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NBDE Pt 2 Flash Cards > Mosby's Practice Questions > Flashcards

Mosby's Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements regarding external resorption is NOT true?

It is a destructive process initiated in the periodontium

There are 3 main types: inflammatory root resorption, replacement resorption, and cervical resorption.

It can be located anywhere along the root canal

The margins are sharp, smooth, and well-defined

A

The margins are sharp, smooth and well defined

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2
Q

The major objectives of access preparation include all of the following except one. Which one?

Attainment of direct straight line access to canal orifices

Confirmation of clinical diagnosis

Conservation of tooth structure

Attainment of direct straight line access to the apical root

A

Confirmation of clinical diagnosis

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3
Q

Prolonged, unprovoked night pain suggests which of the following conditions of the pulp?

Pulpal necrosis

Mild hyperemia

Reversible pulpitis

Periodontal abscess

A

Pulpal necrosis

Even in degrading pulps, C fibers can still be active. They are less affected by disrupted blood flow that A delta fibers

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4
Q

In a tooth with a primary periodontal lesion with secondary endodontic involvements, proceed first with…

Periodontal treatment

Nonsurgical endodontic treatment

Antibiotic treatment

Incision and drainage

A

Nonsurgical endodontic treatment

True endo-perio lesions are always treated as primary endo lesions. Endo is treated first followed by perio

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5
Q

In which of the following conditions is elective root canal therapy contraindicated?

AIDS

Recent MI

Leukemia

Radiotherapy

A

Recent MI

No anesthetic should be given to a pt with a recent MI until at least 6 months have passed since the event.

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6
Q

Endodontic infection usually is polymicrobial. What is the predominant type of microorganism found in a tooth that requires endodontic therapy?

Aerobic bacteria

Facultative bacteria

Obligate anaerobic bacteria

Yeast microorganisms

A

Obligate anaerobic bacteria

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7
Q

On routine radiographic survey of a new pt, you notice a circle-shaped radiolucency midroot and over the pulpal outline of tooth #6. After a vital response to cold-testing, your diagnosis and subsequent treatment plan are….

A

Internal resorption

Prompt Completion of nonsurgical endodontic treatment
(If not treated, it may or may not reach the external tooth surface)

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8
Q

During a nonvital bleaching procedure, if a barrier material is not placed between the root canal filling and bleaching material, the tooth can be subjected to ___

A

External cervical resorption

4mm of filling material between root fillings and internal bleaching material is required

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9
Q

When are antibiotics indicated in endodontics?

A

Diffuse swelling (cellulitis) (note that fluctuant swelling is not an indication)

Fever

Malaise

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10
Q

The bacterial flor of an infected previously treated endodontic tooth is best characterized as gram ___ and ___

A

Gram positive facultative anaerobes (best example is E. faecalis)

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11
Q

What is the proper treatment protocol for a NaOCl accident?

A

Instructions to minimize swelling with the use of cold compresses within the first 24 hours

Analgesics for pain control

Antibiotics for pts at increased risk for secondary infection

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12
Q

Which is the most likely to cause pulp necrosis?

Subluxation

Extrusion

Avulsion

Concussion

A

Avulsion

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13
Q

Features of focal sclerosing osteomyelitis often include…

Non vital pulp test

Hx of recent restoration of the tooth inquestion

A radiolucent lesion, which in time becomes radiopaque

None of the above are true

A

Hx of recent restoration of the tooth in question

Condensing osteitis is typically found in young pts (<20years) in mandibular molars. Tooth may or may not be vital. It is typically due to a chronic low grade inflammation

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14
Q

Once the root canal is obturated, what usually happens to the organisms that had previously entered the periradicaulr tissues from the canal?

A

They are eliminated by the natural defenses of the body

Obturation prevents coronal leakage so the bacteria lose source of nutrition which makes them susceptible to the body’s immune response

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15
Q

Describe the number system for dental hand instruments (4 digits)

A

1 = blade width

2 = cutting edge angle

3 = length of blade

4 = blade angle

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16
Q

In a conventional class 1 composite prep, in what two ways is retention obtained?

A

Occlusal convergence

Bonding

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17
Q

True or false… fracture lines should be included in a prep

A

True

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18
Q

Which of the following statements about an amalgam tooth/cavity prep is true?

Enamel cavosurface margin must be 90 degrees

The cavosurface margin should provide for a 90 degree amalgam margin

All prepped walls converge externally

Reteinon form for class V preps can be placed at the DEJ

A

The cavosurface margin should provide a 90 degree amalgam margin

Enamel doesn’t necessarily have to have a 90 degree cavosurface margin, but amalgam does for strength of material

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19
Q

Causes of post-op sensitivity with amalgam restoration include all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?

Lack of adequate condensation, especially lateral condensation in the proximal boxes

Voids

Extension onto the root surface

Lack of dentinal sealing

A

Extension onto the root surface

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20
Q

Describe the setting reaction of dental amalgam

A

Mercury reaction with silver on or in the alloy particle

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21
Q

Major differences between etch-and-rinse and self-etching primer adhesive systems include all of the following except which one?

Time necessary to apply the materials

Amount of smear layer removed

Bond strengths to enamel

Need for wet bonding

A

Time necessary to apply the materials

Self etch removes less smear layer thus creating a weaker bond yet reducing leakage because smear layer obliterates the dentinal tubules

Self etch should be applied in multiple coats so the time to apply it is similar to etch and rinse

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22
Q

All of the following statements about slot-retained complex amalgams are true except one. Which one?

Slots should be at least 1.5mm in depth

Slots should be 1mm or more in length

Slots may be segmented or continuous

Slots should be placed at least 0.5mm inside the DEJ

A

D

This is false because slots should be placed 1mm deep into the DEJ - should be prepped with an inverted cone bur

The longer the slot the better

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23
Q

Which of the following has the highest linear coefficient of thermal expansion?

Amalgam

Direct gold

Tooth structure

Composite resin

A

Composite resin

It is 2.5-3 times greater than tooth structure

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24
Q

What is the function of skirts and collars in gold onlays?

A

Skirts = increase retention and resistance forms

Collars = provide bracing

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25
Q

Which of the following does NOT represent a fascial space for the spread of infection?

Superficial temporal space

Pterygomandibular space

Masseteric space

Rhinoseteric space

Submental space

A

Rhinoseteric

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26
Q

Which type of impacted teeth always involve bone removal and/or sectioning during surgical removal?

A

Horizontal impaction

Mesioangular or vertical may not require removal of bone or sectioning

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27
Q

Which of the following does NOT represent a possible finding of severe infection?

Trismus

Drooling

Difficult or painful swallowing

Swelling and induration with elevation of tongue

Temperature of 99F

A

E

All others refer to an airway emergency

28
Q

How much bone loss around an implant is acceptable per year?

A

0.02mm a year is WNL

29
Q

Implants should be placed at least ___mm away from the IA. If the implant is placed too close it should be backed up to ensure a safe distance from the nerve.

A

2mm

30
Q

Name three systemic effects of obstructive sleep apnea syndrome.

A

Hypertension

Cor pulmonale

Cardiac arrhythmia

31
Q

Which is the most severe classification of maxillary fracture?

A

Lefort 3

32
Q

True or false… antibiotic use in cases of odontogenic infections…

B-lactam antibiotics are preferred

Bactericidal agents are preferred to bacteriostatic agents in immunocompromised pts

A

True

33
Q

Select 3 from the following list, factors that make surgical removal of impacts thirds more difficult

Distoangular positioned 3rd molar

Mesioangular positioned third molar

Narrow PDL

Tooth roots are 1/2-1/3 formed

Close proximity to IA

Fused conical roots

A

A

C

E

34
Q

Which of the following anesthetics is marketed for dentistry in the US in more than one concentration?

A

Mepivicaine (carbocaine)

35
Q

Which anesthetic is packed in the highest concentration of all local anesthetics in Dentistry?

A

Articaine

36
Q

Conservative surgical excision would be appropriate treatment and probably curative for which of the following?

Nodular fasciitis

Fibromatosis

Fibrosarcoma

Rhabdomyosarcoma

Adenoid cystic carcinoma

A

Nodular fasciitis

37
Q

A 21 year old woman when to their dentist because of facial asymmetry. This asymmetry had developed gradually over 3 years. The pt had no symptoms. A diffusely opaque lesion was found in her right maxilla. Al laboratory tests were within normal limits. Biopsy reveals it as a fibro-osseous lesion. The pt most likely has ___

A

Fibrous dysplasia

38
Q

A cutaneous maculopapulary rash of the head and neck preceded by small ulcers in the Buccal mucosa would suggest….

A

Rubeola

39
Q

The idiopathic condition in which destructive inflammatory lesions featuring necrotizing vasculitis are seen in the lung, kidney, and upper respiratory tract is known as ____

A

Wegener’s granulomatosis

40
Q

From the following list, select the systemic diseas in which patients may develop apthous ulcers… (3)

Celiac sprue
Sarcoidosis 
Amyloidosis
Behcet’s syndrome
Crohn’s disease
Neurofibromatosis
A

Celiac sprue
Behcet’s syndrome
Crohn’s disease

41
Q

What is the function of the filament in radiology?

A

Release electrons

42
Q

What is the photosensitive component of an x-ray film?

A

Silver halide crystals

43
Q

If your film-based radiographs start coming out too light, it might mean that….

A

The developer needs changing

44
Q

Approximately __% of adolescents have crowding severe enough to consider extraction of permanent teeth as part of treatment

A

15%

45
Q

Children in the primary dentition most often present with [increased/decreased] overbite

A

Decreased

46
Q

An adult pt with a class 2 molar relationship and a cephalometric ANB angle of 2 degrees has which type of malocclusion?

A

Class 2 dental malocclusion

47
Q

What is the usual order of extraction of teeth if serial extraction is chosen as the treatment to alleviate severe crowding?

A

Primary canines

Primary first molars

Permanent first premolars

48
Q

A 7 year old patient has a 4mm midline diastema. What should be done?

A

Take a radiograph to be certain there is not the presence of a supernumerary tooth

49
Q

Reduction of overbite can be accomplished most readily by which tooth movement?

A

Intruding maxillary incisors

50
Q

True or false.. the interproximal contacts of primary teeth are broader and flatter than the interporximal contacts of permanent teeth

A

True

51
Q

Which is the most likely cause of pulpal necrosis after trauma to a tooth?

A

Pulpal hyperemia

52
Q

Which type of orthodontic wire would be the BEST choice for a pt with a known nickel allergy?

A

Beta titanium

53
Q

Which of the following is NOT a process in motivational interviewing?

Focusing

Analyzing

Evoking

Engaging

Planning

A

Analyzing

54
Q

Which behavior change theory emphasizes the importance of self-efficacy and behavioral modeling and reinforcement?

A

Social cognitive theory

55
Q

A pt is conflicted about wearing a night guard, despite your recommendations to prevent further damage from bruxism. The pt states “i have so much going on right now that i just dont think i am going to be able to wear it consistently like i should”. this is an example of…

A

Sustain talk

56
Q

Fluoride supplementation for a 2 year old child who lives in a nonfluoridated community can best be accomplished by initially prescribing ___

A

Fluoride drops

57
Q

Approximately ___% of the US population on public water supplies lives in a fluoridated community

A

74% (204 million)

58
Q

An amalgam restoration is considered ___ prevention

A

Secondary

59
Q

An ANB value > 2 indicates ____

An ANB value < 2 indicates ____

A

Class 2 skeletal

Class 3 skeletal

60
Q

Increased monomer added to acrylic resin results in….

A

Increased shrinkage

61
Q

What is the purpose of adjusting the occlusion in dentures?

A

To obtain even occlusal contacts

62
Q

Which of the following may be a consequence of occlusal trauma on implants?

Widening of PDL

Soft tissue sore around tooth

Bone loss

All of the above

A

Bone loss

63
Q

Name three cases where a diagnostic wax up is indicated

A

Reestablishing anterior guidance

A provisional fixed prosthesis is to be fabricated

Uncertainty exists regarding esthetics

64
Q

What is the MOST important predictor of clinical success of a cast post and core?

A

Amount of remaining coronal tooth structure

65
Q

A dentist is preparing all maxillary anterior teeth for crowns. Which procedure is necessary to preserve and restore anterior guidance?

A

Custom incisal guide table

66
Q

The minor connector for a mandibular distal extension base should extend posteriorly about ____

A

Two thirds the length of the edentulous ridge

67
Q

What is the best method for extracting teeth for an immediate denture?

A

Extract posterior teeth, leave the anterior

Wait a month for healing, construct the dentures, and extract the anterior teeth the day of deliver of the immediate dentures

Note that if this is done, the most difficult step is border molding before th final impression with existing teeth

NBDE Pt 2 Flash Cards (23 decks)

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