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NBDE Pt 2 Flash Cards > Oral Path > Flashcards

Oral Path Flashcards

1
Q

The most commonly affected branches of trigeminal nerve in Trigeminal neuralgia are __ and __, but pain can be about in any location on the head and even the index finger.

A

V2 and V3

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2
Q

Anterior disc displacement [with/without] reduction occurs when the articular disc is located anterior to the condyle during opening of the jaw Reich results in a limited mouth opening without any clicking or popping sounds.

A

Without

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3
Q

Anterior disc displacement [with/without] reduction is observed in patients who experience pain and popping or clicking sound upon opening and closing their mouth.

A

With

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4
Q

Popping sounds indicate that…

A

The condyle head is moving back against the disc, and as the mouth closes, the condyle head slides off to the posterior aspect of the disc creating another clicking sound

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5
Q

True or false… most patients suffering from TMD typically exhibit no obvious TMJ pathology on Panos

A

True

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6
Q

___ imaging is the preferred method for visualizing the TMJ followed by ___

A

MRI

Cone bean tomography

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7
Q

___ is the term to describe the mandibular hinge position which further opening of the mandible would produce forward translators movement rather than hinge movement.

A

Terminal hinge position (transverse horizontal axis)

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8
Q

___ is the prime muscle that pulls the condyle head anterio-medially out of the glenoid fossa.

A

Lateral pterygoid

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9
Q

____ most commonly cause intracapsular restraint of mandibular movement in adults

A

Disc interference disorders (AKA internal derangement disorders)

Disc interference disorders are commonly associated with anterior and medial displacement or dislocation of the anterior disc.

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10
Q

What are signs and symptoms of internal derangements?

A

Clicking sounds

catching or locking during jaw movements

May or may not be associated with pain

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11
Q

An occlusal splint should be fabricated in __ since it is the most stable, most reliable, reproducible joint position. Define this position.

A

CR (centric relation)

CR describes the maxillomandibular relationship when the condyles articulate with the thinnest, avascular portion of the articular disc so that the condyle is in its most anterior-superior position against the condylar eminence

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12
Q

What TMJ disorder is most responsive to treatment with an occlusal separator?

A

Muscle spasm

Occlusal separators separate upper and lower teeth from each other and allow the TMJ to rest and recover.

They also serve to help the muscles of mastication relax.

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13
Q

____ is a neoplasm that commonly arises along the posterior aspect of the mandible during the fourth to fifth decades of life. It is a benign tumor that originates from ___. It is a [quickly/slowly] progressing [painful/painless] swelling that is often associated with impacted teeth and occurs most frequently in the ___ area, but may also occur in the ___ area.

A

CEOT (calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor) (pindborg tumor)

The epithelial remnants of the stratum intermedium of the enamel organ.

Slowly

Painless

Molar

Premolar

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14
Q

CEOTs have a presence of ___ deposits appear microscopically and a “____” appearance is observed radiographically.

A

Amyloid-like

Driven-snow

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15
Q

Incisional biopsy is indicated in cases where the lesion is large and it >___mm

A

10

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16
Q

What area has the worst prognosis for squamous cell carcinoma? Why?

A

Floor of the mouth

Its rich blood supply.

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17
Q

Angular cheilitis is associated with what three things?

A

Nutritional deficiency (vitamin B)

Loss of vertical dimension

Candida albicans infection

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18
Q

What are some characteristics of angular chelitis?

A 
Erythema
Moist maceration 
Soreness
Pain 
Burning 
Pruritis
Ulceration
And crusting at the corners of the mouth

(AKA angular cheilosis, commissars chelitis, angular stomatitis, and perleche)

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19
Q

What is necrotizing sialometaplasia and what causes it?

A

Rapidly expanding ulcerative lesion that mostly occurs on the posterior area of the hard palate

Usually engine, often painless, self-limiting, and resolves in about 6-10 weeks

Trauma to the minor salivary glands in the hard palate causes this condition

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20
Q

What condition presents with a radiographic “___” appearance lesion. It can cause paresthesia, loosening and displacement of teeth, along with a localized swelling in the posterior mandible.

A

Sunburst

Osteosarcoma

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21
Q

Osteosarcoma is classified as a form of bone cancer that predominantly occurs in __ and ___. Osteosarcomas usually manifest as a ___ ___ swelling that can be distinguished in radiographs as appearing ___ or having a __ apperance. The ___ appearance is due to the calcified tumor spicules that radiate outward of the bone.

A

Children and teenagers

Solid, indurated

Moth-eaten or having a sunburst apperance

Sunburst

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22
Q

____ is a condition that manifests on the hard palate as a white surface lesion associated with pipe and cigar smoking and is not considered to be premalignant

A

Nicotinic stomatitis

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23
Q

Nicotinic stomatitis is induced by…

It is found most commonly in [men/women] over the age of __

A

The palate being exposed to very hot conditions, is also associated with the chronic ingestion of hot beverages

Men. 45

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24
Q

True or false… cancer risk is significantly increased with nicotinic stomatitis

A

False

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25
Q

Nicotinic stomatitis should completely resolve on its own after __-___ upon smoking cessation. If the lesion persists, a biopsy may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis

A

1-2 weeks

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26
Q

What muscle of mastication/facial expression is the most susceptible to myositis?

A

Myositis - inflammation of the muscles

The masseter

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27
Q

Myositis is a documented side effect of ___ drugs like ___ and ___

A

Lipid-lowering

Statins and fibrates

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28
Q

___ is a rapidly expanding ulcerative lesion that mostly occurs on the posterior area of the hard palate. It is usually benign and is often painless. It is usually self-limiting and resolves in about __-___ weeks.

A

Necrotizing sialometaplasia

6-10

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29
Q

List some etiologies for necrotizing stomatitis

A

Trauma

Local anesthetic injection

Smoking

Alcohol

Diabetes

Vascular disease (arteriosclerosis)

Pressure from a dental prosthesis

Allergy

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30
Q

Carcinoma in situ is most associated with [erythroplakia, leukoplakia, white sponge nevus]

A

Erythroplakia

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31
Q

Erythroplakia is most commonly found in what three locations?

A

Floor of the mouth

Tongue

Soft palate

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32
Q

Why does erythroplakia appear red in some areas?

A

Absence of keratin production

Reduced number of epithelial cells

Increased vascularity due to inflammation

Thin and neoplastic epithelium

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33
Q

Metastatic squamous cell carcinoma of the tongue will likely migrate to the __ first. If it progresses there it typically results in a [poor/questionable] prognosis. ___ is typically used to treat this type of cancer.

A

Cervical nodes.

Poor

Surgical neck dissection

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34
Q

True or false… leukoedema should be biopsied because it is considered premalignant.

A

False. It is diagnosed clinically by stretching. It is benign, and NOT premalignant.

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35
Q

______ presents as a rubbery, firm, asymptomatic nodule within the main body of the parotid gland. It accounts for 90% of the benign tumors occurring in the gland. It occurs as a preexisting lesion of long duration

A

Benign mixed tumor or pleiomorphic adenoma

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36
Q

Describe the presentation of post-herpetic neuralgia

A

Possible paresthesia and itching

Discomfort to severe pain which can be described as burning or stabbing

Persistence of pain for 3+ months

Cutaneous scarring may be present

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37
Q

____ is a condition characterized by the presence of multiple ensign tumors of ectodermal origin, along with multiple pigmented macules on the skin. It is a genetic condition that manifests as cafe au lait spots and multiple soft nodules which may occur anywhere in the body.

A

Neurofibromatosis

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38
Q

Neurofibromatosis occurs with many varieties. The most commonly occurring form is ____

A

NF1

Von Recklinghausen’s disease

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39
Q

Adenomatoid odontogenic tumors are most likely to manifest in which location? They are benign ___ tumor of bone that may or may not mineralize. They are most commonly found in [males/females] [over/under] the age of 20.

A

Anterior maxilla (associated with an unerupted tooth)

Epithelial

Females under the age of 20

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40
Q

True or false… peripheral ossifying fibroma shows histological evidence of calcification.

A

True

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41
Q

The formation of apthae involve a ___ mediated immune response triggered by a variety of factors, including ___, ___, ___, ___, ___, and ___

A

T-cell

Nutritional deficiencies 
Local trauma
Stress
Hormonal influences
Allergies 
Genetic predisposition
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42
Q

Where is the most common site of intraoral malignant melanoma?

A

Hard palate and maxillary gingiva

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43
Q

Describe the features of carcinoma in situ.

A

Invasion has NOT yet breached the basement membrane and there is no invasion of surrounding tissues.

Abnormal mitosis

Los of cellular polarity

Pleomorphism

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44
Q

What are some risk factors of median rhomboid glossitis?

A

Smoking

Wearking dentures

Corticosteroid sprays/inhalers

HIV

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45
Q

Tender swelling localized within the submandibular triangle is indicative of ___

A

Lymphadenopathy - condition in which the lymph nodes become swollen, tender, and enlarged. Lymphadenopathy could be an indication of infection, malignancy, or an auto-immune disease.

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46
Q

Ranulas typically exhibit a recurrence rate of up to ___% after complete excision of the ranula and up to ___% of cases of complete excision of the ranula with sublingual gland.

A

20%

2%

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47
Q

___ is indicated for a ranula occurring the first time. ___ is indicated for a recurring ranula.

A

Marsupialization

Complete lingual gland excision

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48
Q

Premalignant squamous epithelial lesions typically manifest where?

A

Floor of the mouth and lateral border of the tongue

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49
Q

True or false… an ulcer at the floor of the mouth heals quickly because of the increased blood flow to the area.

A

False. Although there is increased blood flow to this area, the healing occurs slower because of the high degree of mobility of the tongue and floor of the mouth. The rich blood supply actually serves as an explanation for the high potential for premalignant lesions because rapidly dividing malignant cells require more nutrition than normal cells.

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50
Q

What are 5 prodromal symptoms of acute herpetic gingivostomatitis?

A

Fever
Anorexia
Malasie
Headache

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51
Q

____ are the most active during a histamine/allergic immune reaction. ____ contain histamine and heparin, that they are able to secrete to affect the activity of the body in an immune reaction and are known for allergy and anaphylaxis.

A

Mast cells

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52
Q

_____ is a common benign salivary gland neoplasm of glandular cells along with myoepithelial components, that can potentially become malignant. It is the most common variety of salivary gland tumor and also the most common tumor of the parotid gland.

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

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53
Q

What is the most common tumor of the parotid gland?

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

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54
Q

The presence of “sulfur granules” is pathognomonic of which condition?

A

Actinomycosis

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55
Q

Name four characteristics of actinomycosis (caused by actinomyces israeli)

A

A non-painful hard lump in the jaw

Painful skin abscesses which initiate as red bruises

Muscle spasms in the jaw leading to locked jaw

Presence of sulfur granules

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56
Q

Where is the most common location of mucoceles?

A

Lower lip

Mucoceles present a bluish translucent color and are most commonly found in children and young adults.

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57
Q

What are mucus retention cysts?

A

True cysts that are lined by epithelium and are more rare than mucus extravasion phenomena. Mucus retention cysts usually present as asymptomatic swelling of the palate, cheek, FOM, or maxillary sinus. The lesions range from 3mm to 1cm and demonstrate non-tender mobility and a normal surface color

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58
Q

Which site in the oral cavity is kaposi’s sarcoma most likely to appear? The mouth is involved in ___% of cases and is the initial site in 15% of ___-related kaposi’s sarcoma.

A

Palate

30%

AIDS

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59
Q

_____are a collection of mucous deposits within the paranasal singuses. They appear radiopaque because the air that surrounds the psuedocyst is radiolucent, making the mucus appear more radiopaque.

A

Mucus retention pseudocysts

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60
Q

What is the best treatment of generalized acute herpetic gingivostomatitis?

A

Increase fluid intake, gentle debridement of the mouth, and good oral hygiene.

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61
Q

How long does generalized acute herpetic gingivostomatitis typically last? What are some palliative treatments? What should be used in extreme cases?

A

10-14 days

Topical xylophone, Benadryl, kaopectate to coat the mouth, and a balanced diet, magic mouthwash

Acyclovir

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62
Q

True of false… mucous retention pseudocysts are lined with respiratory epithelium

A

True

63
Q

What type of TMJ disorder is most likely to elicit an audible “click” or “pop” when opening the jaw?

A

Anterior disc displacement with reduction

64
Q

Pain and tenderness upon palpation of the TMJ is usually associated with deviation of the jaw to the [painful/nonpainful] side upon opening of the mouth.

A

Painful

This is because the jaw is limiting itself from excessive movements that may cause further pain and damage to the joint

65
Q

Degeneration of the basal cell layer, a mononuclear inflammatory cell infiltrate in the subepithelial connective tissue, and “saw-tooth” rete pegs are indicative of ____. It typically affects the ___, ___, and ____

A

Lichen planus

Skin

Tongue

Oral mucosa

66
Q

Lichen planus is sometimes associated with oxidative stress, certain medications, and diseases. ____ lichen planus is the most common and manifests as white lacy streaks on the mucosa (known as ____) or as smaller papules. The lesions tend to be bilateral and asymptomatic. ___ lichen planus presents as fluid-filled vesicles which project from the surfaces. ___ lichen planus presents with painful erythematous ulcerated lesions which may occur in many areas in the mouth but mostly on the posterior buccal mucosa, and may resemble desquamative gingivitis.

A

Reticular

Wicham’s Striae

Bullous

Erosive

67
Q

____ exhibits globular dentin, early pulpal obliteration, defective root formation, periapical granulomas/cysts, premature exfoliation, and appear to be normal clinically.

A

Dentin dysplasia

68
Q

____ is a hereditary disease characterized by a disturbance in normal dentin formation causing pulpal chamber obliteration, alteration or absence of root formation, and premature tooth exfoliation.

A

Dentin dysplasia

69
Q

True or false… amelogenesis imperfecta ONLY affects the formation of enamel and not dentin

A

True

70
Q

What is the classic clinical sign/symptom of an anteriorly displaced disk with reduction?

A

Reciprocal click

71
Q

In ____, the disk stays anterior to the condylar head upon opening so the mouth opening is limited and there is no pop or click sound upon opening.

A

Disk displacement without reduction

72
Q

True or false… lateral periodontal cysts are identifiable radiographically

A

True

73
Q

What is the most common cause of intracapsular restraint of mandibular movement?

A

Disk interference disorders (AKA internal derangement disorders)

74
Q

Disc interference disorders are commonly associated with ___ and ___ displacement or dislocation of the articular disc.

A

Anterior

Medial

75
Q

People most prone to TMJ possess a ___. Other factors that cause TMD include…

A

Malocclusion

Bruxism

Overbite

Rheumatoid arthritis

Depression psychosis

Stress

76
Q

Ameloblastomas are rare, benign ___ tumors derived from ___ that occurs more common in the __ than the ___ and is often associated with ___ teeth. They are rarely malignant or metastatic. They exhibit a tendency to…

A

Odontogenic

Epithelium

Mandible

Maxilla

Unerupted

Expand the body cortices at a slow growth rate that allows time for the periosteum to develop a thin shell of bone that cracks when palpated (egg shell cracking).

77
Q

Ameloblastomas often appear with a ___ appearance. And roots may….

Other symptoms include…

A

Multilocultated “soap bubble”

Resorbed in involved teeth

Painless swelling

Facial deformity

Loose teeth

Ulceration

Periodontal disease

78
Q

What are the most common locations for the development of squamous cell carcinoma inside the mouth?

A

Floor of the mouth

Lateral border of the tongue

79
Q

___ radiographs are important when attempting to discern the location of submandibular sialoliths

A

Cross-sectional occlusal

80
Q

_____ is a benign odontogenic tumor arising from epithelial and ectomesenchymal tissues and produces no mineralized product. It is more common in patients 10-20 years old with unerupted teeth in 50%of cases. It appears radiographically as a sharply demarcated radiolucent lesion.

A

Ameloblastic fibroma

81
Q

Suprabasilar acantholysis is pathognomonic of what condition?

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

82
Q

Pemphigus vulgaris is most commonly associated with painful lesions on the ____. Biopsy reveals __ and ___. It is an ___ disorder characterized by the production of antibodies against specific proteins in the ___ resulting in formation of skin blisters.

A

Buccal mucosa

Suprabasilar vesicle
Acantholysis

Autoimmune

Skin and mucus membranes

83
Q

True or false… central giant cell granulomas are characterized by a large radiolucent multilocular lesion that expands the cortical plate and can often resorb roots and move teeth. This causes them to often be confused with ameloblastomas

A

True

84
Q

Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia is found in ___% of patients that wear their dentures 24 hours a day

A

20%

85
Q

In which location is inflammatory papillary hyperplasia most likely to be found?

A

Hard palate

86
Q

Paget’s disease of bone is diagnosed by the presence of an elevated level of ____ and normal __, ___, and ___ levels in the blood. The pathognomonic sign for Paget’s disease is a radiopaque ___ appearance. Other signs include… (4 things)

A

Alkaline phosphatase

Calcium, phosphate, aminotransferase

Cotton wool

Enlarged skull and facial bones
Enlarged maxilla and alveolar ridges
Displaced teeth
Hypercementosis

87
Q

____ is a health condition manifested with spontaneous mucous membrane ulcerations in the mouth, vagina, or rectum. Other manifestations include sore throat, rigor, chills, fever

A

Agranulocytosis

88
Q

True or false.. the clinical appearance of pseudomembranous candidiasis alone is sufficient for the diagnosis of candidiasis

A

True

89
Q

What is the most common cause of intraoral verruca vulgaris?

A

Autoincoulation

90
Q

With complete surgical removal of verrucous carcinoma, patients become disease-free over a 5-year period approximately __% of the time

A

90

91
Q

Cleft lip occurs approximately 1 in ___ births. Cleft lip is unilateral in ___% of cases and bilateral in ___% of cases. It results in lack of fusion between which two processes?

A

1000

80%

20%

Medial nasal process and maxillary process

92
Q

Cleft palate occurs in approximately 1 in ___ births. It results in lack of fusion between ___

A

2000

Palatal shelves

93
Q

Which syndrome is associated with lip pits near the midline and clefting?

A

Van der Woude syndrome

94
Q

Lingual thyroid is located ____

A

At the midline base of the tongue.

It is located along the embryonic path of thyroid descent

95
Q

The thyroglossal duct cyst is a neck swelling located at the ____ and located along the ____

A

Midline

Embryonic path of thyroid descent

96
Q

_____ syndrome is fissured tongue + granulomatous cheilitis + facial paralysis

A

Melkersson-Rosenthal

97
Q

What is cystic hygroma?

A

Lymphangioma of the neck

98
Q

What is sturge-Weber syndrome?

A

Angiomas of leptomeninges (arachnoid and pia mater) + angiomas skin along the distribution of the trigeminal nerve

99
Q

Where are dermoid cysts found?

A

Midline floor of mouth if above mylohyoid

Mass in upper neck if below mylohyoid

100
Q

Dermoid cysts may contain __ structures like ___. They often have a __ consistency

A

Adnexal structures like hair and sebaceous glands

Doughy

101
Q

Bronchial cysts are swelling found in ____. They are due to ___

A

The lateral neck

Epithelial cyst within the lymph node of the neck

102
Q

Where are common regions where oral lymphoepithelial cysts are found?

A

Palatine and lingual tonsils

They are epithelial cysts within lymphoid tissue of oral mucosa

103
Q

_____ are heart-shaped radiolucencies in the nasopalatine canal. They are caused by cystificaiton of canal remnants. What is the treatment of choice?

A

Nasopalatine duct cysts

Excision

104
Q

What is a globulomaxillary lesion?

A

Clinical term denoting any radiolucency between maxillary canine and lateral incisor

105
Q

A ____ is also called a simple bone cyst and idiopathic bone cavity. It is a large radiolucency which scallops around roots. It has no epithelial lining (dead space) in mandible of teenagers. Usually associated with jaw trauma. What is the treatment of choice?

A

Traumatic bone cyst

Aspirate to diagnose, just monitor once confirmed its a traumatic bone cyst

106
Q

What is the difference between an erosion and an ulcer?

A

Erosion = incomplete break through epithelium

Ulcer = complete break through epithelium

107
Q

What is nicotine stomatitis?

A

Red dots that are inflamed salivary duct openings

108
Q

Nicotine stomatitis is only premalignant if related to ____

A

“Reverse smoking” (lighted end in mouth)

109
Q

True or false… smoking-associated melanosis is reversible is smoking is discontinued

A

True

110
Q

_____ is a syndrome in which oral melanotic macules (and around lips) are assocaited with intestinal polyps

A

Peutz-jeghers syndrome

111
Q

Dentrifice-assocaited sloughing is related to what ingredient in tooth paste?

A

Surfactant ingredient sodium laurel sulfate

112
Q

What brands of toothpaste should you recommend to a patient who has dentrifice associated sloughing?

A

Toms of Maine or Rembrandt toothpaste

113
Q

True or false… subucosal hemorrhages do not Blanche

A

True

114
Q

Varicella zoster virus is associated with ___ syndrome which is herpes zoster deactivation in geniculate ganglion affecting cranial nerves VII and VIII resulting in facial paralysis, vertigo, deafness

A

Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

115
Q

The ___ virus is assocaited with hand-foot-and-mouth disease. As well ass herpangia, which is affects the…

A

Coxsackie

Posterior oral cavity (soft palate, throat, and tonsils)

116
Q

___(___) is associated with Koplik’s spots (buccal mucosa dot ulcers) which precede a skin rash. It is self-limiting and mostly occurs in childhood

A

Measles (rubeola)

117
Q

Condylomata acuminatum is caused by ___ and ___. They are often found on ___ but can occur orally if…

What is the treatment of choice?

A

HPV 6 and 11

Genitals

Oral sex with someone with genital warts

Excision (high recurrence)

118
Q

Focal epithelial hyperplasia (AKA ___ disease) is caused by __ and ___. It appears as ____.

What is the treatment of choice?

A

Heck’s disease

HPV 13 and 32

Multiple small dome-shaped warts on oral mucosa

Excision with excellent prognosis

119
Q

Oral hair leukoplakia is caused by ___. It appears as ____. It is an opportunistic infection often associated with ___. It is also assocaited with ___.

A

EBV

White patch on lateral tongue that does not wipe off

HIV

Burkitt’s lymphoma

120
Q

What oral lesion is often associated with burkitt’s lymphoma?

A

Oral hairy leukoplakia

121
Q

Syphilis is caused by contact with what spirochete bacteria/

A

Treponema pallidum

122
Q

What is the primary lesion of syphilis?

Secondary?

Tertiary?

A

Primary = chancre

Secondary = oral mucous patch, condyloma Latum, maculopapular rash

Tertiary = gumma, CNS involvement, CV involvement

123
Q

Congenital syphilis causes Hutchinson’s triad, which is…

A

Notched incisors and mulberry molars

Deafness

Ocular keratitis

124
Q

Tuberculosis is caused by inhalation of what bacteria?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

125
Q

What is the oral manifestation of tuberculosis?

A

Oral nonhealing chronic ulcers following lung infection

126
Q

What is the appearance of primary tuberculosis?

A

Ghon complex (inhaled bacteria surrounded in a granuloma that undergoes caseating necrosis + infected hilar lymph node draining the first lesion)

127
Q

What is the appearance of secondary TB?

A

More widespread lung infection with cavitation

128
Q

What is the apperance of miliary TB?

A

Systemic spread

129
Q

True or false… HIV patients are at high risk of getting progressive disease of TB

A

True

130
Q

Actinomycosis is caused by ___

A

Actinomyces israelii (filamentous, yet not fungal)

131
Q

What are the two main types of actinomycosis?

A

Periapical - jaw infections

Cervicofacial - head and neck infections

132
Q

Which disease is associated with sulfur granules in purulent exudate?

A

Actinomycosis

133
Q

What is the treatment for actinomycosis?

A

Long—term high-dose penicillin

134
Q

Scarlet fever is caused by ____. This is when strep throat becomes a systemic infection. What happens in the oral cavity?

A

Group A strep (streptococcus pyogenes)

Strawberry tongue = white coated tongue with red inflamed FUNGIFORM papillae

135
Q

What is the treatment for scarlet fever?

A

Penicillin

136
Q

What type of papillae are affected in strawberry tongue of scarlet fever?

A

Fungiform papillae

137
Q

Name 4 different types of candidiasis and describe them

A

Pseudomembranous = white plaque that rubs off

Atrophic = red

Median rhomboid glossitis = loss of lingual papillae

Angular chelitis = corner of mouth

138
Q

Where is blastomycosis found?

Coccidodomycosis?

Cryptococcusis?

Histoplasmosis?

A

Blastomycosis - US northeast, spores

Coccidiodomycosis - US southwest, valley fever

Cryptococcosis - US west

Histoplasmosis - US Midwest

139
Q

Apthous ulcers affect [keratinized/nonkeratinized] tissue

A

Nonkeratinized

140
Q

True or false… both minor and major apthous ulcers heal without scarring

A

False. Minor heals without scarring

Major heals with scarring

141
Q

What is Sutton disease?

A

Another name of major form of apthous ulcers

142
Q

____ syndrome is a multisystem vasculitis that causes apthous-type ulcers of oral and genital, and inflammation of eye

A

Bechet’s syndrome

143
Q

What is the treatment for Behcet’s syndrome?

A

Corticosteroids

144
Q

Erythema multiforme often appears on the lips but can occur anywhere on the skin and mucosa. The minor form is associated with ___. The major form (AKA ____) is associated with ____

A

Herpes simplex hypersensitivity

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Drug sensitivity

145
Q

____ is an allergic reaction to drug or food contact and is diffuse swelling of lips, neck, or face. It is mediated by ___ release of ___ and ___. What is the treatment?

A

Angioedema

Mast cell

IgE and histamines

Antihistamines

146
Q

____ is an allergic reaction to an inhaled antigen. It results in “strawberry gingivitis”. What is the treatment?

A

Wegener’s granulomatosis

Corticosteroids (prednisone) and cyclophosphamide

147
Q

Lichen planus involves ___ which target and destroy ___. Basal zone vacuolization and ___ rete pegs secondary to this destruction is observed histologically

A

T lymphocytes

Basal keratinocytes

Sawtooth

148
Q

What are the two types of lichen planus? Which is the most common?

A

Reticular (most common) - wickham striae

Erosive (red ulceration)

149
Q

What is the treatment for lichen planus?

A

Corticosteroids

150
Q

Lupus erythematosus has two different types. What are they?

A

Discoid chronic type - disc-like lesions on facial skin. Oral lesions mimic erosive lichen planus

Systemic acute type - multiple organ involvement. BUTTERFLY RASH over bridge of nose. Autoantibodies (ANA test is run)

Treatment is corticosteroids

151
Q

What is scleroderma? What are the oral applications?

A

Hardening of skin and connective tissue

Restricted opening of mouth and uniform widening of PDL space is observed

152
Q

Pemphigus vulgaris is observed ____. Autoantibodies are against ___. It is characterized by multiple painful ulcers preceded by bullae. A diagnostic indication is a positive ___.

A

Suprabasilar

Desmosomes

Nikolsky’s sign (sloughing of superficial epithelial layer)

Treated with corticosteroids

153
Q

Mucous membrane pemphigoid is located ____. It has autoantibodies against the ___. Otherwise, it is the same as pemphigus

A

subbasilar

Basement membrane

NBDE Pt 2 Flash Cards (23 decks)

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