before beginning take-off:
  • The airplane needs to (back track) on the active runway
  • ATC approves entry into the active runway even if aware that pre-flight preparation is not yet completed
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33
Q

What is the lower limit of CMV?

A
  • 800m
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34
Q

What is the maximum landing weight of the 767-300ER?

A
  • 320,000 lbs
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35
Q

When is monitoring of the emergency frequency 121.500MHz required?

A

Aircraft should guard 121.500MHz except for “unavoidable situations” such as:

  • Carrying out communications on the other VHF channel
  • Cockpit duties do not permit simultaneous guarding of two channels
  • Airborne equipment limitations do not permit simultaneous guarding of two channels
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36
Q

What is the purpose of the hydraulic driven generator?

A
  • HDG is automatically powered by the centre hydraulic system when electrical power is lost from both main AC busses
  • Centre air demand pump will operate continuously to ensure sufficient hydraulic pressure to drive the generator
  • Provides both AC power and DC power
  • Provides AC power to the left and right AC transfer busses that power items considered necessary for ETOPS and the Captain’s flight instrument transfer bus
  • Provides DC power to the hot battery bus, the battery bus and the standby DC bus
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37
Q

At what aircraft weight is burn-off fuel calculated at?

A
  • Climb fuel = Estimated take-off weight
  • Cruise fuel = Estimated cruising weight. Weight at start of cruise or end of cruise may be used
  • Descent fuel = Estimated top of descent weight
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38
Q

Under what cases can CMV not be used?

A
  • Take-off
  • CAT II or CAT III
  • Circling approach
  • Alternate airport
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39
Q

What is the maximum EGT for take-off and how long is it limited to?

A
  • 960 degrees
  • Limited to 5 minutes
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40
Q

What is the definition of an “Adequate Airport”?

A
  • Concerns operations for two-engine ETOPS aircraft

Selected based on:

  • Available landing runways
  • ATC services
  • Lighting and communication facilities
  • Weather services
  • Navigational aids
  • Fire fighting systems
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41
Q

If the APU performs an automatic protective shutdown during a pushback, what are some considerations?

A
  • APU cannot be restarted for approx. 30 seconds due to the inlet door closing
  • Parking brake can still be set
  • Interphone system is still powered
  • Passenger address system is still powered
  • Only left VHF is powered
  • Instrument panel floodlights, the standby magnetic compass light, integral lights for essential instruments on the left side and centre panel and overhead panels are automatically switched to the standby AC bus
  • Aisle stand light is also available. This will be the only lighting available, so the flight deck will be relatively dark
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42
Q

If the destination airport is closed temporarily (perhaps due to a disabled aircraft / security threat / etc.), can the aircraft continue towards the destination?

A
  • Yes
  • After considering weather conditions at the airport concerned, the flight time to the destination, and the amount of fuel remaining.
  • If it is anticipated safety of the flight will be interfered with, destination shall be changed
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43
Q

What is “extra fuel” and how is it calculated?

A
  • Fuel loaded by Captain or Flight Dispatcher when considered necessary for ATC, weather, fuel loading procedures or any other reason
  • Calculated at holding at 1500ft ISA using estimated landing weight at destination
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44
Q

Is antiskid available in the alternate brake system?

A
  • Yes
  • Antiskid protection is provided in the normal AND alternate brake hydraulic systems
  • Normal brake system provides each main gear wheel with individual antiskid protection
  • Alternate system provides laterally paired wheels with antiskid protection
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45
Q

What is the minimum required fuel on board?

A
  • Burn-off
  • Contingency
  • Alternate
  • Reserve
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46
Q

What is the required equipment for RNAV 1 operations?

A

One of the following:

  • DME / DME
  • DME / DME / IRU
  • GPS
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47
Q

What is the minimum required equipment for the B767 for RNAV 1 and RNAV 2 operations?

A
  • 1 FMS
  • 1 DME
  • 1 IRS
  • 1 GPS
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48
Q

What are the required ground facilities for commencing a CAT II approach?

A
  • LOC and G/S
  • Outer marker (except where another fix is available on the procedure)
  • Approach lighting system
  • Touchdown zone, Runway, Runway threshold,Centreline and runway end lighting
  • Touchdown RVR (always)
  • Midpoint RVR / Stop end RVR (Any shall be in operation)
  • In the USA stop end shall be in operation)
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49
Q

What are some OM requirements regarding oxygen use?

A
  • Flight crew shall always have oxygen mask ready for immediate use at 25,000ft or above
  • If one pilot leaves seat above 25,000ft, other pilot shall use oxygen until they come back
  • At least one pilot shall use oxygen above 41,000ft
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50
Q

What is the order of the “Confirmation of departure”?

A
  • Weather
  • NOTAM
  • Route and altitude
  • Planned fuel
  • Flight plan ATS
  • Weight and balance
  • Maintenance
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51
Q

What is the required equipment for RNAV 5 operations?

A

One of the following:

  • VOR / DME
  • DME / DME
  • INS or IRS
  • GPS
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52
Q

How can an aircraft acknowledge light signals emitted from the control tower during lost communications?

A
  • Day time = Rock the wings
  • Night time = Flash the landing lights on and off twice
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53
Q

What are the forms to be submitted by the Captain after a flight?

A
  • Nothing for domestic flights
  • For International flights the operational flight plan / dispatcher release note and copy of the flight plan
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54
Q

When is landing permitted around sunset on a runway with no lighting?

A
  • A least 20 minutes before sunset but at no time after sunset
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55
Q

What is the chapter 1 limitation regarding monitoring of raw data during a VOR approach with single FMC operation?

A
  • With a single operational FMC, during VOR approaches one pilot must have raw data from the associated VOR displayed on the RDMI or HSI in the VOR mode
  • No later than the final approach fix
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56
Q

What is VMO / MMO?

A
  • Winglet equipped: 340 / 0.86M
  • Winglet Not equipped: 360 / 0.86M
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57
Q

How are RNAV ATS routes indicated?

A

By route designators M, Y and Z

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58
Q

What are the 4 reasons to do the aborted engine start procedure?

A

Do the aborted start checklist for one or more of the following abort engine start conditions:

  • EGT does not increase by 25 seconds after fuel control switch moved to run
  • No N1 rotation by 30 seconds after N2 stabilised at idle
  • EGT quickly nears or exceeds start limit of 750 degrees
  • Oil pressure is not normal by the time engine is stabilised at idle (min 10psi)
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59
Q

When can the Captain continue an approach below the DH on a CAT II approach?

A
  • When the airplane is judged by the Captain to be in a position where a continuous descent to landing on the intended runway can be made using an appropriate rate of descent and using normal manoeuvres and:

In addition to the ALS crossbar, runway threshold lighting, or touchdown zone lighting, at least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is visible and identifiable:

  • At least 3 consecutive ALS lights (and the crossbar visible)
  • Any runway lighting or centreline lighting
  • Touchdown zone lighting
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60
Q

What clearance between the edge of the taxiway and the main gear exists during a straight taxi?

A
  • The taxiways are normally 23m wide, and the wheelbase is 9.30m
  • This means that there should be approx. 6.5 meters clearance from each main wheel
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61
Q

What is the PWS alert warning area dimension?

A
  • On ground: 3nm straight ahead of the aircraft
  • In-flight: 1.5nm straight ahead of the aircraft
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62
Q

At what points of flight is a confirmation of fuel remaining required?

A
  • At appropriate waypoint after reaching cruise altitude
  • During cruise about every hour
  • A waypoint around end of cruise
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63
Q

What are the 4 operational conditions where the Captain shall report to ATC and ground personnel via ACARS or company radio?

A
  • Emergency or distress situation, witnessing of an accident, or receiving a distress and urgency communication
  • Encountering near collision with another airplane etc
  • Observing any unreliability of an air navigation facility during operations
  • Any other event recognised as an event necessary to report
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64
Q

What is the definition of an “Other Designated Airport”?

A
  • An airport used as an alternate or fuel supply port
  • Selected based on available facilities, support, maintenance and ground handling etc
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65
Q

What are the 7 scenarios that require an emergency landing?

A
  • The non-normal checklist contains the words “Plan to land at the nearest suitable airport”
  • Engine failure or engine fire
  • Cabin smoke or fire which cannot be immediately and positively determined to be extinguished or eliminated
  • One main hydraulic system remaining
  • One main AC power source remaining
  • When trouble occurs in the altimeter and a correct altitude cannot be confirmed with related procedures or a standby altimeter
  • Any other situation where significant adverse effects on safety may be possible if flight is continued
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66
Q

What are the required ground facilities for a CAT I approach?

A
  • LOC and G/S
  • Outer marker (Except for a PAR approach or when another fix is available on the procedure)
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67
Q

What is the standard significant deviation for the localiser on approach?

A
  • 2 deviations (BELOW 1000ft ONLY)
  • More than 1⁄2 a dot or 1 dot on the expanded scale
  • More than 1⁄3 dot or 2⁄3 dot on the expanded scale after the “APPROACHING MINIMUM” is called on CAT II/III approaches
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68
Q

When is an alternate airport not required pre-flight?

A
  • In principle, at least one alternate airport for the destination airport shall be selected under IFR.
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69
Q

What is the definition of a “refuelling airport”?

A
  • An airport where aircraft may refuel without the loading and unloading of passengers or cargo
  • There are no nominated refuelling airports listed for AJX 767 operations
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70
Q

Where is the search and rescue facility located?

A
  • The Rescue Coordination Centre (RCC) for Japan is located at Haneda airport
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71
Q

When is take-off permitted around sunset with no runway lighting?

A
  • Between 10 minutes before sunset and 20 minutes after sunset
  • Obstruction check and takeoff alternate required
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72
Q

What are the 6 concepts for establishing basic operational procedures?

A

They are: (TCCMWD)

  • Task sharing – PF and PM roles / PF flies the airplane and PM tasks mainly other than flying airplane / Area of responsibility / tasks assigned according to accessibility of switch
  • Crew coordination – Use of checklists / confirmed actions
  • Crew communication – Poor expression, failure to hear correctly, lack of understanding / Standard response to order / Standard callouts / briefings
  • Monitor and crosscheck – Scan pattern / instrument monitor during approach / speed and descent rate during approach / verification of autothrottle and autopilot / CDU operation
  • Workload management – Fly the airplane / use of auto flight system
  • Discipline – Professional manner / intentional deviation from SOP’s dangerous / strict discipline to SOP’s
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73
Q

What is the maximum zero fuel weight of the 767-300ER?

A
  • 291,300 lbs with winglets
  • 288,000 lbs without winglets
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74
Q

What are the Captain’s obligations if the sealed certification holder is found to be unsealed?

A
  • Captain shall check whether the seal is broken or not
  • If seal is broken, Captain shall check each document and report it to ANA maintenance personnel
  • The aircraft many still depart unless documents are lost
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75
Q

What are the restrictions on operating the centre fuel pumps?

A
  • Intentional dry running of the centre pumps is prohibited
  • Centre pump switches must not be on unless personnel are available in the flight deck to monitor the low pressure lights
  • The centre pumps must not be switched on prior to engine start unless the centre tank contains usable fuel
  • On the ground or in flight, the centre pump switches must be turned off when the EICAS messages CTR L FUEL PUMP and CTR R FUEL PUMP is displayed
  • Both pump switched must be turned off if the EICAS message CTR L FUEL PUMP or CTR R FUEL PUMP is displayed, AND the tank is empty
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76
Q

How is a TEMPO interpreted during flight planning?

A
  • When TEMPO indicates weather conditions are forecast to be below company minima, TEMPO shall be regarded as being ABOVE the minima at stage of planning
  • Not the case however if synthetic analysis of all weather data, information and judgement indicate that it really is below company minima
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77
Q

What is the maximum speed for normal extension of the landing gear?

A
  • 270kts / 0.82M
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78
Q

When are PWS warnings inhibited until on take-off?

A
  • Between 100kts and 50ft AGL
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79
Q

How far are is the beginning of the aiming point markings from the threshold on a runway less than 2400, and a runway greater than 2400m?

A
  • 400m from the threshold for a runway 2400m or greater
  • 300m from the threshold for a runway less than 2400m
  • 400m = 1312ft and 300m = 984ft, so both are within the ANA touchdown zone area of 750ft to 2000ft
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80
Q

What are some considerations after flying into volcanic ash?

A
  • Exit volcanic ash as quickly as possible, consider a 180 degree turn
  • Conduct Volcanic Ash checklist
  • Don oxygen and smoke goggles if required
  • Turn on engine and wing anti-ice to increase bleed extraction to improve engine stall margin
  • Turn off recirculation fans to increase bleed air extraction to improve engine stall margin
  • Close both thrust levers to reduce EGT which will reduce or prevent the melting of ash and the molten solidification on the turbine nozzles
  • Start the APU
  • Avoid rough control of thrust lever because engine blades may be corroded by volcanic ash leading to higher fuel flows and EGT
  • If visibility is markedly reduced, consider a diversion to an airport where an autoland may be conducted
  • Do not use wiper blades to remove ash
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81
Q

Describe the runway markings from the threshold to the halfway markings for a runway greater than 2400m:

A
  • Stopway markings
  • >>>>>>>> = Less strength than runway
  • -> -> -> -> = Same strength as runway
  • Physical runway threshold
  • 6m of spacing
  • Runway threshold markings, 30m long (16 of them for a runway 60m in width / 12 of them for a runway of 45m in width)
  • 12m of spacing
  • Runway designation markings, 18m long
  • Runway centreline markings, 30m or more long
  • 6 touchdown zone markings, 3 each side of centreline, each 22.5m long, beginning at 150m from the threshold
  • 6 touchdown zone markings, 3 each side of centreline, each 22.5m long, beginning at 300m from the threshold
  • 2 aiming point markers, 1 each side of centreline, each 60m long, beginning at 400m from the threshold
  • 4 touchdown zone markings, 2 each side of centreline, each 22.5m long, beginning at 600m from the threshold
  • 2 touchdown zone markings, 1 each side of centreline, each 22.5m long, beginning at 750m from the threshold
  • 2 touchdown zone markings, 1 each side of centreline, each 22.5m long, beginning at 900m from the threshold
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82
Q

What is the minimum length of runway required for approach and landing on a CAT I or CAT II approach with RVR less than 1200m?

A
  • 115% or longer than the dry landing field length as specified in the AOM
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83
Q

What are the 2 types of precision approach?

A
  • ILS approach and PAR approach
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84
Q

For what contingencies should the Captain inform the ATC unit of, when RVSM assigned altitude cannot be maintained?

A
  • Failure of all automatic altitude control systems
  • Failure of 1 altimetry system
  • Failure of all transponders
  • Loss of thrust on an engine necessitating descent
  • Any other equipment failure affecting ability to maintain assigned altitude (rapid depress / smoke etc)
  • Encountering greater than moderate turbulence
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85
Q

Should the information contained within a “METAR AUTO” be used for determining company minima?

A
  • No
  • Use the reported METAR AUTO as material for synthetic planning and preparation of the flight plan, not for judgement of the company minima
  • The exception to this is Kadena, METAR AUTO from Kadena may be used
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86
Q

When is a deviation in altitude report required when flying in RVSM airspace?

A
  • When any vertical deviation of 300ft or more has occurred
  • Not exempted even if a TCAS RA report is submitted separately
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87
Q

When will the G/A mode disengage during landing?

A
  • If the airplane is floating within 5ft RA for more than 2 seconds when the GA switch is pushed, the autopilot pitch mode remains in FLARE and the autothrottle go-around mode will engage
  • If the airplane is on the ground but has been below 5ft RA for less than 2 seconds when the GA switch is pushed, the GA pitch mode will engage but the A/T mode will remain IDLE. This is because the autothrottle G/A mode remains armed only until touchdown
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88
Q

What are the 7 cabin conditions where the Captain shall report to ground personnel via ACARS or company radio?

A
  • Injury
  • Diseases
  • Illness
  • Poison food
  • Insects
  • Event leading to anxious passengers
  • Restricted carry on items
  • Injury or possible injury caused by flight operations such as turbulence
  • Possible infectious disease
  • Sudden illness and passenger in suspended animation
  • Possible food poisoning or passenger illness caused by in-flight meals or multiple findings of spoiled ingredients which have already been served to multiple passengers
  • Passenger injury caused by destructive insects or animals or the finding of these insects or animals
  • Occurrence of an event which may possibly lead to a cabin emergency creating anxiety among passengers such as a sound, smell, spark or flame, smoke, impact, unusual vibration, oxygen masks dropping from multiple units etc
  • The finding of restricted carry-on items
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89
Q

When is self-contained navigation required?

A
  • Flying over areas where no navaids or landmarks can be effectively used for a distance of more than 300nm (550km)
90
Q

What is the required phraseology when complying with a TCAS RA?

A

“TCAS RA”

91
Q

How is reserve fuel calculated, and at what aircraft weight?

A
  • 30 minutes holding at 1500ft in ISA conditions at destination airport
  • If alternate selected, calculated at the estimated landing weight at ALTERNATE airport
92
Q

What is the definition of a “provisional airport”?

A
  • Used in the same manner as regular airport when regular airport becomes unserviceable due to closure or strike
  • No nominated provisional airports listed for AJX 767 operations
93
Q

How can the tower communicate to an aircraft that has suffered a communications failure?

A
  • Steady green = Cleared to land
  • Steady red = Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
  • Flashing red = Do not land
  • Alternating green and red = Exercise extreme caution
94
Q

The FMC will provide navigation, guidance, and map display between which latitudes?

A
  • Between 87 degrees north and 87 degrees south
95
Q

What is the minimum company minima for a circling approach?

A
  • 550ft / 3200m
96
Q

What is the minimum required width of paved surface to execute a 180-degree turn effectively?

A
  • 46.3m minimum
  • This means that a 180-degree turn on a 45m-width runway without a turning pad is not possible
97
Q

What are the documents to be carried that are required by other countries or other authorities?

A
  • Civil Aircraft Landing Permit (USAF airports only)
  • Emergency response guidance for aircraft incidents involving dangerous goods (USA airports only)
  • Noise documents (all foreign airports)
98
Q

When is anti-ice required on the ground?

A
  • OAT is below 10 degrees and there is visible moisture present such as clouds or fog with visibility of one mile (1600m) or less
  • There’s moisture on the ramp, taxiways or runways that may be injested into the engines causing ice to form on the engine nacells or sensing probes
99
Q

What is the maximum crosswind for a CAT I approach with visibility less than 1200m?

A
  • 10kts
100
Q

When do the deviation calls commence during approach?

A

These can be broken into three groups: - After final descent / below 1000ft AFE / below MDA:

  • VOR approach = After final descent = “DOT LEFT / DOT RIGHT”
  • VNAV approach = After final descent = “GLIDE PATH”
  • Bank angle over 30 = Below 1000ft AFE = “BANK”
  • Speed, sink rate, LOC and G/S = Below 1000ft AFE = “AIRSPEED” / “SINK RATE” / “LOCALISER” / “GLIDESLOPE”
  • Altitude deviation exceeds 50ft below MDA = “ALTITUDE”
101
Q

What are the 4 policies established for basic operational procedures?

A

They are: (FAAP) -

  • Fly first – Top priority placed on this
  • Assure secured and reliable operations – Procedures immune from mistakes / employing fail-safe features -
  • Achieve effective and efficient operation – Operational changes with social and technological innovations / inventing of, or reviewing procedures that are in place
  • Promote standardised and uniform operation – Various combinations of flight crew / small variations add to trouble / fleet standardisation
102
Q

Should descent below MDA be made earlier than necessary during a circling approach?

A
  • No for keeping obstacle clearance, descent below MDA should not be made earlier than necessary
  • Captain should maintain MDA as long as possible during circling
  • The position to descend below the MDA is normally abeam or after the end of the runway
  • Captain’s descent plan has precedence over the normal descent position
103
Q

When is traffic monitoring required?

A
  • Except when impossible due to reduced visibility outside the airplane
  • Pilots shall conduct traffic monitoring to avoid collision with other aircraft or obstacles
104
Q

When is take-off permitted around sunrise on a runway with no runway lighting?

A
  • Take-off permitted 20 minutes before sunrise if obstructions check completed
105
Q

Can the flight crew hand fly an RNAV 1 departure or arrival without engaging the autopilot?

A
  • Yes
  • Flight crew members shall use autopilot OR flight director in the LNAV mode
106
Q

How many individual altimeter checks are required prior to and during RVSM operations?

A
  • 3 seperate checks
  • On the ground, the maximum difference between the Captain and Co-pilot altimeters is 40ft
  • On the ground, the maximum difference between the Captain / Co-pilot altimeter and field elevation is 75ft
  • In the air, the maximum allowable difference between the Captain and Co-pilot altimeters is 200ft
107
Q

What is the speed tolerance according to the OM during cruise flight?

A
  • When not under radar control average cruise speed differs by more than 5% of flight plan cruise speed
  • Captain shall notify ATC
108
Q

Can QNH be used from a “METAR AUTO”?

A
  • No
  • Only use QNH reported by an ATC unit
  • “METAR AUTO” QNH is not reported to ATC units
109
Q

What is the required landing climb gradient required for the B767?

A
  • 3.2%
110
Q

What are the required hand carry articles for the flight crew?

A
  • Operations Manual (Captain only)
  • Competence Certificate (Pilot Licence)
  • Aviation Medical Certificate (plus items required with the certificate such as correcting lenses)
  • Radio operating licence
  • Documents necessary for CIQ (if engaging in international operations)
  • Route manual (only pertinent pages)
  • Aeronautical maps (only pertinent maps)
  • Flash light
111
Q

What is the definition of a CAT I approach?

A
  • Precision approach with a DH not lower than 200ft and RVR not less than 550m
112
Q

When must the Captain order an evacuation according to Civil Aeronautics Law?

A
  • In the event of danger
  • When in their opinion danger is imminent
113
Q

May the Captain deviate from an ATC clearance in the event of an emergency?

A
  • In an emergency requiring immediate action
  • If the Captain must deviate from the provisions of an ATC clearance, the Captain shall promptly notify ATC
114
Q

What happens with the loss of a generator during an autoland below 200ft?

A
  • Both bus ties remain open
  • Autopilot with the failed generator remains unpowered
  • Flight instruments remain powered through the flight instrument transfer busses
  • Autoland continues using the 2 remaining autopilots
115
Q

If ANY of the required ground equipment becomes inoperative during a CAT II approach, can the approach be continued?

A
  • The Captain shall immediately execute a missed approach when ANY of the ground facilities required for CAT II approach become inoperative
  • This applies after commencement of final approach, and before DH
  • Approach may be conducted until the specific point on the approach ban regardless of the weather
  • The required ground facilities must be available for CAT II approaches
116
Q

How has the non-normal landing distance performance data been calculated?

A
  • Threshold speed = BUG + 5
  • ouchdown point = 1250ft
  • Braking = Full manual braking (except for anti-skid inop, or when exceeding brake energy limits)
  • Temperature = 30 degrees (dry and wet) or 0 degrees (snow / ice / slush)
  • Pressure altitude = Sea level
117
Q

What are the 5 checks required by the Captain prior to departure?

A
  • All pax boarded
  • Dangerous goods loaded in accordance with rules
  • All exterior doors locked
  • All obstacles except those necessary for start and push have been removed
  • Seat assignment of passengers is appropriate. (This shall be conducted by the Chief Purser)
118
Q

What is the minimum approach speed?

A
  • VREF must be at least 1.23VS1G
119
Q

What are the documents to be carried that are required by the company?

A
  • Air Operator Certificate (copy)
  • FPDM (including take-off and landing weight table)
  • Normal checklist
  • Landing distance table
  • Handy speed book
  • Required by company for operational convenience and flight not restricted without
  • A missing document shall be replaced at the airport where its replacement is possible
  • Until replaced, crewmembers may use AOM or alternative information from ground personnel or operations.
120
Q

What are the 14 documents to be carried that are required by law?

A
  • Airworthiness Certificate
  • Registration Certificate
  • Designation for Operating Limitations
  • Radio Station Licence
  • Emergency Documents
  • Air Operators Certificate
  • Journey Log and Radio Log
  • Operations Policy Manual Vol. 2
  • Airplane Operations Manual
  • QRH’s
  • MEL / CDL Manual
  • Operations Specifications
  • Operations Manual
  • Route Manual and Jeppesen Chart
121
Q

What is the wheel base dimension of the 767?

A
  • The main gear is 9.30 metres in width
122
Q

What are some points that the Captain shall brief the flight crew on during a crew briefing?

A
  • The procedure specified in 8-12 and 8-13 regardng co-pilot or second co-pilot manipulating the flight controls
  • The extent of manoeuvring in case of training and checking
123
Q

When is EICAS message cross-reference list used?

A
  • To confirm the appropriate MEL for the displayed EICAS message prior to block out
  • Referred to make a decision to continue or return to blocks when a message occurs after block out but prior to the beginning of the take-off
124
Q

What are some examples of situations where significant adverse effects on safety may be possible if flight is continued, not including the 6 examples listed in the QRH?

A
  • Bomb threat
  • Attempted hijacking
  • Biological hazard
  • Mid-air collision
  • Structural failure
  • Fuel shortage
  • Significant flight control failure
  • Crew incapacitation
125
Q

If the ceiling is reported as being below the landing minima, but the reported visibility is above the landing minima, does a departure alternate airport need to be nominated?

A
  • No
  • Even when ceiling is reported to be below the DH/MDH it can be treated as being above landing minima as long as enough visual reference is available
  • The reported ground visibility should be judged to be above landing minima
126
Q

What are the differences between gross and net flight path for both take-off flight path and enroute flight path?

A
  • Take-off flight path: 0.8%
  • Enroute flight path: 1.1%
127
Q

How much clearance from obstacles is required during a drift down procedure?

A
  • With one engine inoperative must clear all obstacles within 5nm either side of track by 2000ft
128
Q

How would you know that you are 2000ft from the end of the runway on take-off following windshear after V1 but before VR?

A
  • 2000ft is 610m
  • On a runway greater than 2400m, the touchdown zone markings immediately prior to the aiming point markers are located 600 meters from the end of the runway
  • If you are on the aiming point markers then you are only 400m from the end of the runway, or 1300ft
  • If departing at night on a runway longer than 1800m, the runway edge lights will turn yellow at 600m, which is approx. 2000ft.
129
Q

When does the shoulder harness need to be fitted?

A
  • During take-off, landing and whenever ordered by the Captain
130
Q

What is the definition of “DME gap”?

A
  • Route segment where DME signals do not meet the required navigational accuracy
131
Q

What is the maximum allowable crosswind for an autoland?

A
  • 25kts
132
Q

The IRS will provide valid magnetic heading and track between which latitudes?

A
  • Between 73 degrees north and 60 degrees south
133
Q

What percentage of maximum rated thrust is available when selecting take-off 1 or take-off 2?

A
  • For the 300 TO 1 is approx. 95% and TO 2 is approx. 85% of maximum rated take-off thrust
  • The 300ER and F have a further 5% reduction
134
Q

When is the alcohol check carried out?

A
  • Before starting flight operations duty
135
Q

When shall the Captain execute a missed approach when below the MDA during a non-precision approach?

A
  • When the airplane is not in a position where a continuous descent to landing on the intended runway can be made using an appropriate rate of descent and normal manoeuvres
  • When the airplane is not in a position that an approach and landing can be made safely due to the loss or reduction of visual reference
136
Q

Is manoeuvring for a TCAS TA recommended?

A
  • NO, the pilot shall not manoeuver in response to a TA only, without any visual acquisition with conflicting aircraft
137
Q

How many IRS’s are required at dispatch?

A
  • 2 IRS’s required for self contained navigation at the time of departure
138
Q

Who is responsible for aircraft safety during the pushback?

A
  • Captain responsible within the scope of their attention
  • Ramp co-ordinator responsible for every aspect in close co-operation with related personnel
139
Q

What is the maximum allowable crosswind for a slush-covered runway?

A
  • Depth 2mm or less = 15kts
  • Depth 3-12mm = 10kts
140
Q

What is the ANA touchdown zone?

A
  • 750ft to 2000ft
141
Q

When does GPWS mode 7 windshear detection begin on departure?

A
  • At rotation
142
Q

What is the definition of ceiling?

A

Height of the lowest layer of cloud reported as:

  • Broken or 5 octas or more below 20,000ft or:
  • Reported as BKN, OVC, or X
143
Q

When can the Captain continue an approach below the MDA on a non-precision approach?

A
  • Airplane continuously in a position from which a descent to landing on the intended runway can be made at an appropriate rate of descent using normal manoeuvres and:

At least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is clearly visible and identifiable:

  • Threshold
  • Markings (Numbers/Threshold stripes/Touchdown zone)
  • Approach lighting system or runway alignment indicator
  • Runway/Threshold/Touchdown zone/Edge Lighting
  • Visual guidance slope indicator
144
Q

When will the EICAS message ALT DISAGREE be displayed, and what are some considerations following this message?

A
  • When the Captain and co-pilot altimeter indications disagree by more than 200ft
  • The on-board equipment requirements for RVSM are no longer satisfied
  • Contact ATC and comply with their instruction
  • The non-normal checklist will direct this
145
Q

How is preparation of weight and balance conducted?

A
  • If Load Control available, prepared by that system
  • If Load Control not available, Load Controller at airport
  • No Load Controller at airport, by flight crew members
  • The Captain shall cross check data with Load Controller
146
Q

How is taxi fuel calculated?

A
  • At ramp weight
147
Q

What information is presented by the ground personnel regarding the flight concerned?

A
  • Weather information
  • NOTAMS
  • Aircraft to be used
  • Flight crew members assigned
  • Passengers and cargo to be loaded
  • Anything necessary to prepare operational flight plan
148
Q

If there is a disagreement over the operational flight plan between the Captain and Flight Dispatcher, which option shall be taken?

A
  • The safer option shall be adopted
149
Q

What are the limitations on V1 speed?

A

V1 must be:

  • Greater than or equal to VMCG
  • Less than or equal to VR
  • Less than or equal to VMBE
150
Q

Can an approach be continued past the VDP if no visual reference has been established?

A
  • Yes
  • Whether to commence a missed approach after passing the VDP depends on the Captain’s discretion
151
Q

What are some of the required procedures for flight crew during the critical phase?

A
  • Except for emergency or safety communication, company and crew communication kept minimal during critical phases such as taxiing, taking off, climbing, descending and landing
  • The seat belt sign should be kept on
  • Flight crew members should use headsets and boom microphone
  • No cockpit seat changes shall be made below 10,000ft
152
Q

What is the maximum allowable difference between the Captain and Co-pilot’s altimeter on the ground for RVSM operation?

A
  • 40ft
153
Q

Level off at the cleared assigned flight level should be achieved to within what tolerance?

A
  • Within 150ft of the assigned altitude for RVSM
154
Q

By what time is reporting for duty required?

A
  • One hour before estimated time of departure
155
Q

What is the difference in required equipment for the B767 for RNAV 5 operations as opposed to RNAV 1 operations?

A
  • RNAV 5 requires the addition of a VOR
156
Q

How long are the aiming point and touchdown zone markings?

A
  • Aiming point markings 60m long
  • Touchdown zone markings 22.5m long
157
Q

What is P-RNAV?

A
  • The European equivalent of RNAV 1, so accurate to within 1nm for 95% of the total flight time
158
Q

What are the restrictions on VFR?

A
  • No VFR at night
  • No VFR above 20,000ft
  • No “VMC on top”
159
Q

What is PCF, and how is it calculated?

A
  • Planned Contingency Fuel is fuel that the company specifies for various routes and airports that cause increased fuel burn, based on statistical results
  • Amount is specified in the route manual
  • For planning it is calculated at estimated landing weight at destination 1500ft ISA holding
160
Q

What is the TCAS traffic avoidance procedure?

A

For a CLIMB RA in a landing configuration, accomplish the following procedure:

  • Autopilot disengage
  • Autothrottle disconnect
  • Thrust levers full forward
  • Call flaps 20
  • Smoothly adjust pitch to satisfy the RA command
  • Verify a positive rate of climb on the altimeter and call gear up
161
Q

When do the runway edge lights turn from white to yellow approaching the end of the runway?

A
  • The last 1⁄3 or 600m whichever is less
162
Q

What is the definition of “alternate fuel”, and how is it calculated?

A
  • Fuel required from go-around at the departure airport to landing at the alternate airport
  • If 2 or more alternate airports selected the most distant airport will be used in calculations
  • Climb caculated at weight after deducting burn-off fuel and contingency fuel from estimated takeoff weight or estimated weight at the re-clear fix
  • Cruise speed and power settings derived from AOM
  • Cruise and descent calcualted using estimated weights
163
Q

What is the maximum DME gap?

A
  • When critical DME’s unserviceable confirm that the DME gap is within 14nm
  • If DME gap greater than 14nm RNAV 1 and RNAV 2 operations are prohibited
164
Q

What letter indicates RVSM capability on the ATS flight plan strip?

A

W

165
Q

What ATC considerations exist following an ADC failure?

A
  • RVSM airspace is FL290 to FL410. A pilot shall promptly inform ATC when one of the two altitude measuring systems is not working
  • After that the Captain shall inform the flight dispatcher
  • For the B767 altitude data shall be displayed on both altimeters based on air data from 2 different air data sources
166
Q

In addition to the hand carry articles, what other documents should flight crew members take with them?

A
  • Operational flight plan documents or dispatcher release message
  • A copy of the ATS flight plan
167
Q

What is the standard significant deviation from airspeed on approach?

A
  • 10kts above or 5kts below with landing flap below 1000ft AFE
168
Q

What are the limitations of V2?

A

V2 must be:

  • 13% greater than the 1-g stall speed
  • 10% greater than VMCA
169
Q

What items shall be briefed to a jump seat passenger?

A
  • Actions to be taken in emergency
  • Hijack precautions
  • Use of oxygen mask and life vest
  • Instructions for using jump seat
170
Q

What procedure is required on climb to cruising level following a communications failure?

A
  • Continue the climb to the assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher
  • In a radar environment, 7 minutes after the transponder has been set to 7600, or 7 minutes at MEA, continue climb to the filed cruising altitude or:
  • 20 minutes after a compulsory reporting point is not reported climb to filed altitude
171
Q

What is the standard significant deviation for the VOR on approach?

A
  • More than 1 dot (5 degrees) below 1000ft
172
Q

What is the required phraseology when clear of a TCAS RA and returning to the cleared level or clearance?

A

“ CLEAR OF CONFLICT, RETURNING TO (assigned clearance)”

173
Q

What is the GPWS escape manoeuver?

A

On activation of the “PULL UP”, or “TERRAIN TERRAIN PULL UP”, or “OBSTACLE OBSTACLE PULL UP” warning, accomplish the following procedure:

  • Disengage autopilot
  • Disconnect autothrottle
  • Aggressively apply maximum thrust
  • Simultaneously roll wings level and rotate to an initial pitch attitude to 20 degrees
  • Set the speedbrake lever to down
  • If terrain remains a threat, continue rotation up to pitch limit (if available), stick shaker or initial buffet
  • Do not change flap or gear configuration until terrain separation is assured
  • Monitor radio altimeter for sustained or increasing terrain separation
  • When clear of terrain, slowly decrease pitch attitude and accelerate
174
Q

What is the minimum equipment required for sole navigation?

A
  • 2 IRS and 2 FMC
  • Meets the INS system requirements as the sole means of navigation for flights up to 18 hours
175
Q

If you encountered windshear after V1 but prior to VR, when would you rotate the aircraft? How would you do this?

A
  • If windshear is encountered near the normal rotation speed and airspeed suddenly decreases, there may not be enough runway left to accelerate back to normal take-off speed
  • IF THERE IS INSUFFICIENT RUNWAY TO STOP, initiate a normal rotation at least 2000ft before the end of the runway even if airspeed is low
  • ENSURE MAXIMUM THRUST IS SET
  • Higher than normal attitudes may be required to lift off in the remaining runway
176
Q

What is contingency fuel, and how is it calculated?

A
  • Contingency fuel caters for fuel increase due to variations in wind, temperature, flight level, performance use of anti-ice etc
  • Calculated as 5% of burn-off fuel, or 15 minutes holding at destination 1500ft ISA holding, whichever is greater
177
Q

What are the Captain’s responsibilities regarding checking weather and fuel approaching top of descent?

A
  • Check weather at destination and alternate airports
  • Determine whether an approach to destination can be made or not
  • Determine amount of fuel to cope with contingencies such as go-around, detour or delay instructed by ATC
178
Q

What is the required phraseology when an ATC instruction is in contradiction to a TCAS RA?

A

“UNABLE TCAS RA”

179
Q

Pre-flight, when are 2 alternate airports required?

A
  • When the weather conditions at the destination airport are forecast to be below the landing minima intermittently at the ETA, at least 2 alternates shall be selected.
  • However, if the forecast CIG and VIS indicates at or above 1,500ft and 5,000m at the estimated time of arrival of the alternate airport, then other alternate airport is not required
180
Q

What is the minimum RVR for an AJX 767 on a CAT II approach?

A
  • 300m
181
Q

What is the minimum required visibility for departure when SSP / LVP are NOT in place?

A
  • 400m
182
Q

Is it permissible to operate in class G airspace?

A
  • No, except in an unavoidable situation such as emergency
  • The following are exempted:
  • United States Military airspace
  • Special procedures established in the route manual
183
Q

How are the 3 autopilots powered during an autoland?

A

During autoland the busses isolate to allow three independent power sources to 3 autopilots as follows:

  • Left main AC system powers left autopilot
  • Right main AC system powers right autopilot
  • Battery/standby system powers centre autopilot
184
Q

The weather radar must not be operated within how many feet of ground personnel?

A
  • Do not operate the weather radar in a hangar or within 50ft of any personnel or fuel spill
  • The Hangar/Personnel restriction does NOT apply to the test mode
185
Q

Can the Captain change the company clearance during flight without consulting the Flight Dispatcher?

A
  • Yes
  • Provided change does not seriously affect fuel planning and flight watch duties
186
Q

What is the definition of “burn off fuel”?

A
  • Fuel required to fly from take-off at departure airport to landing at destination airport
187
Q

When the seat belt sign is turned on, what are the cabin attendant’s actions?

A
  • Sit after conducting minimum safety measures
  • Request that passengers keep their seatbelts fastened by an announcement
188
Q

Is contingency fuel assumed to be used in fuel planning?

A
  • Yes
  • In planning it’s assumed to be consumed by the time the aircraft lands at the destination
  • In calculating allowable landing weight however, it is not considered to be used
189
Q

If NO AUTOLND is displayed on the ASA, can it be blanked?

A

It is dependant upon the APP switch and the fault that caused it:

  • Before APP mode is selected it can blanked but ONLY if condition that led to fault is no longer present
  • After APP mode is selected it remains displayed until autopilots are disengaged
190
Q

What happens with the loss of a generator during an autoland above 200ft?

A
  • Both bus tie breakers close and the operating generator powers both the left and right AC busses
  • Left main AC system powers centre autopilot
  • NO LAND 3 is displayed on the ASA
191
Q

What is the windshear escape manoeuver for manual flight?

A
  • Disengage autopilot
  • Push either go-around switch
  • Aggressively apply maximum thrust
  • Disconnect autothrottle
  • Simultaneously roll wings level and rotate towards an initial pitch attitude of 15 degrees
  • Set the speedbrake lever down
  • Follow flight director guidance
  • Do not change gear or flap configuration until windshear is no longer a factor
  • Monitor vertical speed and altitude
  • Do not attempt to regain lost airspeed until windshear is no longer a factor
192
Q

Can CMV be used at the planning stage from TAF’s and METAR’s?

A
  • No
  • VIS shall not be converted to CMV at the planning stage
193
Q

What are some indications of volcanic ash?

A
  • Smoke or ash in the cockpit or cabin
  • A smell similar to electrical smoke
  • Multiple engine malfunctions such as stalls, increasing EGT, fluctuating parameters, torching from tailpipe etc
  • St. Elmo’s fire
  • A bright orange glow in the engine inlets
  • False cargo fire warnings
  • Shadows cast by the landing lights
  • Reduction in visibility
  • Reduction in landing light effectiveness
  • EICAS messages FWD EQPT OVHT or FWD EQPT SMOKE may be displayed
194
Q

What is the maximum allowable fuel load?

A
  • Main tanks = 42,671lbs (x 2) = 85,342 lbs (300)
  • Centre tank = 84,490lbs = 169,832 lbs (-300ER/F)
195
Q

What is the required phraseology when unable to maintain RVSM due to on-board equipment failure?

A

“UNABLE RVSM DUE EQUIPMENT”

196
Q

What separation is provided in RVSM airspace?

A
  • 1000ft vertical separation instead of standard 2000ft
197
Q

What is the law and regulation reference for the confirmation of departure?

A
  • Aviation law 73-2
  • Aviation regulation 164-14
198
Q

Should the Captain make a PA regarding turbulence?

A
  • Yes to provide information about turbulence (time, level, duration etc.)
  • When any turbulence expected Captain or cabin attendants inform pax about the turbulence BEFORE to turning seatbelt sign on
199
Q

Can vertical visibility be used as a substitute to ceiling in a forecast?

A
  • Yes
  • When vertical visibility is reported instead of cloud conditions, vertical visibility can be used as height of ceiling
200
Q

What is the definition of RNAV 1?

A
  • Required navigation accuracy is equal or better than 1nm for 95% of the total flight time
201
Q

What is an approach ban?

A
  • The forbidding of continuing the approach beyond a specified point unless the reported weather is above the specified company minima
202
Q

What is the approach ban limitation on reported RVR?

A
  • Captain shall execute a missed approach when any reported RVR is less than 200m
203
Q

What is the definition of “critical DME”?

A
  • When critical DME is unserviceable it results in navigation becoming insufficient for DME/DME/IRU based operations
204
Q

What is the required phraseology when unable to maintain RVSM due to turbulence?

A

“UNABLE RVSM DUE TURBULENCE”

205
Q

What company communication measures are to be taken by the Captain after encountering turbulence?

A
  • Report it through the company radio and at the post flight briefing
206
Q

When is the critical phase?

A
  • Departure phase: Block out to 5 minutes after take-off
  • Arrival phase: Signal of about 10 minutes prior to landing to block in
207
Q

What is the maximum crosswind limit on a grooved wet runway?

A
  • 25kts
208
Q

What is the definition of a CAT II approach?

A
  • A precision approach with DH lower than 200ft, but not lower than 100ft and RVR not less than 300m
209
Q

Can the Captain ever land overweight?

A
  • Yes
  • In an emergency situation Captain may land overweight at their discretion in the interest of safety
210
Q

What items are required to be taken off the aircraft in an evacuation?

A
  • Captain: Crash axe, megaphone, flash light
  • Co-pilot: Signal kit, flash light
  • Chief Purser and cabin attendant at R2 take the ELT’s
  • Even though crewmembers have to take out emergency articles, they are not absolutely obliged to do so, no matter how tense the situation
  • Instead they should concentrate their total efforts towards saving lives
211
Q

What is the maximum take-off weight for the 767-300ER?

A
  • 400,000 lbs
212
Q

What is the definition of a “Regular Airport”?

A
  • An airport based on the approved business plan, regularly used for departure/arrivals
213
Q

What items of the company clearance do the Captain and Flight Dispatcher need to consult each other before changing?

A
  • Destination airport
  • Alternate airport
  • Route
  • Altitude (except where revised data shown in flight plan and no additional fuel required)
  • Required fuel on board
  • Flight rules
214
Q

What are the Captain’s communication requirements in an emergency?

A

Maintain close contact with:

  • ATC
  • Search and rescue authorities
  • The flight dispatcher
  • Give sufficient consideration to advice or suggestions from them
215
Q

When must mutual agreement between the Captain and flight dispatcher be made regarding the operational flight plan?

A
  • At least 30 minutes prior to the estimated time of departure
216
Q

What type of approach can CMV be used for?

A
  • Straight-in approaches only
217
Q

What is the acceptable bearing difference between the database and the chart?

A
  • Up to 3 degrees is acceptable for RNAV 1 operations
218
Q

What is the very lowest take-off minima available to the AJX 767?

A
  • 200m TDZ / 200m MID / 200m END
  • LVP must be in use
219
Q

What is the required 1st segment climb gradient for the B767?

A
  • Positive
220
Q

What are some OM considerations following lost communications?

A
  • Maintain a listening watch on the appropriate frequency
  • Continue flight in accordance with the procedures written in the route manual
  • If the receiver is still operative, follow ATC instructions as normal
  • Use the phrase “Transmitting blind”
  • Consider using HF communication if necessary
  • Set transponder code 7600

AJX Study (30 decks)

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