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PQ 15 Flashcards

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1
Q

CHOOSE THE CORRECT STATEMENT:
1.
a) In the case of singly-cyst bovine cysticercosis, the non-affected parts may be declared fit for human consumption after cold treatment.
b) In the case of singly-cyst bovine cysticercosis, the non-affected parts are fit for human consumption

A

a) In the case of singly-cyst bovine cysticercosis, the non-affected parts may be declared fit for human consumption after cold treatment.

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2
Q

2.

a) In the event of any food safety defect, the food must be withdrawn from the market.
b) In the event of any food quality defect, the food must be withdrawn from the market.

A

a) In the event of any food safety defect, the food must be withdrawn from the market.

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3
Q
  1. What is NOT the reason of adding antioxidants to red meat products:
    a) Stabilising the colour.
    b) Producing medical foodstuffs.
A

b) Producing medical foodstuffs.

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4
Q
  1. Which establishment requires approval?
    a) Egg packing cantre.
    b) Laying hen farm
A

)Egg packing cantre.

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5
Q

Which substance can be measured in the fishery product if there is any doubt for its freshness?

a) Total volatile basic nitrogen.
b) Histamine

A

Total volatile basic nitrogen.

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6
Q
  1. What is the special feature of noble moulds that makes them utilizable to food industry?
    a) They are obligate anaerobic.
    b) They do not produce mycotoxins
A

b) They do not produce mycotoxins

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7
Q

a) In the case of foot and mouth disease, the meat of pigs deriving from a protection zone and slaughtered in an immediate way may be used for production of animal feed only.
b) In the case of foot and mouth disease, the meat of pigs deriving from a protection zone and slaughtered in an immediate way can be used for human consumption, however only after heat treatment

A

b) In the case of foot and mouth disease, the meat of pigs deriving from a protection zone and slaughtered in an immediate way can be used for human consumption, however only after heat treatment

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8
Q
  1. What is the core temperature which should be reached by the heat treatment of frankfurters?
    a) The core temperature should be minimum 70C.
    b) The core temperature should be minimum 90C.
A

a) The core temperature should be minimum 70C.

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9
Q

a) Control of personal hygiene is a main element of the official control of good hygiene practice (GHP).
b) Control of personal hygiene is a main element of the official control of the HACCP system

A

a) Control of personal hygiene is a main element of the official control of good hygiene practice (GHP).

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10
Q
  1. What is NOT a part of inspection of the health standards of live bivalves:
    a) Cannot contain Salmonella spp. in 25 g of sample (0/25g).
    b) Cannot contain Histamine
A

b) Cannot contain Histamine

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11
Q
  1. What is NOT a part of inspection of the health standards of live bivalves:
    a) Cannot contain Salmonella spp. in 25 g of sample (0/25g).
    b) Cannot contain Histamine
A

b) Cannot contain Histamine

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12
Q

a) In the event of a non-compliance with a food safety criterion laid down in the microbiological regulation of the EU in force, the food must not be placed on the market.
b) In the event of a non-compliance with a food safety criterion or a process hygiene criterion laid down in the microbiological regulation of the EU in force, the food must not be placed on the market.

A

a) In the event of a non-compliance with a food safety criterion laid down in the microbiological regulation of the EU in force, the food must not be placed on the market.

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13
Q
  1. The inhibition of growth of which bacteria is the main aim of curing?
    a) Staphylococcus aureus.
    b) Clostridium botulinum
A

b) Clostridium botulinum

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14
Q
  1. TRUE OR FALSE: the hairline cracked eggs are fit for human consumption.
    a) True.
    b) False
A

true

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15
Q

19.

a) Salmonella positive flocks infected with S. enteritidis must not be slaughtered for human consumption.
b) Salmonella positive flocks infected with S. enteritidis must be slaughtered separately.

A

b) Salmonella positive flocks infected with S. enteritidis must be slaughtered separately.

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16
Q

20.

a) The EU regulation on official food control in force defines both the general principles and the official control regulations that shall perform the controls.
b) It is each member states competence to define their official control organizaitons.

A

b) It is each member states competence to define their official control organizaitons.

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17
Q

What is the advantage of using natural casing?

a) It is permeable for smoke and water vapour.
b) Microbiological contamination is negligible

A

a) It is permeable for smoke and water vapour.

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18
Q

a) Complimentary bacteriological meat inspection aims at detecting conditions associated with bacterial disseminations of local infections occurred in the slaughtered animal.
b) Complementary bacteriological meat inspection aims at detecting cross contamination of carcasses occurred during the slaughter

A

a) Complimentary bacteriological meat inspection aims at detecting conditions associated with bacterial disseminations of local infections occurred in the slaughtered animal.

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19
Q

24.

a) Trueperella pyogenes causing bacterial dissemination in pigs in a zoonotic bacterium.
b) Trueperella pyogenes causing bacterial dissemination in pigs has no public health significance.

A

b) Trueperella pyogenes causing bacterial dissemination in pigs has no public health significance.

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20
Q

a) Meat products intended for human consumption may only be manufactured in registered establishments.
b) Meat products intended for human consumption may only be manufactured in approved establishments

A

b) Meat products intended for human consumption may only be manufactured in approved establishments

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21
Q

a) If chronic erysipelas is identified at the meat inspection, the carcass can be declared fit for human consumption after heat treatment.
b) If chronic erysipelas is identified at the meat inspection, the carcass must be declared unfit for human consumption.

A

b) If chronic erysipelas is identified at the meat inspection, the carcass must be declared unfit for human consumption.

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22
Q
  1. What is the meaning of meat product?
    a) It is determined according to the cut surface of the product, which has no longer the characteristics of fresh meat.
    b) It is determined according to the production process of the product, which refers to subsequent change of texture compared to raw meat.
A

a) It is determined according to the cut surface of the product, which has no longer the characteristics of fresh meat.

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23
Q

a) Clostridium botulinum spores occuring in the honey may induce a production of botulinum toxin in the honey.
b) Clostridium botulinum spores occuring in the honey will never germinate in it

A

b) Clostridium botulinum spores occuring in the honey will never germinate in it

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24
Q

a) In the case of dry pastas, contamination with Listeria monocytogenes may present a significant food saftey risk.
b) In the case of dry pastas, contamination with Staphylococcus aureus may present a significant food saftey risk.

A

b) In the case of dry pastas, contamination with Staphylococcus aureus may present a significant food saftey risk.

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25
Q

a) The OIE listed diseases are notifiable human diseases.

b) The OIE listed diseases are notifiable animal diseases

A

b) The OIE listed diseases are notifiable animal diseases

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26
Q

a) General rules of the official food control are included in the food law of EU.
b) General rules of the official food control are included in a separate EU regulation.

A

a) General rules of the official food control are included in the food law of EU.

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27
Q

a) In the event of any labeling error, the food must be withdrawn from the market.
b) Withdrawal the food from the market due to a labeling error is conceivable in justifiable cases (e.g in case of food safety deficiencies) only

A

b) Withdrawal the food from the market due to a labeling error is conceivable in justifiable cases (e.g in case of food safety deficiencies) only

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28
Q
  1. What is NOT the aim of salting?
    a) taste enhancement.
    b) inhibiting rancidification.
A

b) inhibiting rancidification.

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29
Q
  1. What is the pH limit of the enterotoxin production Staphylococcus aureus?
    a) 4.3
    b) 5.3
A

b) 5.3

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30
Q
  1. Which microbes must be tested to evaluate the food safety of egg products?
    a) Salmonella spp
    b) Enterobacteriaceae
A

a) Salmonella spp

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31
Q

a) Staphylococcus aureus bacterium causing bacterial dissemination in pigs may also cause disease in humans when getting in the GI tract with the meat.
b) Staphylococcus aureus bacterium causing bacterial dissemination in pigs will not cause any disease in humans when getting in the GI tract with the meat

A

a) Staphylococcus aureus bacterium causing bacterial dissemination in pigs may also cause disease in humans when getting in the GI tract with the meat.

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32
Q
  1. True or False: “The eggs with blood spots are unfit for human consumption”.
    a) True
    b) False
A

with blood spots they are fit after heat treatment so not sure

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33
Q

a) In case of dry pastas, contamination with Salmonella bacteria may present a significant food safety risk.
b) In case of dry pastas, contamination with Campylobacter bacteria may present a significant food safety risk.

A

a) In case of dry pastas, contamination with Salmonella bacteria may present a significant food safety risk.

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34
Q

a) The OIE is the World Organisation for Human Health.

b) The OIE is the World Organisation for Animal Health

A

b) The OIE is the World Organisation for Animal Health

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35
Q

a) Core temperature of raw pig meat intended for production of minced meat must not exceed +4C in the preparation room.
b) Core temperature of raw pig meat intended for production of minced meat must not exceed +7C in the preparation room

A

b) Core temperature of raw pig meat intended for production of minced meat must not exceed +7*C in the preparation room

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36
Q

a) All food establishments shall be approved by the competent authorities.
b) Food establishments manufacturing foods of animal origin under the scope of Regulation 853/2004 EC shall be approved by the competent authorities.

A

b) Food establishments manufacturing foods of animal origin under the scope of Regulation 853/2004 EC shall be approved by the competent authorities.

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37
Q
  1. What is NOT a microbial hazard in case of ripening of raw fermented sausage?
    a) relative low pH of the product due to lactic acid production.
    b) relative high temperature at the beginning of ripening
A

a) relative low pH of the product due to lactic acid production.

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38
Q
  1. Which health standard is NOT referred to in the live bivalves?
    a) presence and amount of the intravalvular fluid.
    b) determination of the total volatile basic nitrogen.
A

b) determination of the total volatile basic nitrogen.

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39
Q
  1. Which salt is the most important component of curing?
    a) Sodium chloride.
    b) Sodium nitrite.
A

b) Sodium nitrite.

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40
Q
  1. Why is ice added during the preparation of meat batter?
    a) it is needed to keep the meat batter cold during cutting.
    b) it is only needed for the juiciness of the product.
A

a) it is needed to keep the meat batter cold during cutting.

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41
Q

a) In the event of a non-compliance with a process hygiene criterion laid down in the microbial regulation of the EU in force, the food must not be placed on the market.
b) In the event of a non-compliance with a process hygiene criterion laid down in the microbial regulation of the EU in force, the food may be placed on the market

A

b) In the event of a non-compliance with a process hygiene criterion laid down in the microbial regulation of the EU in force, the food may be placed on the market

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42
Q

a) Salmonella-positive flocks infected with S.Typhimurium must not be slaughtered for human consumption.
b) Salmonella-positive flocks infected with S.Typhimurium must be slaughtered separately

A

b) Salmonella-positive flocks infected with S.Typhimurium must be slaughtered separately

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43
Q

a) In Hungary, the official food control is performed by more food control bodies with shared responsibilities.
b) In Ireland, the official food control is performed by more food control bodies with shared responsibilities

A

b) In Ireland, the official food control is performed by more food control bodies with shared responsibilities

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44
Q

a) Control of water quality is a main element of the official control of good hygiene practice (GHP).
b) Control of personal hygiene is a main element of the official control of the HACCP system

A

a) Control of water quality is a main element of the official control of good hygiene practice (GHP).

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45
Q
  1. What is the minimal meat content level of the basic red meat products (e.g Lyoner)?
    a) 0.66
    b) 0.51
A

b) 0.51

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46
Q

a) In infants, Clostridium botulinum spores occurring in the honey may cause toxico-infection.
b) In infants, germination of Clostridium botulinum spores occurring in the honey will be impeded by the intestinal flora.

A

a) In infants, Clostridium botulinum spores occurring in the honey may cause toxico-infection.

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47
Q

a) The pH of the egg white is alkaline.

b) The pH of the egg white is acidic

A

a) The pH of the egg white is alkaline.

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48
Q

a) Animals suspected of being diseased with anthrax shall be killed bloodlessly.
b) Animals suspected of being diseased in anthrax must be vaccinated

A

b) Animals suspected of being diseased in anthrax must be vaccinated

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49
Q
  1. Which investigation is the part of the official control of the fishery products?
    a) presence of the poisonous fish and biotoxins in the fish.
    b) presence of the amount of toxin-producing planktons in the water of the production area.
A

a) presence of the poisonous fish and biotoxins in the fish.

50
Q

a) Cured-raw meat products prepared by slow curing can be stored at room temp.
b) Cured-raw meat products prepared by slow curing shall be stored chilled.

A

a) Cured-raw meat products prepared by slow curing can be stored at room temp.

51
Q
  1. Which processes can be performed in the clean area?
    a. Heading
    b. Filiting
    c. Gutting
    d. Cutting
A

b. Filiting

d. Cutting

52
Q
  1. What is the maximum allowable temp for ruminant meat?
    a. 7 C for the carcass
    b. 4 C for the carcass
    c. 4 C the offal
    d. 3 C for offal
A

a. 7 C for the carcas

d. 3 C for offal

53
Q

Which parts of the body can be removed from the pig before the meat inspection?

a. Mandibula
b. Ear roots
c. Tail
d. Eyes

A

b. Ear roots

. Eyes

54
Q
  1. What conditions must animal transport meet?
    a. Ad libitum drinking water must be provided for the animals
    b. Adequate ventilation
    c. Ensuring a species- specific posture
    d. Adequate feed supply
A

b. Adequate ventilation

c. Ensuring a species- specific posture

55
Q
  1. What is characteristics for calpains?
    a. They have a role in ageing of poultry meat
    b. They can be found in lysosomes
    c. they catalyse the degradation of interstitial tissue proteins
    d. they particularly catalyse the degradation of actomyosin complex
A

a. They have a role in ageing of poultry meat

c. they catalyse the degradation of interstitial tissue proteins

56
Q

what pathogens are part of the food safety criteria for live marine molluscs

a. L. monocytogenes
b. Salmonella
c. E. coli
d. Coagulase- positive staphylococcus

A

b. Salmonella

c. E. coli

57
Q
  1. Which of these abnormalities are fit for Human consumption?
    a. DFD meat ageing
    b. Insufficient bleeding
    c. Emaciated animals
    d. Lipochromatosis
A

a. DFD meat ageing

d. Lipochromatosis

58
Q
  1. Which of these are NOT mandatory on food label?
    a. Name of producer
    b. Nutritional claim
    c. Alcohol content in case of bakery products
    d. Weight of product
A

b. Nutritional claim

c. Alcohol content in case of bakery products

59
Q
  1. What is the difference between slow and fast curing?
    a. The main difference is in processing, as by slow curing the product is made
    with salt, nitrites or nitrates for preservation, colour and taste development.
    Therefore meat parts are merged or surface treated with (pickling) salts and
    ripened
    b. The main difference is in processing, as by slow curing the product is made
    with salt, nitrites and nitrates and other additives to help color and taste
    development. Curing solution is injected and/or added under vacuum to the
    tissues or surface treated with (pickling) salts and ripened
    c. After slow curing the cured meat part can be ripened even for 1 year, which
    is not typical for fast curing
    d. Foil-packaged ham and pressed ham is made with slow curing and cannot
    be produced by fats curing
A

a. The main difference is in processing, as by slow curing the product is made
with salt, nitrites or nitrates for preservation, colour and taste development.
Therefore meat parts are merged or surface treated with (pickling) salts and
ripened
c. After slow curing the cured meat part can be ripened even for 1 year, which
is not typical for fast curing

60
Q
  1. What can we use to differentiate between icterus and carotenosis?
    a. With the Loeffer’s test
    b. By checking the solubility of the yellow pigment
    c. Looking for signs of disease, malaise in the live animal
    d. With cooking test
A

b. By checking the solubility of the yellow pigment

c. Looking for signs of disease, malaise in the live animal

61
Q
  1. Which countries operate the RASFF system?
    a. EU member states
    b. The European countries
    c. Switzerland, Norway, Iceland and Liechtenstein
    d. Turkey, Israel, Moldavia
A

a. EU member states

c. Switzerland, Norway, Iceland and Liechtenstein

62
Q
  1. Which of the following statements are FALSE about the normal meat aging?
    a. The decreased pH is due to lactic acid
    b. The increased pH is due to ammonia
    c. It takes around 45 mins
    d. The final pH is well below 6
A

a. The decreased pH is due to lactic acid

d. The final pH is well below 6

63
Q
  1. The RASFF system contains alerts concerning safety of?
    a. Livestock
    b. Food industrial appliances
    c. Alcoholic beverages
    d. Food additives
A

c. Alcoholic beverages

d. Food additives

64
Q
  1. What are the notifiable diseases of fish?
    a. Spring viraemia of carp
    b. Viral haemorrhagic septicaemia of salmonids
    c. Ichthyophthirius multifiliis
    d. Bothriocephalosis
A

a. Spring viraemia of carp

b. Viral haemorrhagic septicaemia of salmonids

65
Q
  1. How warm water should be used during washing/ disinfection?
    a. Tool disinfection min 72 C
    b. Tool disinfection min 82 C
    c. Handwashing water min 37 C
    d. Handwashing water min 42 C
A

b. Tool disinfection min 82 C

d. Handwashing water min 42 C

66
Q
  1. In case of swine slaughter
    a. The rectum is ties off
    b. The oesophagus is tied off
    c. The rectum is closed by a polyethylene bag
    d. The oesophagus is closed by polyethylene bag
A

a. The rectum is ties off

c. The rectum is closed by a polyethylene bag

67
Q 
111. Which of the following organs should be palpated in all cases in the case of adult
bovine animals?
a. Spleen
b. Liver
c. Lungs
d. Mesenteric lymph nodes
A

c. Lungs

d. Mesenteric lymph nodes

68
Q 
114. Which of these abnormalities will make the whole carcass unfit for human
consumption?
a. PSE aging
b. Melanosis
c. Sexual odour
d. Young age < 7 days
A

c. Sexual odour

d. Young age < 7 days

69
Q

-

A

-

70
Q
  1. What forms of biotoxins can occur in fishery products?
    a. Paralytic shellfish poison (PSP)
    b. Vomiting shellfish poison (VSP)
    c. Fainting shellfish poison (FSP)
    d. Amnesic shellfish poison (ASP)
A

a. Paralytic shellfish poison (PSP)

d. Amnesic shellfish poison (ASP)

71
Q 
30. In the case of fishery products, what sampling is required in case of doubtful results or
organoleptic evaluation
a. Total volatile basic nitrogen (TVB-N
b. Total protein (TP)
c. Cadaverine level (CL)
d. Trimethyl-amin nitrogen (TMA-N)
A

a. Total volatile basic nitrogen (TVB-N

d. Trimethyl-amin nitrogen (TMA-N)

72
Q
  1. The meat stamp contains the:
    a. Approval number of the meat processing plant
    b. The abbreviation of the ‘European communities’
    c. The ISO code of the country of origin
    d. The passport number of the cattle
A

b. The abbreviation of the ‘European communities’

c. The ISO code of the country of origin

73
Q
  1. What are the characteristics of meat if the glycogen storage of the muscles was depleted?
    a. The pH remains high
    b. It is exsudative
    c. It is unfit for human consumption
    d. It is more suitable for bacterial growth
A

b. It is exsudative

c. It is unfit for human consumption

74
Q
  1. Which techniques can be used for ammonia detection?
    a. Reder test
    b. Nessler’s test
    c. Lead acetate test
    d. Eber’s test
A

b. Nessler’s test

d. Eber’s test

75
Q
  1. Which of the following techniques can be used to evaluate the water holding capacity?
    a. Eber’s test
    b. Filter paper method with Grau-Hamm device
    c. Warner- Bratzier shear force testc
    d. Measuring the dripping loss
A

b. Filter paper method with Grau-Hamm device

d. Measuring the dripping loss

76
Q
  1. Which of these nutrients is a voluntary information on the label of food product?
    a. Salt
    b. Fibre
    c. Protein
    d. Glucose
A

Salt, protein

77
Q
  1. What is characteristic to intelligent packaging?
    a. It gives information from the storage condition of food even before buying
    the product
    b. It is capable to show the actual temperature of the given product
    c. The consumer can only see it after opening the food packaging
    d. It is mainly used for bakery products to absorb moisture
A

a. It gives information from the storage condition of food even before buying
the product
b. It is capable to show the actual temperature of the given product

78
Q
  1. Food industrial wastes are not typified by the following
    a. Generally low water content
    b. Are generated at geographically scattered locations
    c. Contain quickly decomposing organic materials
    d. All can get back to the nature with the natural cycling of biomass
A

a. Generally low water content

d. All can get back to the nature with the natural cycling of biomass

79
Q
  1. Which of these are red meat products?
    a. Salami
    b. Lyoner
    c. Foil packaged ham
    d. Bologna-type sausages
A

b. Lyoner

d. Bologna-type sausages

80
Q
  1. Which statement is true?
    a. Due to maintaining the flesh of fish will become softer with characteristic
    taste
    b. Salting is not applied during the smoking
    c. The fish bodies are ripened for 1-2 years in the metal can in case of canned
    products
    d. The breaded marinating product is produced by cooking of fish
A

c. The fish bodies are ripened for 1-2 years in the metal can in case of canned products
d. The breaded marinating product is produced by cooking of fish

81
Q
  1. Where is the identification mark (meat stamp) for poultry and rabbits?
    a. In the case of poultry on the packaging
    b. In the case of poultry on the carcass
    c. In the case of rabbit on the packaging
    d. In the case of rabbit on the carcass
A

a. In the case of poultry on the packaging

c. In the case of rabbit on the packaging

82
Q
  1. During the inspection of adult cattle’s’ heads the ….. has to be incised/cut in every case
    a. Retropharyngeal lymph nodes
    b. Tongue
    c. Masseter muscles
    d. Parotid lymph nodes
A

a. Retropharyngeal lymph nodes

. Masseter muscles

83
Q 
47. In the case of pig slaughter, which pathogens should be tested during the microbiological
examination of slaughter hygiene?
a. Enterobacteriaceae
b. E. coli
c. Salmonella
d. L. monocytogenes
A

a. Enterobacteriaceae

c. Salmonella

84
Q

In which cases is the meat stamp not applied?

a. Before the arrival of the Trichinella results
b. Fit for human consumption carcass of a rabbit
c. Non generalised Trichinella infection
d. If the carcass of the slaughtered cattle contain SRM

A

b. Fit for human consumption carcass of a rabbi

d. If the carcass of the slaughtered cattle contain SRM

85
Q

The veterinarian may ban the slaughter until further measure if…..

a. The animals show signs of exhaustion
b. The animals come from a surveillance zone
c. The assessment of the health status of the animals requires further examination
d. The animals have been shown to carry a zoonotic pathogen

A

a. The animals show signs of exhaustion

c. The assessment of the health status of the animals requires further examination

86
Q
  1. What is characteristic for chemical composition?
    a. It has high biological value
    b. It is important source of vitamin E
    c. It has high fat content
    d. It has low carbohydrate content
A

a. It has high biological value

d. It has low carbohydrate content

87
Q
  1. What characteristics does an official test include for live fish
    a. Sex
    b. Viability (movement, respiration)
    c. Body length
    d. General health status
A

b. Viability (movement, respiration)

d. General health status

88
Q

What tests are required for official inspection of frozen fish

a. Floating probe
b. Cooking/frying test
c. Muscle parasites
d. Water binding capacity

A

b. Cooking/frying test

c. Muscle parasites

89
Q
  1. What is the histamine limit for fishery products?
    a. 100-200 mg/kg for general products
    b. 200-400 mg/kg for general products
    c. 100-200 mg/kg after enzymatic maturation
    d. 200-400 mg/kg after enzymatic maturation
A

a. 100-200 mg/kg for general products

d. 200-400 mg/kg after enzymatic maturation

90
Q
  1. In which cases is the oval mark mandatory?
    a. Sliced meat
    b. Chocolate
    c. Bakery products
    d. Fermented dairy products
A

a. Sliced meat

d. Fermented dairy products

91
Q
  1. What are the characteristics of grade ‘A’ eggs?
    a. It certifies that the egg is fit for human consumption without heat treatment
    b. It might be used for the manufacturing of egg products
    c. The yolk is slightly mobile
    d. It doesn’t have an air space
A

a. It certifies that the egg is fit for human consumption without heat treatment
b. It might be used for the manufacturing of egg products

92
Q 
60. Which of these processing steps are considered as critical control points (CCP) by
production of Bologna-type sausages?
a. Cutting, mixing, grinding
b. Shaping, stuffing
c. Smoking, cooking
d. Cold storage
A

c. Smoking, cooking

d. Cold storage

93
Q
  1. Typically, how are poultry placed in the transport vehicle
    a. Tied up
    b. Folded up on feet
    c. In fixed cages
    d. In mobile crates
A

c. In fixed cages

d. In mobile crates

94
Q
  1. What are the signs of successful stunning in cattle?
    a. The animal immediately collapses with trying to stand up
    b. Torticollis
    c. No cornea reflex
    d. Automatic defecation
A

b. Torticollis

c. No cornea reflex

95
Q
  1. Which parts of the adult goat are considered SRM?
    a. The spinal cord
    b. The tonsils
    c. The ileum
    d. The skull
A

a. The spinal cord

d. The skull

96
Q

Which heavy metals are tested for molluscs?

a. Hg
b. Cu
c. Pb
d. Cd

A

c. Pb

d. Cd

97
Q

What are the main points of the food chain information?

a. Treatment and withdrawal periods
b. The dates of all vaccinations
c. The size of the farm
d. The information about the authorised veterinarian responsible for the farm

A

a. Treatment and withdrawal periods

d. The information about the authorised veterinarian responsible for the farm

98
Q
  1. Examples of active packaging
    a. Fungicide ripening foil
    b. Labels with QR codes
    c. Dye indicating the effects of temperature
    d. Moisture absorbing pads
A

a. Fungicide ripening foil

d. Moisture absorbing pads

99
Q
  1. Which criteria are specified in the 2073/2005 EC regulation?
    a. 3-OH-butric acid
    b. Salmonella spp.
    c. Enterobacteriaceae
    d. Campylobacter spp.
A

b. Salmonella spp.

c. Enterobacteriaceae

100
Q
  1. Which statement is TRUE?
    a. Live bivalves harvested from class ‘C’ production area can be marketed
    directly for human consumption
    b. Shellfish collected from class ‘A’ production area can be marketed directly
    for human consumption
    c. Live bivalves harvested from class ‘C’ production area can be marketed after
    long period relaying process
    d. Shellfish collected from class ‘B’ production area can be marketed directly
    for human consumption
A

b. Shellfish collected from class ‘A’ production area can be marketed directly
for human consumption
c. Live bivalves harvested from class ‘C’ production area can be marketed after
long period relaying process

101
Q
  1. What is characteristic for aged meat?
    a. It has paler brownish colour
    b. It has odour of lactic acid
    c. It has glassy shine
    d. It is in elastic to touch
A

a. It has paler brownish colour

b. It has odour of lactic acid

102
Q
  1. What is the aim of singeing?
    a. Removing fluff
    b. Pre-frying the meat for subsequent heat treatments
    c. The desired reddish-pink colour of the carcass
    d. Reduction of germ count on the surface of the skin
A

a. Removing fluff

d. Reduction of germ count on the surface of the skin

103
Q
  1. Which statement is true?
    a. The successive cath of fish must be separated on the factory vessel
    b. The clean and contaminated processes must not be separated on the
    factory vessel
    c. Tools and equipment must be produced from those material is
    corrosion-resistant to seawater
    d. The fishery products must not be chilled on the factory vessel
A

a. The successive cath of fish must be separated on the factory vessel
c. Tools and equipment must be produced from those material is
corrosion-resistant to seawater

104
Q
  1. When is the description ‘smoke flavoured’ applied on products label?
    a. When the product is NOT smoked with hard wood
    b. When the smoke flavour is produced with using smoke aroma for surface
    treatment on the product
    c. When the product is NOT smoked with birch wood
    d. When the smoke flavour is produced with injecting the smoke aroma into the
    product
A

b. When the smoke flavour is produced with using smoke aroma for surface
treatment on the product
d. When the smoke flavour is produced with injecting the smoke aroma into the
product

105
Q
  1. Which of these compounds cause the desirable colours of meat?
    a. Oxymyoglobin
    b. Metmyoglobin
    c. Sulphmyoglobin
    d. Bilirubin
A

a. Oxymyoglobin

b. Metmyoglobin

106
Q
  1. What can increase the water binding capacity of meat?
    a. Heat treatment
    b. Mincing of meat
    c. Adding of inorganic salt
    d. Reducing pH
A

b. Mincing of meat

c. Adding of inorganic salt

107
Q
  1. Within how much time after stunning does the sticking have to be performed
    a. In case of gas stunning 20s
    b. In case of gas stunning 30s
    c. In case of electronic stunning 20s
    d. In case of electronic stunning 20s
A

b. In case of gas stunning 30s

c. In case of electronic stunning 20s

108
Q
  1. What category of waste does ruminant blood count?
    a. Over 8 months SRM, category 1
    b. Category 2 if it comes from a herd which is proven to be BSE free
    c. Category 3 if it complies with regulation (EC) no 999/2001
    d. Suitable for human consumption under 8 months of age (unless otherwise
    stated)
A

b. Category 2 if it comes from a herd which is proven to be BSE free
c. Category 3 if it complies with regulation (EC) no 999/2001

109
Q
  1. Why is it necessary to withdraw feed before slaughter of poultry?
    a. The avoid faecal contamination during transport
    b. In order to empty the gastrointestinal tract to reduce the risk of injury during
    evisceration
    c. For economic reasons, animals are only fed for as long as they have to
    d. To keep the animals alert during transport
A

a. The avoid faecal contamination during transport
b. In order to empty the gastrointestinal tract to reduce the risk of injury during
evisceration

110
Q
  1. Which fishery products must be stored under ice at a temperature of melting ice?
    a. Fresh fishery product
    b. Edible liver, roe, milt
    c. Fish to prepare canned product
    d. Final product
A

a. Fresh fishery product

b. Edible liver, roe, milt

111
Q
  1. Relaying process
A
  • prevent mixing

- possibility of physiologic nutrition

112
Q

Category 2 materials

A

Faeces

- treatment of waste water

113
Q

Butter

A

butter should be packed right after working (within 1-3 hours) to avoid butter fracturing which
causes water separation and can contribute to microbial spoilage
- packing material should protect from sunlight, be moisture tight, grease resistant

114
Q

F0 value

A

F0= the necessary time for the destruction of clostridium botulinum by isothermal heat
treatment at 121,1C. F0 is used to compare different heat treatment. F0 describes the
technology. Heat treatment have many stages ( heating, holding, cooling - cumulative
effect)

115
Q
  1. Ice Cream: degrees during transport and when ice cream is in the shops. Answers were either -
    18 or -8
A

 The temperature of the ice cream shall not rise above –8 °C before the moment it is
served to the consumer

116
Q
  1. Which of these statements are TRUE for the late blowing of cheese
A
  • Late blowing can occur by hard cheeses
  • Late blowing can occur due to the heat-resistant Clostridium spores, which produces gas during
    germination and this leads to large holes and cracks
117
Q

Which of these requirements should be met during the transport of raw milk

A

The temperature of raw milk should be kept under 10C during transport
- The contamination of raw milk should be avoided

118
Q

Choose the correct answers
- Alkaline phosphatase test can be used for determining the effectiveness of hightemperature
short-time (HTST) pasteurisation
- Peroxidase test can be used for determining the effectiveness of HTST pasteurisation
- Alkaline phosphatase is inactivated at 72C within 15 seconds
- Peroxidase is inactivated at 72C within 15 seconds

A
  • Alkaline phosphatase test can be used for determining the effectiveness of hightemperature
    short-time (HTST) pasteurisation
    Alkaline phosphatase is inactivated at 72C within 15 seconds
119
Q
  1. What are the conditions for enterotoxin production of S. aureus?
    - Just over 10C
    - 40-60% of the strains that cause mastitis are capable of its production
    - The minimal germ count of human toxicosis is 106/ml
    - The most common form of contamination is primary infection
A
  • Just over 10C

- The minimal germ count of human toxicosis is 106/ml

120
Q

For which animal is scalding a characteristic slaughter moment

A

Swine

- Poultry

121
Q

Correct answers

  • Max # of CFU that you can count on a petri dish 150
  • Max # of CFU that you can count on a petri dish 300
  • Max # of CFU that you can count on membrane or filter paper 150
  • Max # of CFU that you can count on membrane
A
  • Max # of CFU that you can count on a petri dish 300

- Max # of CFU that you can count on membrane or filter paper 150

122
Q
  1. Double knife method is used to cut:
    - Skin
    - Esophagus
    - Trachea
    - V. jugularis
A

skin, v. jugularis

Food Hygiene (15 decks)

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