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NURS 232 > Presentation Questions > Flashcards

Presentation Questions Flashcards

1
Q

5% dextrose in water is known as:

  1. An isotonic solution
  2. A hypertonic solution
  3. A hypotonic solution
A

1 & 3

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2
Q

Mr. Lee was involved in a motor vehicle crash and presents to the ER with severe internal bleeding. He is severely hypotensive and unresponsive. The nurse anticipates that which IV solution will most likely be prescribed:

a) 5% dextrose in lactated ringers
b) 0.33% sodium chloride (1/3 normal saline)
c) 0.225% sodium chloride (1/4 normal saline)
d) 0.45% sodium chloride (1/2 normal saline)

A

A

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3
Q

What type of fluid would a patient with severe hyponatremia most likely be started on?

a) Hypotonic
b) Isotonic
c) Hypertonic

A

C

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4
Q 
Which IV fluid(s) most accurately represents the body’s blood serum and plasma?
A. NaCl 0.9%
B. Lactated Ringer’s
C. D5W
D. All of the above
A

B

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5
Q 
Which IV fluid is NOT Isotonic
A. Lactated Ringers
B. NaCl 0.9%
C. NaCl 0.45%
D. D5W
A

C

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6
Q 
Which IV solution causes water to move out of the cells and into the extracellular fluid, disrupting the cell function?
A. Isotonic
B. Hypertonic
C. Hypotonic
D. Supersonic
A

B

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7
Q

What would be a medical condition that is contraindicated for Hemodialysis?

a. Diabetes
b. Atherosclerosis
c. Cancer
d. COPD

A

B

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8
Q

What type of dialysis does not require a machine?

a. Intermittent Peritoneal Dialysis (IPD)
b. Hemodialysis (HD)
c. Automated Peritoneal Dialysis (APD)
d. Continuous Ambulatory Peritoneal Dialysis (CAPD)

A

D

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9
Q

Dietary restrictions for both Hemodialysis and Peritoneal dialysis include? [Select all]

a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Phosphorus
d. Protein

A

A, C, D

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10
Q

Which of the following are advantages of PD? (Choose all that apply)

a. Lower treatment frequency
b. Fewer dietary restrictions
c. Low risk of protein loss
d. Less CVS stress

A

B, D

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11
Q 
Before starting HD treatment, which of the following should the nurse assess? (Choose
all that apply)
a. neurological status
b. blood pressure
c. weight
d. lung sounds
e. temperature
A

All but A

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12
Q 
What is a diagnosis that is especially indicated for peritoneal dialysis instead of
hemodialysis?
a. Diabetes
b. Breast cancer
c. Chronic kidney disease
d. Obstructive pulmonary disease
A

A

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13
Q

What are the two primary clinical manifestations of DI? Select all that apply

  1. Polyuria
  2. Polyphagia
  3. Polydipsia
  4. Fatigue
A

A, B

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14
Q

What happens to vasopressin release in response to low fluid volume?

a. More vasopressin is released
b. Less vasopressin is released
c. Release of vasopressin stays the same
d. Release of vasopressin fluctuates

A

A

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15
Q

Knowing that desmopressin is a synthetic form of vasopressin, what is the action of
desmopressin?
a. Inhibit water reabsorption by blocking vasopressin receptors
b. Enhance water reabsorption by blocking vasopressin receptors
c. Enhance reabsorption of water in the kidneys
d. Inhibit reabsorption of water in the kidneys

A

C

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16
Q

Which medication is best used for the treatment of diabetes insipidus?

a. Desmopressin
b. Insulin lispro
c. Humulin R
d. Biguanides

A

A

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17
Q 
Which of the following are primary clinical manifestations of diabetes insipidus?
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY:
a. Polyuria
b. Polyphagia
c. Extreme thirst
d. Hyperglycemia
A

A, C

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18
Q

Which type of diabetes insipidus results in a reduction of the renal response to ADH?

a. Dipsogenic Diabetes Insipidus
b. Central Diabetes Insipidus
c. Gestational Diabetes Insipidus
d. Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus

A

D

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19
Q

Why would a patient choose immunotherapy over chemotherapy
a. Chemotherapy treatments have to be completed in solidarity and therefore
reduce your chance of recovering
b. Immunotherapy works to boost your natural defences instead of just killing off
cells including healthy ones
c. Chemotherapy works to boost your natural defences instead of just killing off
cells including healthy ones
d. Immunotherapy has been around for years and proven to be the best treatment
for cancer

A

B

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20
Q

Which one of these is NOT a form of Immunotherapy

a. T-Cell therapy
b. Cancer Vaccines
c. Tumour-Agnostic Treatments
d. Cryoablation

A

D

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21
Q 
Which disease requires the immunotherapy treatment that injects a genetically
modified herpes virus (T-VEC treatment)?
a. Melanoma
b. Breast Cancer
c. Bladder Cancer
d. Brain Cancer
A

A

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22
Q

What is immunotherapy most often used to treat?

a) Diabetes
b) Sepsis
c) Breast Cancer
d) Kidney Disease
e) Prostate Cancer

A

C

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23
Q

What part of the body does immunotherapy stimulate?

a) The blood
b) The respiratory system
c) The brain
d) The immune system
e) The bladder

A

D

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24
Q

Which one of the following is considered a Cancer Vaccine.

a) HPV
b) Influenza
c) Covid-19 vaccine
d) Varicella
e) Hepatitis A

A

A

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25
Q

What type of condition may require the need of ABG testing?

a. Glaucoma
b. GERD
c. Urinary Tract Infection
d. COPD

A

D

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26
Q

If the pH has decreased, the PaCO2 has increased and the HCO3 has increased due to
compensation, what disorder is this showcasing?
a. Respiratory Acidosis
b. Metabolic Alkalosis
c. Respiratory Alkalosis
d. Metabolic Acidosis

A

A

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27
Q

What is the nurse’s responsibility during ABG testing? (Select ALL that apply)
a. Provide patient education prior to ABG testing
b. Taking the ABG test if you have the proper education and training
c. Analyze the lab results and report to the physician of the test results and abnormal
values
d. All of the above

A

D

28
Q

What is a normal value of pH in an Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) test?

a. 7.30
b. 7.40
c. 7.50
d. I don’t know

A

B

29
Q

Which of following will cause an increase of PaO2?

a. ↓oxygen levels in the inhaled air
b. COPD
c. ↑ oxygen levels in the inhaled air
d. I don’t know

A

C

30
Q

What is the main symptom of SCD?

a. Fever
b. Lowered LOC
c. Pain
d. Drowsiness

A

b

31
Q

What is a curative treatment for SCD?

a. Hydroxyurea
b. Stem Cell Transplant
c. Regular blood exchange of transfusion

A

b

32
Q 
What are nurses' main priorities when caring for a patient with SCD? (Select all that
apply)
a. Pain management
b. Promote good hydration
c. Advocate for Stem Cell Transplant
d. Assess for infection
A

a,b,d

33
Q

What are the treatments and symptoms management for Sickle Cell Disease? Select all that apply.

a. Antibiotics
b. Opioids and OTC pain medication
c. Blood transfusions
d. Antiemetics
e. Iron Supplements

A

a, b, c, e

34
Q

What is not a complication of Sickle Cell Disease?

a. Delayed puberty
b. Edema
c. Eye damage
d. Aplastic crisis

A

b

35
Q

Which ancestry has the lowest risk of Sickle Cell Disease?

a. African
b. Middle Eastern
c. Caucasian
d. Mediterranean

A

c

36
Q 
What are the most common severe symptoms of alcohol withdrawal? [select all that
apply]
a. Hallucinations
b. Tachycardia
c. Hypotension
d. Seizures
A

a, d

37
Q

Why would lorazepam be favoured over diazepam as a part of the treatment for alcohol
withdrawal?
a. Lorazepam has fewer side effects than diazepam
b. Diazepam isn’t as effective as lorazepam
c. Lorazepam is preferred to be used for patients who are frail, elderly,
or who are in severe liver failure

A

c

38
Q

What are the most important electrolyte imbalances the nurse should monitor for in the
labs when caring for a patient with alcohol withdrawal? [select all that apply]
a. Hypokalemia
b. Hypercalcemia
c. Hypophosphatemia
d. Hypomagnesemia

A

a, c, d

39
Q

What is the most prominent nursing priority in pt experiencing alcohol withdrawal?

a. Risk for injury
b. Abnormal breathing rate
c. therapeutic relationship
d. Acute confusion

A

a

40
Q

What is a potential lab diagnostic abnormally relating to liver disease?

a. hypovolemia
b. hypoglycemia
c. hyperkalemia
d. hypercalcemia

A

b

41
Q

True or False: Humira is an immunosuppressant.

a) True
b) False

A

a

42
Q

By what route(s) is Humira given?

a) PO
b) Intramuscularly
c) Subcutaneously
d) IV

A

c

43
Q

Does Humira work for everyone?

a) Yes, Humira achieves its goal in patients
b) No, Humira does not work for all patients
c) Individual results can vary from patient to patient

A

b

44
Q

What type of insulin is used in the insulin pump?

a. Rapid acting
b. Short acting
c. Intermediate acting
d. Long acting
e. mixed

A

a

45
Q

What part of the insulin pump remains of the patient’s body when they shower or do aquatic
exercise (like swimming) SELECT ALL THAT APPLY?
a. The pump and insulin
b. The tubing
c. The infusion set
d. The CGM (continuous glucose monitor)

A

c, d

46
Q

How often should the infusion set be replaced SELECT ALL THAT APPLY?

a. Every day
b. Every 2-3 days
c. Every week
d. Once a month
e. If a rash or reaction occurs at the site of the infusion set

A

b, e

47
Q

How many parts are there to an Insulin Pump?

a. Two
b. Four (insulin pump, catheter, infusion cannula, and continuous glucose sensor)
c. Three

A

b

48
Q

Only those with Type 1 Diabetes can use an Insulin Pump?

a. True
b. False – (anyone can utilize an insulin pump)

A

b

49
Q

What are the two major risk factors for future strokes:

a. Hypertension and heart diseases (correct)
b. Hypotension and heart diseases
c. Family history and smoking
d. Diabetes and hypertension

A

a

50
Q

Which ongoing nursing consideration is NOT correct in the following?

a. Monitor vital signs
b. Monitor for aspiration
c. Monitor mood and affect
d. Monitor neuro status

A

c

51
Q 
What is the greatest differentiating feature for identifying cerebellar strokes as opposed to
normal ischemic strokes?
a. gait and limb ataxia
b. numbness and tingling
c. lethargy
d. memory loss
A

a

52
Q

What type of stroke can cause a cerebellar stroke?

a. Ischemic stroke.
b. Hemorrhagic stroke.
c. Transient ischemic attack
d. Both a and b

A

d

53
Q

What is not a risk factor for a cerebellar stroke?

a. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT)
b. Exposure to excessive noise
c. Obesity and inactivity
d. Hypertension

A

b

54
Q

Which one of these statements is true for treatments for strokes?

a. There is no discovered treatment yet, but some are in clinical trial
b. Hemorrhagic strokes have drug therapy treatments
c. Ischemic strokes have drug therapy treatments
d. Surgical therapy for ischemic stroke

A

c

55
Q

What type of waves are used in an echocardiogram?

a. X-Rays
b. Infrared Rays
c. Ultrasound Rays
d. Radio Waves

A

c

56
Q 
Which of the following are some effects of b-type natriuretic peptides on the body?
(SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
a. Increase heart rate
b. Lower blood pressure
c. Promote urine excretion
d. Increase blood viscosity
A

b, c

57
Q

What change in BNP levels indicates a patient’s risk for heart failure is decreasing?

a. Increasing levels of BNP
b. Fluctuating levels of BNP
c. Decreasing levels of BNP
d. Unchanging levels of BNP

A

c

58
Q 
What conditions can DBS be used
for?
a. Parkinson’s Disease,
essential tremors, and
dystonia.
b. Parkinson’s Disease,
dystonia, and dementia.
c. Parksinson’s Disease,
epilepsy, and cerebral palsy.
A

a

59
Q 
What are the major side effects from
DBS?
a. Diarrhea, nausea, and
vomiting.
b. Confusion, seizures,
infection, balance
difficulties, and weight
gain.
c. Diaphoresis, lethargy,
irritability, and confusion
A

b

60
Q 
What is the exclusion criteria for
DBS?
a. Patients with diabetes and
HTN.
b. Patients with heart failure and
CKD.
c. Patients who have dementia
or severe depression.
A

c

61
Q

In Deep Brain Stimulation (DBS), how does the electrode wire in the brain reach the
Implantable Pulse Generator (IPG) typically located under the skin near the collarbone?
a. The wire hangs freely outside of the body.
b. They are connected wirelessly using infrared technology.
c. The wire runs under the skin from the head, down the neck and shoulders, and to
the IPG.
d. The wire is threaded through the vein from the brain down to the IPG.

A

c

62
Q

After a patient has undergone deep brain stimulation surgery, what post-op concern is of
highest priority to you as the primary nurse ?
a. Decrease in oxygen saturation and increased respiration rate.
b. Deviation in 48/6 neurological assessment.
c. 8/10 stabbing spinal pain.
d. Sudden slurred speech.

A

a

63
Q

What condition is DBS most commonly used for?

a. Peripheral neuropathy r/t diabetes mellitus
b. Shingles
c. Narcolepsy
d. Parkinson’s Disease

A

d

64
Q

While researching health history and previous assessment data on your 45-year-old female
patient who was recently diagnosed with HPV type 16 you are expecting all of the following
abnormal findings except:
a. Signs of cell abnormalities in PAP test results
b. Clustered warts surrounding the vulva
c. Shorter lighter menstrual cycles
d. A positive HPV DNA test

A

c

65
Q

Primary role(s) of nurses in addressing HPV? (select all that apply)

a. Provide comfort
b. Diagnose type of HPV
c. Education
d. Prevention

A

a, c, d

66
Q

Treatments for active HPV infections include all except:

a. Topical treatment
b. Antibiotic medications
c. Chemical or ablative wart removal
d. Vaccines

A

b

NURS 232 (19 decks)

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