Pre-Final Bonus Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Where would you find an Okazaki fragment?

Lagging strand of DNA synthesis
A sushi restaurant
Leading strand of DNA synthesis
Ribosome

A

Lagging strand of DNA synthesis

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2
Q

Which disease is associated with Entamoeba histolytica?

Dysentery
Toxic shock
Malaria
Vaginitis

A

Dysentery

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3
Q

Which of these states has the highest incidence of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

Colorado
California
New York
North Carolina

A

North Carolina

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4
Q

In the Hershey and Chase bacteriophage experiment, which radionuclides entered the cells?

32P
35S
Both 32P and 35S
Neither 32P nor 35S

A

32P

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5
Q

Which arthropod is the vector for Trypanosoma cruzi?

Kissing bug
Tsetse fly
Deer tick
Mosquito

A

Kissing bug

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6
Q

What type of immunity is imparted by the RhoGAM vaccine?

Natural passive
Artificial active
Natural active
Artificial passive

A

Artificial passive

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7
Q

In which of the following type of genetic transfer does the donor survive?

Specialized transduction
Conjugation
Transformation
Generalized transduction

A

Conjugation

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8
Q

While repeating the work of Messelson and Stahl, you grew Escherichia coli overnight in media with all 15N nitrogen. After pelleting the cells by centrifugation and rinsing, you then allow them to grow for exactly two generation times in media containing only 14N. Which of these patterns will be observed after ultracentrifugation?

All intermediate DNA
Heavy and intermediate DNA
Light and intermediate DNA
Heavy and light DNA

A

Heavy and intermediate DNA

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9
Q

Where does RNA splicing occur during genetic expression?

Nucleus
Cytoplasm
Ribosome
Nucleoid

A

Nucleus

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10
Q

What type of genetic regulation is associated with TrpR?

Negative induction
Negative repression
Positive induction
Positive repression

A

Negative repression

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11
Q

What structure is missing in protozoa cells from the group Excavata?

Ribosomes
Flagella
Nucleus
Mitochondria

A

Mitochondria

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12
Q

What indicator strain is primarily used to test drinking, waste, and surface water in the United States?

Fecal anaerobes
Fecal streptococci
Fecal bacteriophage
Fecal coliforms

A

Fecal coliforms

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13
Q

Which of these diseases is associated with ‘rice water’ stools?

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
Listeriosis
Malaria
Cholera

A

Cholera

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14
Q

What class of virus has a genome consisting of ssRNA (- strand)?

Class IV
Class III
Class VI
Class V

A

Class V

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15
Q

What is the primary effect of botulinum food poisoning?

Rash
Lock jaw
Flaccid paralysis
Rigid paralysis

A

Flaccid paralysis

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16
Q

What is the purpose of primary wastewater treatment?

Reducing the biological oxygen demand
Removal of excess water
Removal of large material
Disinfection

A

Removal of large material

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17
Q

What term refers to fungi that grow as filaments at room temperature and yeasts at body temperature?

Chimeric
Alternaria
Toxigenic
Dimorphic

A

Dimorphic

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18
Q

What kind of microbes does a phycologist study?

Algae
Protozoa
Archaea
Fungi

A

Algae

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19
Q

How do Listeria cells move within the cytoplasm of infected host cells?

Cilia
Axial filaments
Actin polymerization
Flagella

A

Actin polymerization

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20
Q

What sort of microbe is responsible of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?

Bacteria
Prion
Protozoa
Virus

A

Prion

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21
Q

What is the target of tetracycline’s action?

Mitochondria
Cell wall
Cell membrane
Ribosome

A

Ribosome

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22
Q

What type of pathogen causes Bancroft’s filariasis?

Fungus
Worm
Protozoa
Virus

A

Worm

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23
Q

Which of the following nutrient cycles does not involve a gas phase?

Sulfur
Carbon
Phosphorus
Nitrogen

A

Phosphorus

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24
Q

Who first used a simple microscope live single-celled bacteria?

Leeuwenhoek
Redi
Pasteur
Hooke

A

Leeuwenhoek

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25
The microbial destruction of concrete sewer pipes is called what? Biodeterioration Biofilm formation Bioremediation Bioactivation
Biodeterioration
26
Diphtheria is caused by a toxin encoded by a prophage. What term refers to this process? Splicing Lysogenic conversion Antigenic shift Conjugation
Lysogenic conversion
27
What process do most bacteria use to grow and divide? Schizogony Meiosis Mitosis Binary fission
Binary fission
28
What genetic sequence does the RNA polymerase bind to during genetic expression? Shine Dalgarno sequence Operon Promoter Operator
Promoter
29
Which of the following reactions does the enzyme nitrogenase catalyze? N2 --> NH4 NH4 --> NO2 NO3 --> NH4 NO2 --> NO3
N2 --> NH4
30
Which polymerase fills in the gaps after the RNA primers are removed during replication? DNA polymerase I DNA polymerase II DNA polymerase III RNA polymerase
DNA polymerase I
31
How are you most likely going to contract tetanus? Poorly canned food Ingesting contaminated water Puncture wound Inhalation
Puncture wound
32
What is the first required step for microbial pathogenesis. Biofilm formation Internalization Adherence Toxin production
Adherence
33
Which of these microbes is associated with rheumatic fever? Streptococcus pyogenes Borrelia burgdorferi Streptococcus pneumonia Rickettsia rickettsii
Streptococcus pyogenes
34
What would happen to bacterial motility if the gene for CheY was knocked out? The flagella would spin counter-clockwise and the cells would tumble all the time The flagella would spin clockwise and the cells would run all the time The flagella would spin counter-clockwise and the cells would run all the time The flagella would spin clockwise and the cells would tumble all the time
The flagella would spin counter-clockwise and the cells would run all the time
35
What kind of bacteria contain an O antigen? Acid-fast Gram negative Gram positive Mycoplasma
Gram negative
36
Which group of fungi includes the microbe that produces the antibiotic penicillin? Ascomycetes Basidiomycetes Chytridiomycetes Zygomycetes
Ascomycetes
37
What are the protein-encoding nucleotide triplets called? Retrons Codons Exons Introns
Codons
38
What is the most common type of bacterium on our skin? Proteobacteria Actinobacteria Staphylococcus Spirochetes
Actinobacteria
39
What process produces ATP from high-energy intermediates like phosphoenolpyruvate? Aerobic respiration Cyclic photophosphorylation Substrate level phosphorylation Methanogenesis
Substrate level phosphorylation
40
Which fungus genus causes Ohio River valley fever? Blastomyces Histoplasma Coccidioides Cryptococcus
Histoplasma
41
Which portion of a bacteria endospore contains a thick layer of peptidoglycan? Core Coat Cortex Exosporium
Cortex
42
Which of the following must perform reverse electron transport to form NADH? Green sulfur bacteria Purple sulfur bacteria Cyanobacteria Methanogens
Purple sulfur bacteria
43
In some models, methanogens appear to promote _______ by reducing the amount of hydrogen available? Health Obesity Diarrhea Cancer
Obesity
44
What disease is also known as Hansen's disease? Tuberculosis Typhoid fever Leprosy Elephantiasis
Leprosy
45
What term refers to the distribution of seasonal influenza? Sporadic Endemic Pandemic Epidemic
Pandemic
46
What enzyme is used by insertion sequences to replicate and/or move in bacterial genomes? Transposase Reverse transcriptase DNA polymerase Exonuclease
Transposase
47
What is the LD50? Dose of bacteria that kills half of the exposed population Dose of bacteria that infects half of the exposed population The time is takes for bacteria to infect half of the exposed population The time is takes for bacteria to kill half of the exposed population
Dose of bacteria that kills half of the exposed population
48
Which of these bacteria would contain lipoteichoic acid? Gram negative Acid fast Gram positive Mycoplasma
Gram positive
49
What is the best explanation for why Cryptosporidium particularly difficult to control in our water supply? It is resistant to chlorine It is resistant to chemotherapeutic drugs It is resistant to our immune defenses It is resistant to drying
It is resistant to chlorine
50
Which portion of our digestive tract has the fewest resident microbes? Large intestine Mouth Small intestine Stomach
Stomach
51
What are the NET end products of Glycolysis pathway? 2 pyruvates, 1 NADH, 1NADPH, 2 ATP 2 pyruvates, 1 NADH, 1 NADPH, 1 ATP 2 pyruvates, 2NADH, 2 ATP 2 pyruvates, 2NADH, 1 ATP
2 pyruvates, 2NADH, 2 ATP
52
Metabolically related microbial populations are called what? Biofilms Clones Guilds Niches
Guilds
53
Which of these is true of the archaea membrane? Contains ester linkages and fatty acid lipids Contains ester linkages and fatty acid lipids Contains ester linkages and phytanyl lipids Contains ether linkages and phytanyl lipids
Contains ether linkages and phytanyl lipids
54
What process does this reaction correspond to in the nitrogen cycle? NO3 --> N2 Assimilation Denitrification Nitrification Nitrogen fixation
Denitrification
55
Where would you find the genetic material of a bacterial cell? Nucleocapsid Nucleus Nucleolus Nucleoid
Nucleoid
56
Suppose that you serially dilute a culture three times by putting 100µl of culture into 900µl of diluent each time and then transfer 100µl from the third tube onto a plate of media and let it grow overnight. If 15 CFU are observed on the plate, how many microbes were in the original flask? 1.5 x 103 cfu/ml 1.5 x 106 cfu/ml 1.5 x 105 cfu/ml 1.5 x 104 cfu/ml
1.5 x 105 cfu/ml
57
What term refers to the protein shell that surrounds the viral genome? Capsule Envelope Retron Capsid
Capsid
58
Which of the following is NOT an archaea adaptation to growth in high temperatures? Phospholipid bilayers DNA positive supercoiling High internal solute concentrations Thermosomes
Phospholipid bilayers
59
Which of these diseases is associated with the Varicella zoster virus? Mumps Boils Shingles Measles
Shingles
60
61
What type of material makes up the TDaP vaccine? Super antigens Toxoids Anti-toxins Attenuated microbes
Toxoids
62
Which of the following is NOT an example of an AB exotoxin? Tetanus toxin Staphylococcus alpha toxin Cholera toxin Diphtheria toxin
Staphylococcus alpha toxin
63
Which of these is the most common (and least lethal) form of anthrax? Cutaneous Sexually transmitted Pulmonary Gastrointestinal
Cutaneous
64
According to modern estimates, how many microbes are in and on our body per human cell? 200 20 2,000 2
2
65
What process involves the action of autoinducers like homoserine lactones? Antigenic shift Phase variation Attenuation Quorum sensing
Quorum sensing
66
During electron transport in Escherichia coli, which of these pairs would pump out the least protons? NDH-2 and cytochrome bd NDH-2 and cytochrome bo NDH-1 and cytochrome bo NDH-1 and cytochrome bd
NDH-2 and cytochrome bd
67
68
What is the incubation period? The time when disease symptoms are just beginning to appear The time between getting infected and being able to spread the disease to others The time between exposure and disease symptoms The time of the most acute disease symptoms
The time between exposure and disease symptoms
69
Which of these proteins favors the lytic cycle for bacteriophage lambda? cII cro cI cIII
cro
70
Which of these viral classes has a genome that consists of messenger RNA? Class VI Class V Class III Class IV
Class IV
71
What term refers to hospital-acquired infections? Toxigenic Idiopathic Nosocomial Communicable
Nosocomial
72
What term refers to a persistent disease with a low incidence at a specific location? Pandemic Pandemic Endemic Sporadic
Endemic
73
What does R0 best correspond to? The distribution of a disease in a population The expected number of secondary infections from each primary case The resistance of the host cells to infection The expected number of deaths due to an infection
The expected number of secondary infections from each primary case
74
What microorganism is responsible for causing whooping cough? Streptococcus pneumoniae Corynebacterium diphtheriae Campylobacter jejuni Bordetella pertussis
Bordetella pertussis
75
What would happen to LacZ expression if the gene encoding LacI were knocked out? Expression would be ON in the presence of glucose and ON in the presence of lactose Expression would be ON in the presence of glucose and OFF in the presence of lactose Expression would be OFF in the presence of glucose and ON in the presence of lactose Expression would be OFF in the presence of glucose and OFF in the presence of lactose
Expression would be ON in the presence of glucose and ON in the presence of lactose
76
Which of the following diseases is NOT prevented by the TDaP vaccine? Whooping cough Diphtheria Tetanus Pneumonia
Pneumonia
77
Which group of microbes predominates in most environments on Earth? Proteobacteria Crenarchaeota Firmicutes Cyanobacteria
Proteobacteria
78
Bifidobacterium and Lactobacillus are common examples of what? Prebiotics Antibiotics Probiotics Abiotics
Probiotics
79
What disease is associated with Helicobacter pylori? Diarrhea Gastric ulcers Sore throats Hepatitis
Gastric ulcers
80
Which of the following cannot carry protons during respiration? Cytochrome Flavoprotein Quinone NAD
Cytochrome
81
Ring stage parasites in peripheral blood samples is an indication of which disease? Toxoplasmosis Malaria African sleeping sickness Filariasis
Malaria
82
What term refers to people like typhoid Mary, which have an asymptomatic infection of a pathogen? Fomite Carrier Vector Lysogen
Carrier
83
Which of these are acellular microbes? Archaea Bacteria Yeast Phage
Phage
84
What term refers to the protective effect of having a population of hosts containing many individuals that have developed protective responses against a pathogen? Mortality Herd immunity Attenuation Morbidity
Herd immunity
85
Alternate flagella antigen expression due to an invertible promoter region is an example of what? Antigenic shift Phase variation Quorum sensing Attenuation
Phase variation
86
Which of these is most commonly acquired by ingesting poorly cooked foods? Hepatitis A Hepatitis D Hepatitis C Hepatitis B
Hepatitis A
87
Which of these diseases is NOT spread by the bite of a mosquito? Malaria Yellow fever Lyme disease West Nile disease
Lyme disease
88
Which of the following microorganisms is the causative agent of typhoid fever? Salmonella typhi Coxiella burnetii Streptococcus pyogenes Rickettsia prowazekii
Rickettsia prowazekii
89
What separates the epilimnion from the hypolimnion in a freshwater ecosystem? Thermocline Methane Neuston Sediments
Thermocline
90
Which of these cells is most likely to be affected by HIV? Epithelial cells Muscle cells CD4 helper T-cells Neurons
CD4 helper T-cells
91
What pigmented protein do pigmented prototrophic archaea use to collect light energy? Rhodopsin Bacteriorhodopsin Chlorophyll Bacteriochlorophyll
Bacteriorhodopsin
92
What term refers to microbes that have decreased in virulence? Lysogenized Attenuated Acellular Normal microbiota
Attenuated
93
Which of these is commonly caused by a food intoxication? Listeriosis Staphylococcal food poisoning Cholera Norovirus disease
Staphylococcal food poisoning
94
Which of these microbes can lead to severe colitis following long-term antibiotic treatment. Clostridium difficile Bacteroides fragilis Candida albicans Escherichia coli
Clostridium difficile