pre-finals Flashcards
1
Q
The conclusive presumption of
the law is associated with which
of the following legal maxims?
a. Ignorantia legis non excusat
b. Lex prospicit non respicit
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
a. Ignorantia legis non excusat
2
Q
The law shall become effective
after which of the following
periods?
a. 15 days prior to the publication
b. 15 days after the approval
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
d. Neither A nor B
3
Q
The law which is commonly
referred as divine inspiration.
a. Divine Law
b. Natural Law
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
b. Natural Law
4
Q
A veto message may be
overridden by which of the
following votes?
a. Two thirds votes of each house
b. Two thirds votes of the cabinet
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
a. Two thirds votes of each house
5
Q
The law of which the
interpretation of right or wrong is
vested to a group and not to a
single person.
a. Moral Law
b. Natural Law
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
a. Moral Law
6
Q
Cases decided by the Supreme
Court form part of the law of the
land came from which the
following sources of law.
a. Jurisprudence
b. Legislation
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
a. Jurisprudence
7
Q
The law promulgated and
enforced by the state which
concerns us most for it entails
punishments with a concept of
sin and salvation.
a. State Law
b. Divine Law
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
d. Neither A nor B
8
Q
A source of the law which is said
to be the Supreme Law of the
land.
a. Divine Law
b. Constitution
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
b. Constitution
9
Q
Habits and practices in an
uninterrupted use in which of the
following sources of law?
a. Constitution
b. Legislation
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
d. Neither A nor B
Custom siya
10
Q
Which is TRUE for a bill to
become a law?
a. It shall undergo three readings
b. It shall be endorsed by anyone
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
a. It shall undergo three readings
11
Q
A bill in the first reading involves
which of the following steps?
a. Reading of the number and the title
b. Reading of the number, title, and
referral to the Committee
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
b. Reading of the number, title, and
referral to the Committee
12
Q
The law which is commonly
referred as divine revelation.
a. Natural Law
b. Moral Law
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
d. Neither A nor B
13
Q
. A source of the law of which the
statutes were enacted and
promulgated.
a. Constitution
b. Legislation
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
b. Legislation
14
Q
Which section of RA 5527 is about
the qualification of the examinees
for the Medical Technologists
licensure examination?
a. Section 12
b. Section 16
c. Section 17
d. Section 15
A
b. Section 16
15
Q
Which of the following is the old
PRC law?
a. RA 8981
b. RA 7722
c. PD 498
d. PD 223
A
d. PD 223
15
Q
Which of the following is the old
PRC law?
a. RA 8981
b. RA 7722
c. PD 498
d. PD 223
A
d. PD 223
16
Q
RA 6138 is composed of how
many sections.
a. 3
b. 22
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
a. 3
17
Q
Amended sections in PD 498
EXCEPT:
a. Section 2
b. Section 12
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
b. Section 12
18
Q
Who among the following persons
is exempted in obtaining a valid
certificate of registration as a
medical technologist?
a. Medical Technologist in the service
of US Armed Force stationed
anywhere
b. Duly licensed Filipino Medical
technologist
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
A
d. None of the above
19
Q
A person who engages in the
work of Medical Technology under
the supervision of a licensed
pathologist.
a. Medical Technologist
b. Medical Technician Both A and B
c. All of the above
d. None of the abo
A
c. All of the above
20
Q
RA 5527 is composed of how
many sections?
a. 30
b. 32
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
b. 32
21
Q
Amendment made in RA 5527.
a. PD1534
b. PD 6138
c. RA 498
d. RA 1534
A
a. PD1534
22
Q
The President of the Philippines
at the time of the approval of RA
6138.
a. Fidel V. Ramos
b. Diosdado Macapagal
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
d. Neither A nor B
23
Q
Qualification of examination is
found in which of the following
sections?
a. Section 19
b. Section 17
c. Section 18
d. Section 16
A
d. Section 16
24
Which of the following is the
complete title of the Republic Act
5527?
a. An act requiring the Medical
Technologist to register, Define their
practices and for other purposes.
b. An act requiring the Registration of
Medical Technology practices and
other purposes.
c. An Act requiring the Medical
Technology to register, define their
practices, and for other purposes.
d. An act requiring the Registration of
Medical Technologists, Defining their
practices and other purposes.
d. An act requiring the Registration of
Medical Technologists, Defining their
practices and other purposes.
25
The Board of Medical Technology
is composed of which of the
following persons?
a. Two Pathologist, One Registered
Medical Technologist
b. Two Registered Medical
Technologists, One Pathologist
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
b. Two Registered Medical
Technologists, One Pathologist
26
RA 6138 amended which of the
following sections?
a. Section 17
b. Section 21
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
b. Section 21
27
In RA 5527, in case of death,
disability or removal from office
of an examiner, how long the
successor shall hold the office?
a. Same as that of the predecessor
b. Depends on the instructions of the
Commissioner
c. The remaining of the term of the
predecessor
d. Four fresh years plus the remaining
term of the predecessor
c. The remaining of the term of the
predecessor
28
The RA 5527 took effect on which
of the following dates?
a. June 23, 1969
b. June 23, 1974
c. June 21, 1974
d. June 21, 1969
d. June 21, 1969
29
The term of office of the members
of the Board of Medical
Technology.
a. 3 years without reappointment
b. 3 years without prejudice to one
reappointment
c. 3 years with two reappointments
d. 3 years with or without
reappointment
a. 3 years without reappointment
30
Qualifications of an examiner
EXCEPT
a. Pathologist or Registered Medical
Technologist
b. Must be a Filipino citizen
c. In the practice Medical Technology
profession for at least 10 years
d. Physician authorized by the
Department of Health
d. Physician authorized by the
Department of Health
31
A Medical Technology board
examiner should be in the
practice for how many years.
a. 10
b. 20
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
a. 10
32
Board examiner for Medical
Technology is under which of the
following offices?
a. PRC
b. CHED
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
c. Both A and B
33
. RA 5527 underwent which of the
following amendments?
a. PD 1524
b. RA 6138
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
b. RA 6138
34
Which of the following statement
is FALSE?
a. All CL shall be headed by a
pathologist certified in Clinical
Pathology by the Board of Pathology
of the Philippine Society of
Pathologists
b. The head of laboratory shall ensure
the optimal overall operations and
maintenance of the CL and if
applicable.
c. The head of the CL shall be a
pathologist
d. Tertiary CL with anatomic pathology
service which shall be headed by a
pathologist certified Clinical
Pathology only.
d. Tertiary CL with anatomic pathology
service which shall be headed by a
pathologist certified Clinical
Pathology only.
35
Certificate of registration for
research laboratories is valid for
_____ year/s. Non-hospital based
a. 3
b. 2
c. 1
d. Permanently
a. 3
36
Which of the following statement
is FALSE?
a. By definition, a working area doesn’t
include other parts of the lab like
waiting area and comfort room.
b. A primary clinical lab must have at
least 10 sqm working area.
c. The minimum size of clinical
laboratories varies, depending on
the category based on services.
d. A secondary clinical lab must
provide at least 25 sqm working
area.
d. A secondary clinical lab must
provide at least 25 sqm working
area.
37
Which of the following lab
procedures require that the
medtech undergo proficiency
training before authorizing
him/her to perform such
procedure?
a. Fecalysis
b. HIV testing
c. Urinalysis
d. CBC
b. HIV testing
38
Most recent implementing rules
and regulations for RA 4688:
a. AO 2021-00037
b. AO 2008-00008
c. AO 2007-00027
d. AO 2022-00037
a. AO 2021-00037
39
Most recent implementing rules
and regulations for RA 4688:
a. AO 2021-00037
b. AO 2008-00008
c. AO 2007-00027
d. AO 2022-00037
a. AO 2021-00037
40
Guidelines in Securing a License
to Operate a COVID-19 Testing
Laboratory in the Philippines.
a. AO 2021-00037
b. AO 2008-00008
c. AO 2007-00027
d. AO 2020-00014
d. AO 2020-00014
41
Validity of license to operate a
general clinical laboratory:
a. 1 year
b. 10 years
c. 3 years
d. 4 years
a. 1 year
42
The enactment of RA 4688
otherwise known as “Clinical
Laboratory Act of 1966” took
place on:
a. July 18, 1966
b. June 18, 1966
c. June 16, 1966
d. February 13, 1966
b. June 18, 1966
43
Validity of license to operate a
non-hospital based blood service
facilities:
a. 10 years
b. 1 year
c. 3 years
d. 4 years
c. 3 years
44
Are medical technologists
allowed to manage a clinical
laboratory?
a. No
b. yes
NOOO
45
The place where the LICENSE TO
OPERATE clinical laboratory must
be displayed:
a. The pathologist’s office
b. The x-ray unit
c. Waiting area of the lab
d. The medtech’s office
c. Waiting area of the lab
46
The license to operate and
authority to operate a
hospital-based blood service
facility is valid until:
a. 1 year
b. Indefinitely
c. 2 years
d. 3 years
a. 1 year
47
Proficiency testing is conducted
by:
a. Running control materials
b. Running patient samples on different
occasions
c. Sending known samples to
reference laboratories for analysis
d. Sending unknown samples to clinical
laboratories enrolled to quality
assessment program
d. Sending unknown samples to clinical
laboratories enrolled to quality
assessment program
48
A facility limited to recruitment,
screening, and collection of blood
only:
a. Blood collection unit
b. Blood storage facility
c. Blood station
d. Blood center
a. Blood collection unit
49
This is also known as the
“National Blood Services Act of
1994”:
a. RA 7170
b. RA 7719
c. RA 5527
d. RA 9165
b. RA 7719
50
1. The first case of HIV infection in
the Philippines was recorded in
the year _?
a. 1984
b. 1989
c. 1982
d. 1992
a. 1984
51
Ecstacy is otherwise known as _?
a. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
b. Methamphetamine HCl
c. Lysergic Acid Diethylamide
d. Ketamine
a. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
52
Legal principle that recognizes
the capacity of some minors to
consent independently to medical
procedures
a. Gillick principle
b. Gillick competence
c. All of the choices
d. Mature Minor Doctrine
c. All of the choices
52
Legal principle that recognizes
the capacity of some minors to
consent independently to medical
procedures
a. Gillick principle
b. Gillick competence
c. All of the choices
d. Mature Minor Doctrine
c. All of the choices
53
The sale, distribution, supply or
transport of legitimately imported,
in-transit, manufactured or
procured controlled precursors
and essential chemicals, in
diluted, mixtures or in
concentrated form, to any person
or entity engaged in the
manufacture of any dangerous
drug, and shall include packaging, repackaging, labeling, relabeling or concealment of such
transaction through fraud,
destruction of documents,
fraudulent use of permits,
misdeclaration, use of front
companies or mail fraud.
a. Trading
b. Illegal Trafficking
c. Deliver
d. Chemical Diversion
d. Chemical Diversion
54
How many articles does RA 9165
contain?
a. 10
b. 15
c. 13
d. 12
c. 13
55
RA 8504
a. December 20, 2018
b. January 12, 1997
c. December 3, 1992
d. February 13, 1998
d. February 13, 1998
56
How many sections does RA 9165
contains?
a. 105
b. 104
c. 102
d. 106
c. 102
57
Which of the following instance
does not require drug testing?
a. None of the choices
b. Appointed government official
c. Applicant for firearm license
d. Charged by the court with criminal
offense of 5 years imprisonment
d. Charged by the court with criminal
offense of 5 years imprisonment
58
Organ Donation Act
a. RA 8501
b. RA 7170
c. RA 7719
d. RA 10586
b. RA 7170
59
All of the following instance can
be punished by 12-20 years of
imprisonment except.
a. Possession of precursor substances
b. Cultivation of marijuana
c. Possession of 5 grams of shabu
d. Unnecessary prescription of
dangerous drugs
b. Cultivation of marijuana
60
IDTOMIS use was implemented on
a nationwide coverage on _?
a. October 5, 2003
b. April 11, 2006
c. July 11, 2003
d. January 5, 2009
d. January 5, 2009
61
National Blood Services Act
a. RA 8504
b. RA 7170
c. RA 7719
d. RA 10586
c. RA 7719
62
Transactions involving the illegal
trafficking of dangerous drugs
and/or controlled precursors and
essential chemicals using
electronic devices such as, but
not limited to, text messages,
e-mail, mobile or landlines,
two-way radios, internet, instant
messengers and chat rooms or
acting as a broker in any of such
transactions whether for money or any other consideration in
violation of this Act.
a. Controlled Delivery
b. Chemical Diversion
c. Illegal Trafficking
d. Trading
d. Trading
63
Which of the following is not a
ground for compulsory HIV
testing?
a. Informed choice is given
b. Intimidated
c. Lack of consent
d. Prerequisite for travel
a. Informed choice is given
64
How many drug testing laboratory
can a pathologist supervise?
a. 20
b. 13
c. 10
d. 15
c. 10
65
PNAC shall formulate and
periodically update the _ year
AIDS Medium Term Plan.
a. 5
b. 6
c. 10
d. 3
b. 6
66
Which of the following profession
does not qualify to be a drug
analyst?
a. Chemical Engineer
b. Pharmacist
c. Microbiologist
d. Medical Technologist
c. Microbiologist
67
Integrated Drug Test Operations
and _ Information System
a. Manual
b. Health
c. Managing
d. Management
d. Management
68
Philippine National AIDS Council
(PNAC)
a. Section 5
b. Section 6
c. Section 7
d. Section 4
d. Section 4
69
RA 9165 Section 3
a. Declaration of Policy
b. Title
c. Definition of terms
d. Maintenance of a Den, Dive or
Resort
c. Definition of terms
70
All of the following courses have
the same laboratory hours
requirement except.
a. Health Information System for MLS
b. Community and Public Health
c. Molecular Biology and Diagnostics
d. Inorganic and Organic Chemistry
a. Health Information System for MLS
71
Certificate of accreditation for
water testing laboratories shall be
renewed _ days before expiry.
a. 20
b. 60
c. 30
d. 90
b. 60
72
Odd one out
a. Principles of MLS Practice 1
b. Health Information System for MLS
c. Human Histology
d. Seminar 1
b. Health Information System for MLS
73
Odd one out
a. Human Anatomy and Physiology
with Pathophysiology
b. Biostatistics and Epidemiology
c. Analytical Chemistry
d. Community and Public Health for
MLS
d. Community and Public Health for
MLS
74
CHED seed capital
a. 500 M
b. 5 M
c. 50 M
d. 3 M
a. 500 M
75
Required number of contact
hours in Internship for
Hematology Section.
a. 220 hours
b. 100 hours
c. 200 hours
d. 300 hours
d. 300 hours
76
Required number of contact
hours in Intership for Clinical
Chemistry Section.
a. 300 hours
b. 200 hours
c. 100 hours
d. 220 hours
a. 300 hours
77
Which of the following offices
processes renewal for water
testing laboratories?
a. PNRI
b. HFSRB
c. EAMC
d. CHD
d. CHD
78
Water testing laboratory that test
for aesthetic characteristics.
a. Chemical analysis laboratory
b. Bacteriological analysis laboratory
c. Physical analysis laboratory
d. Biological analysis laboratory
c. Physical analysis laboratory
79
Total contact hours for laboratory
from First year to Third year MLS
Student.
a. 1646 hours
b. 1782 hours
c. 1728 hours
d. 1664 hours
c. 1728 hours
80
The intial appointee as the
Chairman of CHED shall serve _
years.
a. 3
b. 2
c. 4
d. 1
c. 4
81
The Commission on Higher
Education is composed of how
many full time members?
a. 4
b. 6
c. 5
d. 3
c. 5
82
Odd one out
a. The Life and Works of Rizal
b. Art Appreciation
c. Ethics
d. Readings in Philippine History
a. The Life and Works of Rizal
83
Clinical Internship courses
a. 25 units
b. 28 units
c. 65 units
d. 24 units
b. 28 units
84
Core courses
a. 25 units
b. 28 units
c. 24 units
d. 65 units
a. 25 units
85
Water testing report shall be kept
for a span of _ years.
a. 3
b. 5
c. 1
d. 10
b. 5
86
additional members of the
Board of Advisers can be added
upon recommendation of CHED.
a. 1
b. 3
c. 4
d. 2
d. 2
87
Headship of the water testing
laboratory cna be given to the
following professionals except.
a. Registered Medical Technologist
b. Microbiologist
c. Registered Pharmacist
d. Licensed Sanitary Engineer
b. Microbiologist
88
Department of Education, Culture
and _?
a. Sports
b. Technology
c. Society
d. Science
a. Sports
89
All of the following courses have
the same laboratory hours
requirement except.
a. Analysis of Urine and Other Body
Fluids
b. Clinical Bacteriology
c. Hematology 1
d. Immunology/Serology
b. Clinical Bacteriology
90
Human acts are evil when
a. they do not agree with the dictates of
reason
b. they agree with the dictates of
reason
c. both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
a. they do not agree with the dictates of
reason
91
Immortality
a. is doing of an act which is contrary
to GOOD conscience
b. is doing of an act which is in contrary
to FALSE conscience
c. is doing of an act which is contrary
to TRUE conscience
d. A and C
d. A and C
92
The quality of human acts which
is constituted as bad is called
a. Moral human acts
b. Immoral human acts
c. Amoral human acts
b. Immoral human acts
93
Refers to those characteristics
belonging to man as a rational
being, being endowed with:
a. Intellect
b. Free-will
c. Both
d. Neither A nor B
c. Both
94
The quality of human acts which
is constituted as good is called:
a. Moral human acts
b. Immoral human acts
c. Amoral human acts
a. Moral human acts
95
Morality is the relation existing
between human acts and the
norm of morality in ethics.
a. True
b. False
c. Uncertain
a. True
96
Ethics is defined as:
a. the science of the morality of human
acts that reflect the motives of the
doer
b. the study of human motivation, and
ultimately of human rational behavior
c. the study of human conduct
d. practical science of human emotions
e. A B C
e. A B C
97
A person who has the habit or
inclination to do wrong is said to
be
a. Virtuous
b. Vicious
c. indifferent
b. Vicious
98
The Ethos of man as man means
that he feels within himself an
obligation to do what is evil and
to avoid what is good.
a. True
b. False
c. uncertain
b. False
99
Moral Turpitude includes
everything which is done contrary
to
a. Justice
b. Good morals
c. Both
d. Neither A nor B
c. Both
100
Ethos includes
a. cultural mannerisms
b. religion
c. politics
d. social aspirations of a group of
people
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
101
Immoral Conduct has been
defined as the conduct which is
a. willful.
b. blatant
c. shameless
d. A and B
e. A, B and C
e. A, B and C
102
A person who has the habit or
inclination to do good is said to
be
a. Virtuous
b. Vicious
c. Indifferent
a. Virtuous
103
In Ethics, Man is
a. self-conscious of his dignity
b. submits to the study of doing what is
good and avoiding what is wrong
c. Both
d. Neither A nor B
c. Both
104
The quality of human acts which
is constituted as indifferent is
called
a. Moral human acts
b. Immoral human acts
c. Amoral human acts
c. Amoral human acts
105
A vicious person is
a. full of vices
b. Immoral
c. characterized by morality
d. A and B
106
Human Acts are described as the
following except:
a. Involuntary
b. Voluntary
c. deliberate actions
d. knowingly and freely
a. Involuntary
107
A virtuous person is
a. full of virtue
b. having excellent good character
c. characterized by depravity
d. A and B
d. A and B
108
Human acts are good when
a. they do not agree with the dictates of
reason
b. they agree with the dictates of
reason
c. both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
b. they agree with the dictates of
reason
109
The norm of morality is
constituted by:
a. Divine reason
b. Human Reason
c. Both
d. Neither A nor B
c. Both
110
“Act in a spirit of fairness to all
and in a spirit of brotherhood
toward other members of the
profession.” is an application of:
a. Justice
b. Brotherliness
c. Both
d. Neither A nor B
a. Justice
111
A profession
a. has been explained in terms of
social values
b. is a symbol rather than a reality
c. Both
d. Neither A nor B
c. Both
112
This is the conduct or qualities
that characterize or mark a
profession or professional; it
implies quality of workmanship or
service.
a. Utilitarianism
b. Deontology theory
c. Professionalism
d. Pragmatism
c. Professionalism
113
“Accept employment from more
than one employer only when
there is no conflict of interest.” Is
an application of:
a. Professional Ethics
b. Work Ethics
c. Both
d. Neither A nor B
c. Both
114
What ethical principle is applied?
“Accept the responsibilities
inherent to being a professional”
a. Legalism
b. Bioethical principle
c. Deontological ethics
d. Proportionalism
c. Deontological ethics
115
What ethical principle is applied?
“Ethical theories that place
special emphasis on the
relationship between duty and the
morality of human actions.”
a. Bioethical principle
b. Proportionalism
c. Legalism
d. Deontological ethics
d. Deontological ethics
116
This means the ultimate standard
of right and wrong.
a. Utilitarianism
b. Legalism
c. Proportionalism
d. Pragmatism
b. Legalism
117
Branch of moral science
concerned with the obligations
which a member of the profession
owes to the public, to his
profession and to his clients.
a. Bioethics
b. Social Ethics
c. Professional Ethics
d. None of the above
c. Professional Ethics
118
The value of the profession is
placed upon
a. putting the conjoint knowledge and
skills to the service of others
b. trained capacity
c. Both
d. Neither A nor B
c. Both
119
The relationship between a
healthcare provider and a patient
is in a:
a. Contract likened to a seller and
buyer of goods
b. Covenant which is a trusted caring
service
c. Both
d. Neither A nor B
b. Covenant which is a trusted caring
service
120
What principle/ principles is/are
applied? “Perform my task with
full confidence, absolute
reliability and accuracy”
a. Beneficence
b. Non-maleficence
c. Both
d. Neither A nor B
c. Both
121
What ethical principle is applied?
“Uphold the Law and shall not
participate in illegal work.”
a. Proportionalism
b. Legalism
c. Bioethical principle
d. Deontological ethics
b. Legalism
122
“Medical Technologist Medical
Laboratory Scientist should be
aware of the consequences of his
works.” This is related to:
a. Duty of caution
b. Duty of care
c. Both
d. Neither A nor B
c. Both
123
The health professionals are
expected to have
a. Sole autonomy of judgment and
authority
b. service orientation as to preserve
the need of the clients relevant to
their competency
c. Both
d. Neither A nor B
c. Both
124
Characteristics of trust needed in
the practice of health care
profession
a. Information that is freely given and
exchanged
b. Mutual honesty and understanding
c. Both
d. Neither A nor B
c. Both
125
The immediate objective/s of
health care profession is:
a. Personal
b. Productivity
c. Both
d. Neither A nor B
d. Neither A nor B
126
This is the principle which states
that people should attempt to
generate the largest ratio of good
because people should benefit
from the most good.
a. Principle of Utility
b. Principle of Proportionalism
c. Principle of Pragmatism
d. A and C
a. Principle of Utility
127
“Conflict of interest” breaches:
a. duty of loyalty
b. duty of allegiance
c. devotedness
d. A and B
e. A, B and C
e. A, B and C
128
This guide how members of a
professional organization should,
or should not, affect others in the
course of practicing their
profession.
a. Professional ethics
b. Bioethics
c. Social Ethics
d. Both A and B
a. Professional ethics
