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#NUR1114 Bioscience > Practical 1: Anatomy of the Head, Neck and Trunk > Flashcards

Practical 1: Anatomy of the Head, Neck and Trunk Flashcards

1
Q

Define

Axial Skeleton

A

The part of the skeleton that includes the skull, vertebrae, ribs, and sternum.

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2
Q

Define

Appendicular Skeleton

A

The part of the skeleton that includes the limbs and the limb girdles that attach them to the axial skeleton.

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3
Q

Define

Frontal Bone

A

Flat bone that forms the forehead and part of the orbits (eye sockets).

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4
Q

Define

Parietal Bones

A

Four-sided bones forming the sides and roof of the skull.

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5
Q

Define

Occipital Bone

A

Bone that forms the back of the skull and part of its base, including the foramen magnum and occipital condyles.

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6
Q

Define

Foramen Magnum

A

Large opening in the occipital bone for the passage of the spinal cord into the skull.

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7
Q

Define

Occipital Condyles

A

Rounded projections on the occipital bone that articulate with the first cervical vertebra (atlas).

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8
Q

Define

Temporal Bones

A

Bones that form the sides and part of the base of the skull, including the external acoustic meatus, mastoid process, and temporomandibular joint.

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9
Q

Define

External Acoustic Meatus

A

Canal leading to the eardrum and middle ear located in the temporal bone.

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10
Q

Define

Mastoid Process

A

Projection of the temporal bone behind the ear, serving as an attachment site for muscles.

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11
Q

Define

Zygomatic Arch

A

Formed by the joining of processes from the temporal and zygomatic bones.

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12
Q

Define

Temporomandibular Joint

A

The joint between the mandible (lower jaw) and the temporal bone.

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13
Q

Define

Maxilla

A

The upper jawbone that forms the floor of the orbits (eye sockets).

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14
Q

Define

Mandible

A

The lower jawbone that articulates with the temporal bone at the temporomandibular joint.

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15
Q

Define

Mandibular Condyle

A

The rounded projection of the mandible that forms the temporomandibular joint.

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16
Q

Define

Zygomatic Bones

A

Cheekbones that contribute to the zygomatic arch.

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17
Q

Define

Synovial Joints

A

Joints where articulating bones are separated by a fluid-containing joint cavity, allowing substantial freedom of movement.

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18
Q

Define

Sutures

A

Immovable joints in the skull where bones dovetail with each other, held together by ossified fibrous connective tissue.

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19
Q

Define

Atlanto-Occipital Joint

A

Joint formed between the occipital condyles and the first cervical vertebra (atlas), allowing flexion and extension of the neck.

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20
Q

Define

Vertebral Column

A

The series of vertebrae extending from the skull to the coccyx, enclosing the spinal cord.

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21
Q

Define

Vertebrae

A

Individual bones making up the vertebral column, consisting of a vertebral body, vertebral arch, and processes.

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22
Q

Define

Cervical Vertebrae

A

The seven vertebrae of the neck region, with C1 known as the atlas and C2 as the axis.

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23
Q

Define

Thoracic Vertebrae

A

The twelve vertebrae of the chest region.

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24
Q

Define

Lumbar Vertebrae

A

The five vertebrae of the lower back.

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25
Q

Define

Sacral Vertebrae

A

The five fused vertebrae that make up the sacrum, at the base of the spine.

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26
Q

Define

Coccygeal Vertebrae

A

The four fused vertebrae that make up the coccyx, at the very base of the spine.

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27
Q

Define

Vertebral Body

A

The cylindrical, weight-bearing part of a vertebra.

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28
Q

Define

Vertebral Foramen

A

The opening in each vertebra that forms the vertebral canal through which the spinal cord passes.

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29
Q

Define

Spinous Process

A

The bony projection off the posterior (back) part of each vertebra.

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30
Q

Define

Transverse Process

A

The bony projection off the left and right sides of each vertebra.

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31
Q

Define

Intervertebral Discs

A

Flexible fibrocartilage pads with gelatinous centers that separate and cushion the vertebrae.

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32
Q

Define

Atlas

A

The first cervical vertebra (C1), which supports the skull and allows nodding motion (“yes” movement).

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33
Q

Define

Axis

A

The second cervical vertebra (C2), which allows rotational movement of the head (“no” movement).

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34
Q

What is

The part of the skeleton that includes the skull, vertebrae, ribs, and sternum.

A

Axial Skeleton

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35
Q

What is

The part of the skeleton that includes the limbs and the limb girdles that attach them to the axial skeleton.

A

Appendicular Skeleton

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36
Q

What is

Flat bone that forms the forehead and part of the orbits (eye sockets).

A

Frontal Bone

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37
Q

What is

Four-sided bones forming the sides and roof of the skull.

A

Parietal Bones

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38
Q

What is

Bone that forms the back of the skull and part of its base, including the foramen magnum and occipital condyles.

A

Occipital Bone

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39
Q

What is

Large opening in the occipital bone for the passage of the spinal cord into the skull.

A

Foramen Magnum

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40
Q

What is

Rounded projections on the occipital bone that articulate with the first cervical vertebra (atlas).

A

Occipital Condyles

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41
Q

What is

Bones that form the sides and part of the base of the skull, including the external acoustic meatus, mastoid process, and temporomandibular joint.

A

Temporal Bones

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42
Q

What is

Canal leading to the eardrum and middle ear located in the temporal bone.

A

External Acoustic Meatus

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43
Q

What is

Projection of the temporal bone behind the ear, serving as an attachment site for muscles.

A

Mastoid Process

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44
Q

What is

Formed by the joining of processes from the temporal and zygomatic bones.

A

Zygomatic Arch

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45
Q

What is

The joint between the mandible (lower jaw) and the temporal bone.

A

Temporomandibular Joint

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46
Q

What is

The upper jawbone that forms the floor of the orbits (eye sockets).

A

Maxilla

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47
Q

What is

The lower jawbone that articulates with the temporal bone at the temporomandibular joint.

A

Mandible

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48
Q

What is

The rounded projection of the mandible that forms the temporomandibular joint.

A

Mandibular Condyle

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49
Q

What is

Cheekbones that contribute to the zygomatic arch.

A

Zygomatic Bones

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50
Q

What is

Joints where articulating bones are separated by a fluid-containing joint cavity, allowing substantial freedom of movement.

A

Synovial Joints

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51
Q

What is

Immovable joints in the skull where bones dovetail with each other, held together by ossified fibrous connective tissue.

A

Sutures

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52
Q

Joint formed between the occipital condyles and the first cervical vertebra (atlas), allowing flexion and extension of the neck.

A

Atlanto-Occipital Joint

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53
Q

The series of vertebrae extending from the skull to the coccyx, enclosing the spinal cord.

A

Vertebral Column

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54
Q

Individual bones making up the vertebral column, consisting of a vertebral body, vertebral arch, and processes.

A

Vertebrae

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55
Q

The seven vertebrae of the neck region, with C1 known as the atlas and C2 as the axis.

A

Cervical Vertebrae

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56
Q

The twelve vertebrae of the chest region.

A

Thoracic Vertebrae

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57
Q

The five vertebrae of the lower back.

A

Lumbar Vertebrae

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58
Q

The five fused vertebrae that make up the sacrum, at the base of the spine.

A

Sacral Vertebrae

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59
Q

The four fused vertebrae that make up the coccyx, at the very base of the spine.

A

Coccygeal Vertebrae

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60
Q

The cylindrical, weight-bearing part of a vertebra.

A

Vertebral Body

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61
Q

The opening in each vertebra that forms the vertebral canal through which the spinal cord passes.

A

Vertebral Foramen

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62
Q

The bony projection off the posterior (back) part of each vertebra.

A

Spinous Process

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63
Q

The bony projection off the left and right sides of each vertebra.

A

Transverse Process

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64
Q

Flexible fibrocartilage pads with gelatinous centers that separate and cushion the vertebrae.

A

Intervertebral Discs

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65
Q

The first cervical vertebra (C1), which supports the skull and allows nodding motion (“yes” movement).

A

Atlas

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66
Q
A
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67
Q

What bone forms the base of the skull?

A

The occipital bone.

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68
Q

Where is the mastoid process located?

A

Behind the ear, part of the temporal bone.

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69
Q

What is the significance of the foramen magnum?

A

It allows the spinal cord to pass into the skull.

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70
Q

Which cervical vertebrae is known as the atlas?

A

C1 vertebra.

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71
Q

What type of joint is the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

A condyloid joint.

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72
Q

Which joint allows for rotation of the head?

A

The atlantoaxial joint between C1 and C2 vertebrae.

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73
Q

What type of joint connects the ribs to the thoracic vertebrae?

A

The costovertebral joints, which are synovial joints.

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74
Q

Which muscle is responsible for elevating the shoulders?

A

The trapezius muscle.

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75
Q

What muscle group is primarily involved in neck flexion?

A

The sternocleidomastoid muscles.

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76
Q

Which muscle assists in the lateral flexion of the trunk?

A

The quadratus lumborum.

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77
Q

What type of muscle contraction occurs during a sit-up?

A

Concentric contraction of the abdominal muscles.

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78
Q

During head rotation, which muscle is mainly engaged?

A

The sternocleidomastoid muscle.

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79
Q

What is the primary action of the erector spinae muscles?

A

Extension of the vertebral column.

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80
Q

Define the terms origin and insertion.

A

Origin: The origin is the fixed attachment point of the muscle, usually located on the bone that remains stationary during muscle contraction.

Insertion: The insertion is the movable attachment point of the muscle, typically on the bone that moves when the muscle contracts.

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81
Q

What is Flexion?

A

Bending movement that reduces the angle at a joint, e.g., bending the knee from a straight to angled position.

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82
Q

What is extension?

A

Reverse of flexion, i.e., a movement which increases the angle between bones - ‘straightening’.

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83
Q

What is Abduction?

A

Movement of a bone away from the midline, e.g., raising an arm to the side. Also used to describe spreading apart of fingers and toes.

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84
Q

What is Adduction?

A

Movement of a bone towards the midline,

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85
Q

What is Circumduction?

A

As the bone or limb moves, it describes a cone while its end describes a circle, e.g., stretching the arm out straight and making a circular movement from the shoulder.

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86
Q

What is Rotation?

A

Turning of a bone along its own long axis e.g., in medial rotation of the thigh, the femur’s anterior surface moves towards the midline.

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87
Q

What is Supination?

A

Movement of the forearm so the palm faces forwards or upwards and the radius and ulna are parallel.

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88
Q

What is Pronation?

A

Reverse of supination – the radius crosses over the ulna and the palm faces backwards or downwards.

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89
Q

What is Dorsiflexion?

A

Lifting the foot at the ankle (flexion of the ankle).

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90
Q

What is Plantarflexion?

A

Pushing the foot downwards to point the toes (extension of the ankle).

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91
Q

What is Inversion?

A

The sole of the foot is turned medially.

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92
Q

What is Eversion?

A

The sole of the foot is turned laterally.

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93
Q

What is Protraction/Retraction?

A

The movement of a bone, forwards and backwards, in the same horizontal plane, e.g., moving the mandible forwards (protraction) or backwards (retraction).

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94
Q

What is Elevation/Depression?

A

Up-and-down movements, e.g., of the mandible in chewing or raising and lowering of the scapulae in shrugging shoulders.

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95
Q

Which bones make up the axial skeleton?

A

The skull, vertebrae, ribs, and sternum.

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96
Q

What is the primary function of the axial skeleton?

A

To provide support and protection for the brain, spinal cord, and thoracic organs.

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97
Q

Which bone forms the forehead and part of the eye sockets?

A

The frontal bone.

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98
Q

What feature is contained within the frontal bone to reduce the weight of the skull?

A

Air-filled sinuses.

99
Q

Which bones form the sides and roof of the skull?

A

The parietal bones.

100
Q

Which bone forms the back of the skull and part of its base?

A

The occipital bone.

101
Q

What is the function of the foramen magnum?

A

It allows the passage of the spinal cord into the skull.

102
Q

What are the occipital condyles, and what is their function?

A

They are structures that articulate with the first cervical vertebra (atlas).

103
Q

Which bone contains the external acoustic meatus?

A

The temporal bone.

104
Q

What is the mastoid process, and where is it located?

A

A bony prominence located behind the ear on the temporal bone.

105
Q

Which joint is formed by the articulation between the temporal bone and the mandible?

A

The temporomandibular joint.

106
Q

What forms the zygomatic arch?

A

The joining of processes from the temporal and zygomatic bones.

107
Q

Where can you palpate the frontal bone on your body?

A

On your forehead.

108
Q

Which part of your head corresponds to the parietal bones?

A

The sides and roof of your skull.

109
Q

How can you locate the occipital bone on your own body?

A

By feeling the back of your skull.

110
Q

Where can you find the external acoustic meatus on yourself?

A

Just behind your ear canal.

111
Q

How can you locate the mastoid process on your body?

A

By palpating the bony area behind your ear.

112
Q

Where is the temporomandibular joint located?

A

Just in front of the ear, where the mandible meets the temporal bone.

113
Q

How can you identify the zygomatic arch on your face?

A

By feeling the bony ridge extending from the cheek towards the ear.

114
Q

Which bone forms the upper jaw?

A

The maxilla.

115
Q

What part of the maxilla forms the floor of the orbits?

A

The upper part of the maxilla.

116
Q

Which bone forms the lower jaw?

A

The mandible.

117
Q

What is the name of the process on the mandible that articulates with the temporal bone?

A

The mandibular condyle (or condylar process).

118
Q

What joint is formed by the mandibular condyle and the temporal bone?

A

The temporomandibular joint (TMJ).

119
Q

Which bones form the cheekbones?

A

The zygomatic bones.

120
Q

What forms the zygomatic arch?

A

A process of the zygomatic bone and a process of the temporal bone.

121
Q

Where can you palpate the maxilla on your face?

A

The area around the upper jaw and below the nose.

122
Q

How can you identify the mandible on your face?

A

By feeling the lower jaw.

123
Q

Where can you feel the zygomatic bones on your face?

A

Along the upper part of your cheeks.

124
Q

How can you locate the mandibular condyle on your face?

A

By feeling just in front of your ear while opening and closing your mouth.

125
Q

What type of joint is the temporomandibular joint?

A

A synovial joint.

126
Q

What type of movement occurs at the temporomandibular joint?

A

Elevation and depression (up and down), side to side, and retraction and protraction.

127
Q

Which joint is known as the “YES” joint?

A

The atlanto-occipital joint.

128
Q

What movements are allowed at the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

Flexion and extension of the neck.

129
Q

What are sutures in the adult skull?

A

Immovable joints where the margins of skull bones are interlocked by ossified fibrous connective tissue.

130
Q

Name the major sutures of the adult skull.

A

Coronal, sagittal, lambdoid, and squamous sutures.

131
Q

What is the purpose of fontanelles in an infant’s skull?

A

To allow the edges of skull bones to glide over each other during birth and to accommodate brain growth.

132
Q

Where can you find the coronal suture on the skull?

A

Between the frontal and parietal bones.

133
Q

Which suture is found between the parietal bones?

A

The sagittal suture.

134
Q

Where is the lambdoid suture located on the skull?

A

Between the parietal bones and the occipital bone.

135
Q

What is the location of the squamous suture?

A

Between the parietal bones and the temporal bones.

136
Q
A
137
Q
A
138
Q
A
139
Q
A
140
Q
A
141
Q

What does the vertebral column consist of?

A

The vertebral column consists of bony vertebrae separated by flexible intervertebral discs.

142
Q

How many types of vertebrae are there in the vertebral column?

A

There are five types: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx.

143
Q

What are the key features of a typical vertebra?

A

A typical vertebra has a cylindrical vertebral body, a vertebral arch forming a vertebral foramen, a spinous process projecting posteriorly, and two transverse processes projecting laterally.

144
Q

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

A

There are 7 cervical vertebrae.

145
Q

What are the names of the first two cervical vertebrae?

A

The first cervical vertebra is the atlas (C1), and the second is the axis (C2).

146
Q

How many thoracic vertebrae are there?

A

There are 12 thoracic vertebrae.

147
Q

How many lumbar vertebrae are present in the vertebral column?

A

There are 5 lumbar vertebrae.

148
Q

How many vertebrae make up the sacrum?

A

There are 5 sacral vertebrae that fuse to form the sacrum.

149
Q

How many coccygeal vertebrae are there?

A

There are 4 coccygeal vertebrae that fuse to form the coccyx.

150
Q

What is the function of the vertebral foramen?

A

The vertebral foramen forms the vertebral canal through which the spinal cord passes.

151
Q

What is the main function of the intervertebral discs?

A

Intervertebral discs provide flexibility and act as shock absorbers between vertebrae.

152
Q

What type of joint is the atlanto-axis joint?

A

The atlanto-axis joint is a pivot joint.

153
Q

What movements can occur in the vertebral column?

A

The vertebral column can flex, extend, bend laterally, and rotate.

154
Q

What is the spinous process and where is it located on a vertebra?

A

The spinous process is a projection that extends posteriorly from the vertebral arch.

155
Q

Where is the seventh cervical vertebra’s spinous process most prominent?

A

It is most prominent at the base of the neck and is easily located when the neck is flexed.

156
Q

How do you identify the vertebral body on an articulated skeleton?

A

The vertebral body is the cylindrical, anterior part of the vertebra.

157
Q

What is the purpose of the transverse processes on a vertebra?

A

The transverse processes project laterally and serve as attachment points for muscles and ligaments.

158
Q

What kind of movement occurs at the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

The atlanto-occipital joint allows for flexion and extension of the neck (nodding motion).

159
Q

How do the sizes of the vertebral bodies change along the vertebral column?

A

The size of the vertebral body increases from cervical to lumbar vertebrae to support more weight.

160
Q

What are intervertebral discs composed of?

A

Intervertebral discs are composed of flexible fibrocartilage with a gelatinous center.

161
Q
A
162
Q
A
163
Q

What is the sternum and where is it located?

A

The sternum is a long, flat bone located down the front of the chest or thorax under the skin.

164
Q

How many parts make up the sternum?

A

The sternum consists of three parts: the manubrium, the body, and the xiphoid process.

165
Q

Where is the manubrium located in relation to the vertebrae?

A

The superior border of the manubrium is at the level of the second thoracic vertebra.

166
Q

How does the sternum articulate with the clavicles?

A

The superior end of the sternum supports the clavicles (collarbones).

167
Q

How many ribs are there on each side of the body?

A

There are 12 ribs on each side.

168
Q

With which vertebrae do the ribs articulate posteriorly?

A

The ribs articulate with the 12 thoracic vertebrae posteriorly.

169
Q

How do the first 7 ribs connect to the sternum?

A

The first 7 ribs connect directly to the sternum via their costal cartilages.

170
Q

What is the connection of ribs 8, 9, and 10 to the sternum?

A

Ribs 8, 9, and 10 connect indirectly to the sternum through costal cartilages.

171
Q

What about ribs 11 and 12?

A

Ribs 11 and 12 do not connect to the sternum and end in the abdominal wall muscles.

172
Q

Where can the sternum be palpated on the body?

A

The sternum can be palpated along its length down the front of the chest.

173
Q

What is the jugular notch and where is it located?

A

The jugular notch, or suprasternal notch, is at the superior border of the manubrium and the medial ends of the clavicles.

174
Q

What is the sternal angle and where is it found?

A

The sternal angle (manubriosternal joint or Angle of Louis) is a ridge at the junction of the manubrium and the body of the sternum.

175
Q

What is the significance of the sternal angle?

A

The sternal angle allows the sternal body to move anteriorly during inhalation.

176
Q

How can you locate the costal cartilage of the first rib?

A

The costal cartilage of the first rib is deep to the medial end of the clavicle.

177
Q

Where does the second costal cartilage join the sternum?

A

The second costal cartilage joins the sternum at the level of the manubriosternal joint.

178
Q

How can you palpate the costal margin?

A

The costal margin can be palpated from the xiphoid process laterally to the bone of the tenth rib.

179
Q

What are intercostal spaces?

A

Intercostal spaces are the gaps between the ribs.

180
Q

How does rib movement affect the ribcage?

A

Rib movement can alter the shape and size of the ribcage.

181
Q
A
182
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the orbicularis oculi muscle?

A

Origin: Medial margin of the orbit
Insertion: Skin of the eyelid

183
Q

What is the primary action of the orbicularis oculi muscle?

A

Action: Closes the eyes

184
Q

Where does the orbicularis oris muscle originate and insert?

A

Origin: Maxilla and mandible
Insertion: Skin at the corner of the mouth

185
Q

What movement does the orbicularis oris muscle produce?

A

Action: Closes the lips

186
Q

What are the origin and insertion points of the buccinator muscle?

A

Origin: Maxilla and mandible
Insertion: Fibres of the orbicularis oris

187
Q

What is the function of the buccinator muscle?

A

Action: Compresses the cheek and allows sucking

188
Q

Where does the masseter muscle originate and insert?

A

Origin: Zygomatic arch and zygomatic bone
Insertion: Mandible

189
Q

What is the action of the masseter muscle?

A

Action: Elevates the mandible

190
Q

What are the origin and insertion points of the temporalis muscle?

A

Origin: Temporal bone
Insertion: Mandible

191
Q

What movements does the temporalis muscle perform?

A

Action: Elevates and retracts the mandible

192
Q

Where does the sternocleidomastoid muscle originate?

A

Origin: Sternum and sternal end of the clavicle

193
Q

What is the insertion point of the sternocleidomastoid muscle?

A

Insertion: Mastoid process of the temporal bone

194
Q

What happens when both left and right sternocleidomastoid muscles contract?

A

Action: The neck flexes

195
Q

What movement does the sternocleidomastoid muscle produce when only the left muscle contracts?

A

Action: The head rotates to the right

196
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the trapezius muscle?

A

Origins:
Base of the skull (occipital bone)
Neck bones (cervical vertebrae C1-C7)
Upper back bones (thoracic vertebrae T1-T12)
Insertions:
Collarbone (lateral third of the clavicle)
Shoulder blade (acromion and spine of the scapula)

197
Q

What is the primary action of the trapezius muscle?

A

Action: Extends the neck when the scapula is fixed

198
Q

How do you identify the masseter muscle on a model or a person?

A

Identification: Located at the side of the jaw, running from the zygomatic arch to the mandible

199
Q

How can you locate the temporalis muscle on a person?

A

Identification: Found on the side of the head, above the ear, and extends towards the mandible

200
Q

How do you locate the sternocleidomastoid muscle on yourself?

A

Identification: Located along the side of the neck, from the sternum and clavicle to the mastoid process

201
Q

Where can you palpate the trapezius muscle?

A

Identification: On the upper back and neck, from the occipital bone and cervical and thoracic vertebrae to the clavicle and scapula

202
Q
A
203
Q

How many pairs of intercostal muscles are there?

A

11 pairs

204
Q

What are the two layers of intercostal muscles?

A

External and internal

205
Q

Which direction do the external intercostal muscles run?

A

Downward and anteriorly

206
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the external intercostal muscles?

A

Origin: Inferior border of the rib above
Insertion: Superior border of the rib below

207
Q

What happens when the external intercostal muscles contract?

A

The ribs are elevated, increasing the volume of the thorax, which is important for inspiration

208
Q

How can you demonstrate the action of the external intercostal muscles?

A

Breathe in deeply

209
Q

Which direction do the internal intercostal muscles run?

A

Downward and posteriorly

210
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the internal intercostal muscles?

A

Origin: Superior border of the rib below
Insertion: Inferior border of the rib above

211
Q

What happens when the internal intercostal muscles contract?

A

The ribs are depressed, reducing the volume of the thorax, which is important for forced expiration

212
Q

How can you demonstrate the action of the internal intercostal muscles?

A

Breathe out hard

213
Q
A
214
Q

What does the diaphragm separate?

A

The thoracic and abdominal cavities

215
Q

What is the origin of the diaphragm?

A

Xiphoid process, lower ribs, and the first lumbar vertebra

216
Q

What is the insertion of the diaphragm?

A

A central tendon

217
Q

Which structures pass through the diaphragm?

A

The aorta, oesophagus, and inferior vena cava

218
Q

What happens to the diaphragm when you breathe in?

A

It contracts and flattens, lowering the diaphragm

219
Q

What is the effect of diaphragm contraction on the thoracic cavity?

A

It increases the volume of the thorax and reduces pressure in and around the lungs

220
Q

What does the increase in thoracic volume and reduction in pressure lead to?

A

Air is drawn into the lungs

221
Q

What additional effect does diaphragm contraction have on intra-abdominal pressure?

A

It increases intra-abdominal pressure, which is important for elimination and childbirth

222
Q

Where is the rectus abdominis muscle attached?

A

Superiorly to the sternum and costal cartilages; inferiorly to the pubic bone

223
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the rectus abdominis?

A

Origin: Superior surface of the pubic bone
Insertion: Xiphoid process of the sternum and costal cartilage of ribs 5-7

224
Q

What is the linea alba?

A

A tendinous seam connecting the right and left rectus abdominis muscles

225
Q

What happens when the rectus abdominis contracts?

A

The vertebral column and trunk are flexed

226
Q

How can you check the action of the rectus abdominis?

A

By attempting a sit-up

227
Q

What happens if you attempt a sit-up while your partner blocks your movement?

A

The rectus abdominis cannot shorten against the external resistance, leading to increased tension in the muscle, which can be palpated

228
Q
A
229
Q

Matthew gets a blow to the head that fractures the left superior lateral surface of his
cranium. Identify which bone has been fractured

A

Left parietal bone

230
Q

When the diaphragm contracts, it moves…

A

inferiorly/down/flattens.

231
Q

Air is drawn into the lungs when these two muscles (or sets of muscles) contract:

A

(i) diaphragm
(ii) external intercostal

232
Q

When performing a “sit-up” the action of the rectus abdominis is __________ of the trunk.

A

When performing a “sit-up” the action of the rectus abdominis is flexion of the trunk.

233
Q

The ribs articulate posteriorly with the _________ vertebrae.

A

The ribs articulate posteriorly with the thoracic vertebrae.

234
Q

The first two cervical vertebrae are called:

A

(i) atlas
(ii) axis

235
Q

The joint between C1 and the occipital condyles is called the…

A

atlanto-occipital.

236
Q

The upper jaw bone is called the…

A

maxilla

237
Q

The three parts of the sternum are called:

A

(i) manubrium
(ii) body
(iii) xiphoid process

238
Q

The joint between the manubrium and body of the sternum is called the…

A

manubriosternal joint or sternal angle or Angle of Louis

239
Q

In addition to the internal intercostal muscles, which other muscle is involved in forced expiration?

A

Abdominal muscles, e.g. rectus abdominis

240
Q

What is the difference between true, false, and floating ribs?

A

True ribs = ribs 1-7, connect directly to the sternum by costal cartilage.
False ribs = ribs 8-10, connect indirectly to the sternum as the costal cartilage of ribs 8-10
fuses with the costal cartilage of rib 7.
Floating ribs = do not connect to the sternum

241
Q

As we look down the vertebral column, the vertebral bodies and intervertebral discs get increasingly larger. What is the functional significance of this increase in size?

A

Weight bearing function. As the vertebral bodies transfer body weight to the hips and lower limbs, they must increase in size to support the increase in weight. The 5 lumbar vertebrae have the largest and thickest vertebral bodies as they bear most of the weight, supporting the weight of the head, neck, upper limbs and trunk.

242
Q

Name the muscles most involved in winking

A

Orbicularis oculi

243
Q

Name the muscles most involved in clenching your jaw

A

Masseter

244
Q

Name the muscles most involved in drinking through a straw

A

Orbicularis oris (pursing the lips) & Buccinator (sucking)

#NUR1114 Bioscience (12 decks)

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