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NBDE Pt 2 Flash Cards > Practice Questions 2 > Flashcards

Practice Questions 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What term is used to describe HIV gingivitis?

A

Linear gingival erythema

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2
Q

What is a Stephan plot?

A

Measures the PH changes on tooth enamel surface

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3
Q

True or false… Paget’s disease is a premalignant precursor for osteosarcoma

A

True

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4
Q

Actinic chelitis is a premalignant precursor for ___

A

SCC

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5
Q

Which type of basal cell nevus is premalignant?

A

Junctional type

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6
Q

Multiple osteomas in the skull is likely due to ___ syndrome

A

Gardner’s

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7
Q

Positive nikolsky sign is indicative of ___

A

Phemphigus vulgaris

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8
Q

Dentists who work with HEMA can have what kind of complication?

A

Contact dermatitis

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9
Q

Which of the following is an endocrine involvements that is related to jaw deformity?

Acromegaly
Paget’s disease
Cherubim
Albrite’s

A

Acromegaly

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10
Q

What is the cause of verrucs xanthoma?

A

Human papilloma virus

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11
Q

What is the drug of choic for pulpal invovlentn?

A

Pen v

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12
Q

Name one potassium sparring chlorothiazide.

A

Spirolacton

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13
Q

What groups of muscles influence the lingual border of the final impression for an edentulous patient?

A

Superior constrictor

Mylohyoid

Genioglossus

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14
Q

When pt closes and there is only 1mm between retromolar pad and tuberosity, what should you do for the denture?

A

Refer pt for tuberosity reduction

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15
Q

Define adjunctive orthodontic tx.

A

Ortho Tx to enhance restorative and perio rehabilitation

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16
Q

Pts with natural dentitions generate the greates amount of occlusal force during ___

A

Parafunctional movement

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17
Q

A dentist notices an increase of diseases, this is an increase in [incidence/prevalence].

A

Incidence

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18
Q

How do you treat a nasopalatine duct cyst?

A

Palatal flap approach

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19
Q

How does caries detecting dye differentiate between infected and affected dentin?

A

It bonds to denatured collagen

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20
Q

Cri-du-chat syndrome is loss part of chromosome __ and results in j___

A

5

Cleft palate

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21
Q

What is the Johnston Tanaka space analysis?

A

Predicts size of unerupted canines and premolars

You take 1/2 the width of the 4 mandibular incisors and add 10.5 to be mandibular canine and premolars in one quadrant. If you add 11 you get the maxillary canine and pm’s in 1 quad

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22
Q

List most common impacted teeth to least common.

A

Mandibular 3rd molars

Maxillary 3rd molars

Maxillary canine

Mandibular canine

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23
Q

What disease is associated with bence jones proteins?

A

Multiple myeloma

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24
Q

True or false… Rogain (for hair loss) is a category C (for birth defects)

A

True

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25
Q

What is the ideal percentage of the alar of the nose to the face?

A

20%

It is split into 5ths

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26
Q

What does hypnosis affect?

Voluntary muscle

Involuntary muscle

Both voluntary and involuntary muscle

Organs and glands

Glands only

A

Voluntary and involuntary

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27
Q

Pt is taking INH. They have ___

A

TB

INH = isoniazid

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28
Q

What is the etiology of Stillman’s cleft?

A

Traumatic occlusion

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29
Q

Why are sealants most likely to come off?

A

Not placing correctly (no isolation)

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30
Q

What is the purpose of paining material on the die for a crown?

A

To allow room for the cement

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31
Q

What should you do with an infected stensons’s duct?

A

Take a sialogram

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32
Q

How does the RINN kit system help get better radiographs?

A

More parallel and perpendicular

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33
Q

What is a median palatal cyst and what is the treatment?

A

On the palate distal to the incisive foramen. Rare

Treat with surgical excision or marsupealzation

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34
Q

What is the best cement to use when placing a PFM crown?

A

RMGI

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35
Q

What is the main advantage of a Maryland bridge? Main disadvantage?

A

Advantage = conserves tooth structure

Disadvantage = debonding

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36
Q

A patient had a needle stick and tested by ELISA for HIV. What are they looking for?

A

Antibody to HIV

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37
Q

Which antibiotic has very serious side effects if used with alcohol?

A

Metronidazole

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38
Q

How does the DEA schedule drugs?

A

Based upon abuse potential

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39
Q

Name two antiplatelet drugs.

A

Aspirin

Plavix (clopidogrel)

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40
Q

what is Frey’s syndrome?

A

Sweating and flushing of a patch of skin near the ear that occurs when someone is eating.
Frey’s syndrome is a rare complication of surgery or an injury of the salivary (parotid) gland in the cheek.

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41
Q

What is the daily % of calories from fat per day?

A

30%

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42
Q

The mandible usually stops remodeling at

8 years of age
12 years of age
18 years of age
None of the above

A

None of the above

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43
Q

At birth, which dimension of the face is greatest?

A

Width

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44
Q

Deposition of dye in animal bone growth studies is known as ___

A

Vital staining

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45
Q

After a tooth has been moved from one position to another, the resulting bone is termed ___

A

Transitional bone

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46
Q

What is the most stable point in a growing skull from a cephalometric standpoint?

A

Sella turcica, the center of the the pituitary fossa in the cranial base

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47
Q

What is a good method for determining the location of growth sites in the growing monkey skull?

A

By injecting alizarin red dye and sacrificing the animal later

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48
Q

At birth, which of the following structures is farthest from the size it will eventually be in adulthood?

Cranium
Nasal capsule
Middle face
Mandible

A

Mandible

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49
Q

Additional space for the eruption of succeeding maxillary molars is made by… (multiple answers)

Continuous expansion of dental arch

Downward and forward displacement of the maxillary complex

Interstitial bone growth

Appositional growth at the maxillary tuberosity

Increase in palatal vault height

A

Downward and forward displacement of the maxillary complex

Appositional growth at the maxillary tuberosity

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50
Q

Growth sites can be best determined in the laboratory animal by means of ___

A

Vital staining

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51
Q

Patients who have ectodermal dysplasia have had prostheses constructed during active growth to replace missing teeth. It has been observed that the dentures…

Restricted lateral bone growth
Restricted jaw development
Did not restrict growth
We’re not tolerated due to diminished salivary glow

A

Did not restrict growth

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52
Q

Cartilage can grow by which of the following methods

Interstitial growth only
Appositional growth only
Both types of growth
Degenerative changes in bones

A

Both types of growth

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53
Q

True or false… in a patient with anodontia, between ages 6 and 17 with dental prosthetic treatment will need several different dentures because the retromolar areas and palatal vault will continue to cause the denture to become i’ll-fitting

A

True

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54
Q

Most class 2 malocclusions can be prevented by…

A

No known techniques

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55
Q

The “v” principle of growth is illustrated by the ___

A

Mandibular condyle

56
Q

The greatest period of cranial growth occurs between ___ and __ of age

A

Birth and 5 years

57
Q

At birth, which of the following structures is nearest the size it will eventually attain in adulthood?

A

Cranium

58
Q

The downward and forward direction of facial growth results form displacement of the maxilla in which direction?

A

Upward and backward remodeling of the maxillary sutures

59
Q

True or false… a needle fragment embedded in the anterior border of the ramus of the mandible of a 6 year old child will soon become free in the soft tissue as anterior border of the ramus resorbs and uncovers it

A

True

60
Q

What is the chief factor in the formation of the alveolar process?

A

Eruption of teeth

61
Q

At age 6, the greatest increase in size of the mandible occurs ___

A

Distal to the first molars

62
Q

The downward and forward direction of facial growth results from ___

A

Upward and backward growth of the maxillary sutures and the mandibular condyle

63
Q

The condyle of the mandible grows by ___

A

Proliferation of cartilage

64
Q

Dental arch form is ultimately determined by….

A

Interaction of environmental influences on the genetic pattern

65
Q

Which of the following are sites of cartilaginous growth postnatally? (Multiple answers)

Spheno-occipital synchondrosis
Mandibular condyle
Frontomaxillary suture
Nasal septum
Alveolar process
A

A, B, d

66
Q

Interstitial growth is observed at which of the following sites? (Multiple answers)

Spheno-occipital synchndorisis
Maxillary tuberosity 
Mandibular condyle
Zygomaticomaxillary suture
Apex o erupting premolar
A

A and C

67
Q

Which of the following is the least accurate in determining the site of new bone deposition in laboratory animals?

Implants
Radiographs
Alizarin stains
Tetracycline stains
Histochemical stains
A

Radiographs

68
Q

True or false… there is more adolescent growth spurt of the maxilla than of the mandibular

A

True

69
Q

In determining a pts skeletal growth pattern, the most important factor is ___

A

Hereditary

70
Q

Following the growth rate curve typical for lymphoid tissue, tonsillar and adenoid tissue masses can be expected to show [decrease/increase] in size beggining in the circumpubertal period

A

Decrease

71
Q

Cartilage differs from bone in that cartilage can increase in size by ___

A

Interstitial growth

72
Q

True or false… lymph tissues regress in size as genital tissues develop

A

True

73
Q

True or false… the formation of the philtrum of the upper lip occurs around 6-8 weeks in utero by fusion of the mesial nasal processes

A

False. There is only one medial nasal process

74
Q

The masseter muscle develops embrylogicaly from which branchial arch? (Pharyngeal)

A

First

75
Q

True or false…

Cartilage tissue is pressure-tolerant and able to provide flexible support because it is avascular and contains an intracellular matrix of proteoglycans

A

True

76
Q

A priority plan exists during prenatal growth and development of the face and the body in general. Which of the following organ systems would have the highest priority?

A

Nervous system

77
Q

Biochemical remodeling of bone refers to…

A

The exchange of minerals and other ions between the blood and bone

78
Q

True or false… at birth, the premaxilla is fused to the maxilla and at birth the right and left sides of the maxilla are not fused

A

True

79
Q

While you are infiltrating the palatal root of the upper first molar in a six year old, you accidentally break off the tip of the needle and it imbeds in the bone of the hard palate acting as a metallic implant. Ten years later, where would you find this metal fragment?

A

In the floor of the nose

80
Q

The functional matrix theory holds that… (3 things)

A

Soft tissue is primary

Bone is responsive to soft tissue

Deflutition (mandibular function) influences mandibular growth

81
Q

True or false…

Cortical drift occurs by a combination of periosteal deposition and endosteal resorption because deposition and resorption always occur together in equal and opposite amounts

A

The first statement is true

The second is false

82
Q

An osseointergrated titanium dental implant will behave biologically most similar to…

A

An ankylosed tooth

83
Q

True or false… the “switch” that turns facial growth on and off is not known at this time

A

True

84
Q

The sutural theory of facial growth holds that the cells lining the sutures push the bone apart and create displacement of the bones. This theory has been rejected by modern craniofacial biologists because…

A

Bones cannot push on other bones

85
Q

The TMJ disk is made up of ___cartialge

A

Fibrocartilage

86
Q

In the anatomical normal TMJ, the superior joint compartement provides [rotational/translational]movement

A

Translational

87
Q

The ___ hypothesis holds that the soft tissues of the brain expand thus pacing growth of the flat bones of the skull

A

Functional matrix

88
Q

Growth occurring in palatine bones results in relative changes in the position of the maxillae. This is an example of ___

A

Secondary displacement

89
Q

As a general principle, the glenoid fossa becomes [deeper/shallower]and [more/less]antomically defines with increasing age

A

Deeper

More

90
Q

The point of the chin is part of the

Condyle
Corpus
Ramus
Alveolar process

A

Corpus

91
Q

True or false… in the rapidly growing human, deposition and resorption usually occur in equal and opposite amounts

A

False

92
Q

_____ is a remodeling process. It is one of the reasons a 6 year old may not have room for permanent second molars until they are 12 years of age

A

Area relocation

93
Q

Facial clefts can commonly occur in each of the following except…

Primary palate
Lip
Secondary palate
Nasolacrimal duct
Zygomatic arch
A

Zygomatic arch

94
Q

The enamel organ (enamel epithelia, enamel reticulum, ameloblasts, and enamel prisms) are derived from the ___

A

Dental lamina

95
Q

True or false… the cutting and filling cone is a basic histologic structure assocaited with remodeling of bone. They consist of what three things?

A

True

Osteoclasts
Osteoblasts
Blood vessels

96
Q

Embyologic development of the upper lip is the result of…

A

Fusion of the medial and lateral nasal processes

Merging of the medial nasal processes

97
Q

True or false… the primary palate in the embryo became the hard palate in the adult

A

False… it become part of the upper lip

98
Q

Which cranial nerve is assocaited with the first branchial arch (pharyngeal)?

A

Trigeminal (V3)

99
Q

True or false… an osseointergrated dental implant was used to replace a missing upper central incisor in a six year old boy. The implant will be relatively higher within the face

The implants will be integrated with the same bone cells within the maxilla at age 12

A

True

100
Q

Why is a leptoprosopic face type?

A

Long and narrow

101
Q

True or false… exophtalmic appearance of the eyeballs is considered a feature of the female face

A

True

102
Q

A class 2 malocclusion typically relates to…

A euryprosopic face (short+wide)

Anterior inclined middle cranial fossa

A forward rotation of the mandible

Vertically short nasomaxillary complex

A

Anteriorily inclined middle cranial fossa

103
Q

Mandibular recursion tens to be a characteristic of the [female/male] [dolichocephalic/brachocephalic]

A

Male

Doliocephalic

104
Q

An aquiline nose (Roman nose) is sometimes a feature of the ____ face

A

Male doliochocephalic

Roman nose = large nasal bone, looks like bird beak

105
Q

Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is most likely to occur in which age group?

A

1-5 years

106
Q

Which of the following is the most important factor in affecting pulpal response?

Heat

Depth to which dentinal tubules are cut

Desiccation

Invasion of bacteira

A

Depth to which dentinal tubules are cut

107
Q

Each of the following osseous defects are considered infrabony except one. Which one?

Trough

Dehiscence

Hemiseptum

Interdental crater

A

Dehiscence

108
Q

Allowing the ultrasonic tip to remain on the tooth surface too long will result in…

Damage to the tooth surface

Irreversible pulpitis

A

Damage to tooth surface

109
Q

True or false for each statement….

OSHA is concerned with regulated waste within the office

OSHA regulates the transportation of waste from the office

A

True

False

110
Q

One can accelerate the setting time of ZOE impression pastes by adding ___

A

Water

111
Q

___% of the US population does not have dental insurance

A

65-70%

112
Q

What is the drug of choic to treat overdosage with TCAs?

A

Physostigmine

113
Q

How many hours per day should a cervical pull headgear be worn to achieve the MOST effective results?

A

14 hours a day (minimum is 12 hours a day)

114
Q

The concentration of which ion determines the binding affinity of agonists and antagonists to the opioid receptor?

A

Sodium

115
Q

Which of the following cannot be used to calculate the dosage of a drug for a child?

Clark’s rule

Vital signs

Body surface area

Body weigth

A

Vital signs

116
Q

Which of the following symptoms is the most distinct characteristic of morphine poisoning?

Comatose sleep

Pin-point pupils

Depressed respiration

Deep, rapid respiration

Widely dilated, non-responsive pupils

A

Pin-point pupils

117
Q

In addition to the treatment of epilepsy, phenytoin may be indicated for the treatment of ___

A

Arrhythmias

118
Q

The mechanism of action of the muscle relaxation by diazepam most clearly resembles that produced by…

D-tubucurarine

Meprobamate

Succinylcholine

Decamethonium

Gallamine

A

Meprobamate

119
Q

What is the percent of blood alcohol level that is likely to produce a lethal effect in 50% of the population?

A

0.5%

120
Q

Digitalis should be given to patients with atrial fibrillation who require quinidine to avoid ____

A

Ventricular fibrillation

121
Q

Having had a complete readiographic survey made 12 months ago, an asymptomatic adult patient presents for a recall appointment. There is no clinical evidence of caries or perio disease. The USFDA would recommend…

A

No radiographs

122
Q

When high gold content alloys are compared to base metal alloys, the base metal alloys exhibit…

A

A higher melting point, decreased specific gravity, and generally higher yield strength and hardness

123
Q

The central skeletal muscle relaxation produced by depressing the polysnaptic reflex arch is brought about by all of the following except…

Diazepam

Lorazepam

Meprobamate

D-tubocurarine

A

D-tubocurarine

124
Q

The “s” in DMFS stands for ___

A

Surfaces

125
Q

Which of the following antihypertensive agents acts directly on arterial smooth muscle to cause vasodilation?

Methyldopa

Clonidine

Guanethidine

Metoprolol

Hydralazine

A

Hydralazine

126
Q

True or false… treatment with sulfonamides is less likely to be accompanied by crystalluria if a mixture of sulfonamides is used

A

True (sulfa cocktail method)

127
Q

Loss of a primary right molar in a 3 year old requires what space maintainer?

A

None - pt is too young

128
Q

When 50mg of chlorpromazine is adminsited to a pt, on standing the pt might experience a fall in BP due to…

A

Alpha-adrenergic blockade

129
Q

Metabolism of a drug will usually result in conversion to each of the following except….

Inactive form

More active compound

Less active compound

More water-soluble compound

Less ionized compound

A

Less ionized compound

130
Q

Which of the following agents is the least effective in producing topical anesthesia?

Tetracycline

Butacaine

Procaine

Lidocaine

Benzocaine

A

Procaine

131
Q

Which of the following sedatives is most likely to cause a dry mouth?

Buspirone

Hydroxyzine

Chloral hydrate

Phenobarbital

A

Hydroxyzine (anti-histamine)

132
Q

Each of the following is a characteristic of tramadol (ultram) except for which one?

Centrally acting analgesic

Structurally similar to morphine

Binds to the Mu receptor

Biotransforemd into a more active metabolite

Inhibits uptake of NE and serotonin

A

Structurally similar to morphine

133
Q

Which of the following analgesics can be given either orally or by intramuscular injection?

Aspirin

Acetaminophen

Ibuprofen

Ketorlac

Naproxen

A

Ketorlac

134
Q

Each of the following statements is true concerning impacted teeth #17 and #32 except one, which one?

Alveolar osteitis in the removal of bony impactions might occur (5-20%)

Horizontally impacted teeth are considered the most difficult mandibular impactions

Asymptomatic bony impactions are not recommended for extraction in pts over 35 years of age

A

Horizontally impacted teeth are considered the most difficult mandibular impactions

135
Q

True or false… if a diabetic pt is to have local anesthetic with sedation, the pt should be instructed to reduce the usual dose of insulin and do not eat

Without sedation, the pt should be instructed to take usual dose of insulin and eat a normal diet

A

True

136
Q

True or false… even if the pt is going to have a removable partial denture, still bridge the teeth you can

A

True

137
Q

the ____ often appears as a diffuse radiolucency apical to the Mandibular incisors and is part of normal anatomy

A

Mental fossa

NBDE Pt 2 Flash Cards (23 decks)

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