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NBDE Pt 2 Flash Cards > Practice Questions 1 > Flashcards

Practice Questions 1 Flashcards

1
Q

A decrease of ___ causes an increase in radiographic density?

A

Source-film distance

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2
Q

Each of the following is an electromagnetic radiation except one.. which one?

Radar
X-rays
Alpha rays
Gamma rays
Visible light
A

Alpha rays

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3
Q

What are the physical symptoms in the eyes in a severe CNS oxygen deprived patient?

A

Dilated pupils with an absence of light reflex

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4
Q

What is the major route of excretion of penicillin V? F

A

Secretion not metabolized in the urine

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5
Q

What space management treatment should be planned for a child age 4, missing both primary mandibular first molars with no primate space present? Why?

A

Bilateral band and loops

The mandibular permanent incisors are not present

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6
Q

Each of the following characterizes an IMPENDING insulin shock except one. Which one?

Weakness
Convulsions
Mental confusion
Cold perspiration

A

Convulsions

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7
Q

Why is ethyl alcohol a good antidote for methanol poisoning?

A

It inhibits methanol metabolism

It competes successfully with methanol for alcohol dehydrogenase

It prevents formation of formaldehyde

It prevents damage to the optic nerve

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8
Q

Each of the following nonsedating antihistamines would be contraindicated in an individual taking cimetidine for heartburn except one. Which one?

Astemizole (hismanal)
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 
Fexofenadine (Allegra)
Hydroxyzine (vistaril)
Terfenadine (seldane)
A

Fexofenadine (Allegra)

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9
Q

Which of the following is a LOCAL contraindication for the surgical removal of an impacted tooth?

A nonvital tooth
Fever of unknown origin 
A history of bleeding disorder
An undiagnosed ulcer in the oral cavity
Pale gingiva with hx of anemia
A

An undiagnosed ulcer in the oral cavity

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10
Q

What property increases when the intermediate chain of a local anesthetic drug is lengthened?

A

Potency

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11
Q

Alveoplasty following closed extraction is usually performed with ___

A

Fingers

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12
Q

True or false… periosteal elevators can be used to luxate teeth

A

False

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13
Q

The fenestration technique for mandibular vestibuloplasty is based on the premise that the mucosal attachment will…

A

Not cross a fibrous scar band

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14
Q

What is a constitutional symptom?

A

Constitutional symptoms refers to a group of symptoms that can affect many different systems of the body. Examples include weight loss, fevers, chills, headache, fevers of unknown origin,

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15
Q

What is the most commonly used surgical procedure to correct maxillary retrognathia?

A

Le Fort 1 osteotomy

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16
Q

In the preauricular approach to the TMJ, which anatomic structure, if damaged, presents the potential for the greatest morbidity?

A

Facial nerve

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17
Q

How does the growth of the cranial base generally relate in time to the growth of the jaws?

A

It precedes it

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18
Q

Which flap design allows the best surgical access to the apical aspect of a tooth root with the least reflection of soft tissue?

A

Semilunar

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19
Q

Principles for managing a localized alveolar osteitis after extraction of a mandibular first molar include each of the following besides one. Which one?

Flushing out debris with normal saline solution

Curetting the honey wall to promote bleeding

Placing a sedative dressing in the socket to protect exposed bone

Administring mild analgesic drugs as an adjunct to local treatment

A

Curetting the bony wall to promote bleeding

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20
Q

Define “temporomandibular Disorders”

A

A collective term for a hetorgenous group of musculoskeletal disorders varying etiologies that present with similar signs and symptoms

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21
Q

Describe the proper preprosthetic surgical procedure of moderate-sized mandibular lingual tori removal.

A

The tori should be removed by grooving teh superior surface then shearing the torus off with a mono-beveled chisel. The area is then smoothed with a bone file

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22
Q

True or false… xenografts are frequently used n mandibular reconstruction

A

False

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23
Q

When a patient bites on a hard object on the left mandibular molar, the inter articular pressure of the right TMJ is ___

A

Decreased

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24
Q

True or false.. when administering inhalation sedation, the patient should remove contact lenses. The initial flow rate of oxygen should be at least 6L/min. As the flow of nitrous oxide through the mixing dial style unit is increased, the flow rate of oxygen is reduced so the correct percentage of each is delivered at a constant flow rate.

A

True

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25
Q

Each of the following is a common cause of postsurgical atelectasis (decreased expansion of the alveoli) except one. Which is the exception?

Shallow inspirations
Pain-limiting movement
Inactivity after surgery
Preoperative respiratory infection

Narcotic analgesic that depresses the respiratory drive

A

Inactivity after surgery

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26
Q

Which of the following antibiotics has been implicated in the vast majority of cases of oral contraceptive failure during antibiotic use?

Penicillin
Rifampin
Keflex
Erythromycin 
Tetracycline
A

Rifampin

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27
Q

What is the main function of the liner used in a casting ring?

A

Allow uniform and uninhibited setting expansion of the investment

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28
Q

True or false… rubber dams in endodontic treatment can not be used if the patient is informed and consents.

A

False. A rubber dam is always an essential component of endodontics

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29
Q

What is an acronym for a marketing strategy to use for reluctant patients?

A

OPTIMEM

Objectives
Patients
Tools 
Incurred Costs 
Message
Everyone 
Monitoring
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30
Q

Spontaneous gingival hemorrhage or acute stomatitis, observedin a pediatric patient under treatment for absence seizures, indicates withdrawal of the anticonvulsant ___.

A

Valproic acid

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31
Q

Back pressure porosity is evidenced by…

A

Often evidenced by rounded margins on the casting

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32
Q

What is the main metabolite of ingested isopropyl alcohol?

A

Acetone

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33
Q

Larger condensers and laterally applied condensation forces are recommended to ensure complete condensation of which type of amalgam? F

A

Spherical

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34
Q

Compressing the acrylic resin in a rubbery stage will probably result in…

A

Incomplete filling of the model details

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35
Q

Why are properly designed rests on the lingual surface of a canine preferred to a properly designed rest on the incisal surface?

A

Less leverage is exerted against the tooth by the lingual rest

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36
Q

What is the main metabolite of ingested isopropyl alcohol?

A

Acetone

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37
Q

What is the main disadvantage of glass ionomer cement?

A

Moisture sensitivity during initial set

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38
Q

The base of the incision in the gingivectomy technique is located [above/below] the mucogingival junction

A

Above

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39
Q

The most important anticoagulant effect of heparin is to interfere with the conversion of __ to ___

A

Fibrinogen to fibrin

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40
Q

When determine the appropriate does of systemic fluoride supplements for a child, it is most important for the density to consider what?

A

The child’s age and the fluoride content of the drinking water

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41
Q

What is the drug of choice to treat overdosage with tricyclic antidepressants?

A

Phystostigmine

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42
Q

Drug interaction resulting in serious adverse cardiovascular events, including death, might occur between erythromycin and what antihistamine drug?

A

Terfenadine

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43
Q

What is the proper way to clean up a mercury spill in the lab or office?

A

Aspirating the mercury into a wash bottle trap, then dusting the spill area with sulfur powder

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44
Q

Name the 4 parts of a prescription

A

Superscription

Inscription

Subscription

Transcription

(Note that conscription is not)

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45
Q

Inhalation of amyl nitrate can result in each of the following except one. Which one?

Tachycardia

Coronary artery dilation

Peripheral arterial dilation

A decrease in arterial blood pressure

Increased motility of the small bowel

A

Increased motility of the small bowel

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46
Q

Prolonged use of amyl nitrite may result in…

A

Methemoglobinemia

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47
Q

True or false… organophosphates are readily absorbed through the skin

A

True

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48
Q

When high gold content alloys are compared to base metal alloys, the base metal alloys exhibit [higher/lower] melting point, [increased/decreased] specific gravity, and generally [higher/lower] yield strength and hardness

A

Higher

Decreased

Higher

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49
Q

The central skeletal muscle relaxation produced by depressing the polysynatpic reflex arcs is brought about by all of the following drugs except…

Diazepam
Lorazepam
Meprobamate
D-tubocurarine

A

D-tubocurarine

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50
Q

The cardiac glycosides will reduce the concentration of which ion in an active heart muscle cells?

A

Potassium

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51
Q

Which of the following drugs is excreted primarily by renal tubular secretion?

Benzylpenicillin
Streptomycin
Tetracycline
Bacitracin

A

Benzylpenicillin

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52
Q

How many days before dental surgery do you need to stop aspirin?

A

7-10 days

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53
Q

Infection of the ___ space causes severe trismus WITHOUT any obvious clinical swelling

A

Pterygomandibular

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54
Q

What is the drug used to treat overdose of meperidine?

A

Naloxone

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55
Q

What is the function of a hex in an implant?

A

Anti rotational device

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56
Q

What is the mechanism of sulphonylureas?

A

Directly stimulate the pancreas to secrete insulin

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57
Q

What are the primary bacterial invaders that cause pulpal infections?

A

Facultative aerobes

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58
Q

Which bacterial type is found in causing severe spreading abscesses?

A

Bacteroides?

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59
Q

Which malocclusion is most difficult to take a centric relation record?

A

Class 3 malocclusion

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60
Q

Acidulated phosphate fluoride solutions must be stored in __ containers.

A

Polyethelene

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61
Q

True or false… Tachycardia is a side effect of nitrous oxide

A

True

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62
Q

What is the major reason for polishing amalgam?

A

Reduce potential for plaque accumulation

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63
Q

What is the max % of N2O for a child?

A

50%

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64
Q

Accepted technique or the reduced pocket depth includes osseous surgery. True or false.

A

False?

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65
Q

What does the W on the rubber dam clamp stand for?

A

Wingless

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66
Q

What is the LEAST common congenitally missing tooth?

A

Canine

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67
Q

Define dehisense

A

The loss of buccal or lingual bone overlying a tooth root

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68
Q

Define collimation

A

The accurate adjustment of the line of sight of a telescope

control of size and shape of X-ray beam

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69
Q

After periodontal surgery what type of healing occurs most of the time?

A

Repair

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70
Q

What is the biggest risk in performing a BSSO (bilateral split sagital osteotomy)

A

Paresthesia

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71
Q

What is the best treatment for a tooth with an existing RCT and a class 3 furcation?

A

Split in two as two premolars (hemisection)

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72
Q

True or false… GTR is a favorable treatment in class 3 furcations

A

False. It is not an option

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73
Q

True or false… diazepam is contraindicated in pregnancy

A

True

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74
Q

What tissue type is least sensitive to xrays?

A

Muscle

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75
Q

What syndrome is characterized by rapid loss of teeth and hyperkeratosis of hands and feet?

A

Papillon Lefevre Syndrome

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76
Q

What is an intrabony defect?

A

Same as infrabony, vertical bone loss

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77
Q

What are the purposes of bleeding spots in the gingivectomy procedure?

A

Outline the incision line

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78
Q

What tissues are involved in periodontal regeneration?

A

Cementum

PDL

Bone

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79
Q

True or false… with successful RCT,some dentin regeneration is expected.

A

False. Not dentin is regenerated. Bone may be regenerated though

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80
Q

Of the following, which is not considered as increased risk of oral cancer?

HPV

HIV

Alcohol

Tobacco

A

HIV

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81
Q

If bone is kept at ___ degrees for over 1 minute it can cause necrosis.

A

55C

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82
Q

True or false… demineralized, freeze dried bone has BMP in it

A

True (BMP = bone morphogenic proteins)

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83
Q

What syndrome is characterized by lysosome storage disease, abdominal hernias, ear infections, colds, prominent forehead, enlarged tongue, mental retardation?

A

Hunter Syndrome

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84
Q

True or false.. children with autism frequently display repetitive behavior

A

True

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85
Q

What odontogenic tumor/cyst has the largest incidence of recurrence?

A

OKC

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86
Q

What is the mechanism of most drugs that treat arrhythmias?

A

Decreases repolarization rate, prolongs refractory period

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87
Q

If a patient is taking saw palmetto, what drug should you avoid?

A

Aspirin

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88
Q

If a patient is taking ginseng what drug should you avoid?

A

Warfarin

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89
Q

What portion of the curette should be in contact at the line angle?

A

Lower 1/3 edge

90
Q

True or false… sodium hypochlorite is not a chelating agent

A

True

91
Q

true or false… after a drug goes through the liver it becomes more water soluble and less lipid soluble

A

True

92
Q

At which point should you restore a carious lesion?

halfway through enamel

Cavitated

To CEJ

Can see radiographically

A

Cavitated

93
Q

Which pemphigoid like lesion is most often seen in infants?

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

94
Q

True or false… nasiolabial cysts cannot be seen radiographically

A

True they cannot

95
Q

Which primary tooth is more important the primary first or second molar

A

Second

96
Q

Who do you report potential cross reactions of drugs to?

A

The FDA

97
Q

What form of mercury is the worst for humans?

A

Methylmercury (organic mercury)

98
Q

Which location is the most successful spot for dental implants?

A

Anterior mandible (posterior mandible has insufficient blood flow)

99
Q

What is the absolute maximum amount of NO that should be given to an adult patient?

A

70%

100
Q

What is neuropraxia?

A

Transient episode of motor paralysis with little or no sensory or autonomic dysfunction. Neurapraxia describe nerve damage in which there is no disruption of the nerve or its sheath

101
Q

What is first pass metabolism?

A

A process in which a drug adminstered orally is absorbed from the GI tract and transported via portal vein to the liver where it is metabolized. As a result, only a small amount of the active drug reaches systemic circulation.

102
Q

How can first pass metabolism be avoided?

A

If the drug is administered sublingually

103
Q

Phenothiazine bloods __ receptors

A

Dopamine D2

104
Q

Which is more abrasive, amalgam, composite, or enamel?

A

Amalgam

105
Q

You have a pt with a composite filling that complains of pain to cold on chewing. You ditch out the fillin with a bur and now the patient is out of pain. What was the cause of pain?

A

Polymerization shrinkage

106
Q

Silver turns porcelain what color?

A

Green

107
Q

A child that has cleft lip and cleft palate most likely has what class of malocclusion?

A

Class 3

108
Q

What connects the major connector to occlusal rests?

A

Minor connectors

109
Q

What is the most important in selecting a shade?

A

Value (light-darkness)

110
Q

What is the most common medical emergency in the dental office?

A

Syncope

111
Q

What are the symptoms of Ludwig’s angina?

A

Swelling, pain, and raising of the tongue. Swelling of the neck and the tissues of the submandibular and sublingual spaces, malaise, fever, dysphagia, and in severe cases, stridor (difficultly breathing)

Trismus is not a symptom

112
Q

What type of malocclusion is most prone to breaking their anterior teeth?

A

Class 2 division 1 (incisors flared forward)

113
Q

True or false… disinfection successfully destroys the majority of microorganisms including bacterial spores

A

False.. although they do destroy the majority of microorganisms, they do not destroy bacterial spores

114
Q

ANUG usually occurs in individuals between ages __ and ___. It is also called ____ and ___. It results in punched out papilla, fetid odor, pseduomembrane, and is caused by what bacteira?

A

Prevotella intermedia

115
Q

True or false… AIDS pts are protected under the american with disabilities act

A

True

116
Q

____ is a genetic disorder that results in the buildup of mucopolysaccharides due to a deficiency of alpha-L iduronidase, and enzyme responsible for the degeneration of mucopolysaccaries in lysosomes. Without this enzyme, a build up of heparin sulfate and dermatan sulfate occurs in the body

A

Hurlers syndrome

117
Q

Define specificity. What is the difference between specificity and sensitivity?

A

Proportion of truly non diseased persons who are so identified by a screening test (measures how good a test is at correctly identifying non diseased persons). Sensitivity tests identify diseased persons.

118
Q

Define the following.

Beneficence

Pt autonomy

Nonmaleficence

Justice

Veracity

Jurisprudence

A

Do good

Self governance

“Do no harm”. Dentists are to keep skills and knowledge up-to-date and practice within their limits in order to protect the pt from harm

Fairness

Truthfulness

The therapy and philosophy of law

119
Q

Why do pregnant patients need to lie on their left side?

A

Pregnant lying on back will constrict the inferior vena cava

120
Q

In radiology, blocking material is made of ___ while filtration material is made of ___

A

Lead

Aluminum

121
Q

What will increasing trituration time do?

A

Working time decreases

Setting contraction increases

Compressive strength increases with lathecut. It decreases with spherical.

Creep increases

122
Q

What is the BULL rule?

A

Selective grinding

Buccal of uppers and lingual of lowers should be adjusted

Selective grinding should occur before final restorations

123
Q

What does longer spatulation time of gypsum do?

A

Greater expansion and shorter working/setting time

124
Q

True or false… prevotella intermedia is a spirochete

A

False. It is a rod

125
Q

How long should you wait after indirect pulp capping to re-evaluate?

A

6-8 weeks

126
Q

What is the number one reason for implant failure?

A

Surgical technique

127
Q

True or false… an HMO insurance policy is a capitation plan

A

True

A capitated contract is a healthcare plan that allows payment of a flat fee for each patient it covers. Under a capitated contract, an HMO or managed care organization pays a fixed amount of money for its members to the health care provider.

128
Q

What is the main reason why we want the proximal clearances both facially and lingually in class 2 amalgam prep?

A

For better access for cleaning

129
Q

The strength of zinc oxide eugenol can be increased by adding ____

A

PolyMethylmethacrylate

130
Q

Which type of impression material is the most difficult to remove from the oral cavity?

A

Polyether

131
Q

What is chlorpeniramine and what is it used to treat?

A

Antihistamine - Treats dermatological manifestions of allergic reactions.

132
Q

What is chlorpromazine?

A

Antipsychotic

Inhibits dopaminergic receptor, same group as phenothiazine and haloperidol

133
Q

True or false… diazepam has no effect on respiration’s as opposed to other benzodiazepines

A

True

134
Q

What is hydroxyzine used to treat?

A

Antihistamine that is used as a Antianxiety in children. Can be used in the with general anesthesia before medical procedures. Fast clearance with low side effects

135
Q

What tooth has the most consistent root canal shape?

A

Maxillary canine

136
Q

A pt needs to get renal dialysis. When should oral surgery be performed on this patient?

A

The day AFTER renal dialysis

137
Q

What drug class is nifedipine?

A

Calcium channel blocker (causes gingival hyperplasia)

138
Q

True or false… amantadine is an antiviral agent

A

True

139
Q

What is the mechanism of antihistamines?

A

Competitively block histamine receptors

140
Q

What type of periodontal incision is used for gingivectomy procedures with excess gingiva ONLY?

A

External bevel

141
Q

What is another name for Steven Johnson’s syndrome?

A

Erythema multiform Major

Often due to a reaction to medications and/or infections

142
Q

With asthma do you hear wheezing upon inhalation or exhale?

A

Exhalation

143
Q

Implants should be placed at least ___mm apart from each other

A

3mm

144
Q

What is a normal, healthy T cell count?

A

500-1500units/ml

145
Q

Pt’s viral load was 100,000 units/ml and T cell count was 50. The T cell count is too [high/low]

A

Low

146
Q

A pt has a hypocalcified permanent maxillary central incisor. When did this occur?

A

6months - 3 years

147
Q

A pt recently had parotid surgery and has problems on one side of their face when they eat. They have ___ syndrome.

A

Frey’s syndrome

148
Q

A pt is in mixed dentition is end to end. What type of occlusion will this result in permanent dentition?

A

Class 1

149
Q

What material is in reinforced IRM that gives it strength?

A

Poly methyl methacrylate

150
Q

A pt has an implant. How do the connective tissue and epithelial attachment compare to a normal tooth?

A

Epithelium is the same but the connective tissue connection is different

151
Q

True or false… BOP is less reliable of indication in an implant than in a natural tooth

A

True

Bleeding is unrelated to the amount of inflammation in the peri implant site

152
Q

What are the differences between a tooth and an implant in regards to the epithelial and CT attachment?

A

CT attachement in natural tooth is perpendicular and inserts to the cementum. In an implant the collagen is parallel to the implant.

Epithelial attachment in natural tooth JE is from REE. It is from adjacent oral epithelial in an implant.

153
Q

What is a sign that a pt is having a laryngeal spasm?

A

Stridor

154
Q

Pt is taking dicumoral. What are they being treated for?

A

Myocardial infarction

155
Q

Which of the following is most likely to develop from a dentigerous cyst?

AOT

Ameloblastoma

Ameloblastic fibroma

A

Ameloblastoma

156
Q

Which antibiotic does NOT inhibit cell wall synthesis?

Amoxicillin

Vancomycin

Azithromycin

A

Azithromycin

157
Q

Where is a maxillary 3rd molar most likely to be displaced?

Infratemporal fossa

Maxillary sinus

A

Maxillary sinus

Infratemporal fossa is possible yet rare

158
Q

Pt has veneers from 6-11, which fluoride should be used so you do not stain their teeth?

Standouts fluoride

Sodium fluoride

Acid fluoride

A

Sodium fluoride

159
Q

____ is a pathology found at the floor of mouth and is doughy in consistancy

A

Dermoid cyst

160
Q

Describe the action of clotrimazole

A

Alters teh enzyme for synthesis of ergosterol which in turn alters the cell membrane permeability

161
Q

What is the mechanism of action of zafirlukast?

A

Nonsteroidal for prevention and treatment of asthma

162
Q

An outlier has the greatest effect on which statistical component?

Mode
Mean
Median
Standard error

A

Standard error

163
Q

What is the most common tooth associated with cracked tooth syndrome?

A

Mandibular second molars > mandibular first molars > maxillary premolars

164
Q

What is the purpose of oil in the X-ray tube?

A

Cools off the anode

165
Q

What is the best way to prevent speech problems in complete dentures?

A

Keep teeth in the same position as before

166
Q

Which teeth should you perform pulp evaluation on?

A

Tooth in question, neighboring teeth, contralateral tooth

167
Q

Which one is a schedule 2 drugs?

Percocet

Darvon 4

Vicodin 3

Ultram

Tylenol 3

A

Percocet

168
Q

Which of the following is affected by imbibition and syneresis the most?

Reversible hydrocolloid

Impression compound

Polysulfide

Silicone

A

Reversible hydrocolloid

169
Q

What is the best local anesthetic to use without vasoconstrictor?

A

Mepivicaine (carbocaine)

170
Q

When uprighting molars with lingual arch with omega loops, you should be careful not to ___

A

Flare Mandibular incisors

171
Q

A pt with localized aggressive periodontitis should rinse with ___

A

Chlorhexidine

and take systemic antibiotics***

172
Q

What is the most common nonodontogenic cyst?

A

Nasopalatine duct cyst

173
Q

All of the following are associated with perio problems except…

Steven-Johnson syndrome

Pap-lefeve syndrome

Down syndrome

Hypophosphatasia

A

Hypophosphatasia

174
Q

What is ethosuximide used to treat?

A

Petit mal seizures

175
Q

____ is a lesion that resembles SCC, then after ~16 weeks disappears..

Papilloma

Keratoacanthoma

Papillary hyperplasia

A

Keratoacanthoma

176
Q

A maxillary 2nd premolar has no apical pathossis, final RCT is performed and was 1mm away from apex. 1 year recall shows 5m radiolucency. What do you do?

A

Retreat?

177
Q

What is the purpose of inorganic pyrophosphates in toothpaste?

A

Acts as a tartar control agent, serving to remove calcium and magnesium from saliva and thus preventing them from being deposited on teeth

178
Q

True or false… immunofluorescne is used for the diagnosis of pemphigus

A

True

179
Q

What is cicatricial pemphigoid?

A

Another name for mucous membrane pemphigoid

180
Q

What is the most common reason for porcelain fracture? (Due to lab error)

A

Contaminant metal before opaque layer

181
Q

What causes a “crowing” sound?

A

Laryngeal spasms

182
Q

At which step of denture process should you check phonetics?

A

Wax try in

183
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines.

A

Facilitates GABA receptor binding by increasing the frequency of chloride channel opening

184
Q

When does a permanent 1st molar complete calcification?

A

30-36 months

185
Q

What is the phone number for memorizing tooth eruption for maxilla?

A

781 - 0062

186
Q

What is the phone number for memorizing the eruption pattern for mandible?

A

679 - 0161

187
Q

When do the permanent central incisors start calcification?

A

~16 weeks

188
Q

Why isn’t sulfonylureas prescribed to type 1 diabetic patients?

A

They dont have beta cells for insulin production

189
Q

What are the landmarks for the fox plane?

A

Lower alla to upper Travis = campers plane

Interpupular line

190
Q

In a radiograph, what aspect of caries are visible?

A

Demineralization

191
Q

What is the greatest cause for implant failure?

A

Smoking?

192
Q

What causes most vertical root fractures?

A

Condensation of gutta percha

193
Q

Describe each type of amelogensis imperfecta

A

Hypoplastic - pitting enamel

Hypomature - brown molding, snow capped mountains

Hypocalcified - soft, flakes off, normal looking

194
Q

What is the main disadvantage to CT graft?

A

Two surgical sites

195
Q

What type of flap do you use for crown lengthening?

A

Apically repositioned flap

196
Q

Name some physical characteristics of Down syndrome

A

Small maxilla

Large tongue

Crowding

Small teeth, short roots

Heart problems (mitral valve)

Cleft lip/palate

197
Q

What causes pink tooth mummery?

A

Internal resorption

198
Q

Nuchal rigidity is a third sign used to diagnose ____

A

Meningitis

199
Q

Which permanent tooth has the most prominent cervical bulge?

A

Mandibular molar

200
Q

Why use nonrigid fixed retainers in a bridge?

A

Pier-pier-pier

Correct path of insertion

201
Q

What is isorbide used for?

A

Angina pectoris/congestive heart failure

202
Q

What is probantine?

A

Antisialoguge

203
Q

What three things are associated with Pierre robin syndrome?

A

Micrognathia

Cleft palate

Glossoptosis

204
Q

True or false… regional odontodysplasia is nonheriditary

A

True it is not

205
Q

____ is associated with ghost teeth and affects one quadrant at a time

A

Odontoregional dysplasia (regional odontodysplasia)

206
Q

When suturing, do you suture from movable to fixed, or fixed to movable tissue?

A

Movable to fixed.

207
Q

Where is the most likely area to perforate a maxillary central in RCT?

A

Facial

208
Q

Where is the most likely surface to perforate in RCT of maxillary 1st premolar?

A

Mesial

209
Q

Implants should be placed with [high/low] torque and [high/low] speed

A

High

Low

210
Q

True or false… radiation therapy can cause dyguesia

A

True (alteration to sense of taste (probably in part to hyposalivation))

211
Q

What is the most common malocclusion?

A

Class 2 division 1

212
Q

When extracting upper molars, should you extract from third molar to first or first to third? Why?

A

Third molar moving anterior

To decrease chance of tuberosity fracture

213
Q

In ___ disease, you have “teeth floating in air”

A

Langerhans cell disease

214
Q

What is the best way to avoid root caries?

A

Maintaining perio attachment

215
Q

What causes contraction of amalgam?

A

Tin

216
Q

What causes delay of expansion of amalgam? Creep

A

Zinc

217
Q

What two syndromes are characterized by multiple supernumerary teeth?

A

Gardner syndrome (and odontomas)

Cleidocranial dysplasia

218
Q

The bull lesion or target iris is seen in ____

A

Erythema multiforme

219
Q

Why are filters used in radiology?

A

Remove low energy photons

220
Q

What is the purpose of intensifying screens in readiology?

A

To reduce pt dose

NBDE Pt 2 Flash Cards (23 decks)

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