PPL/CPL FTG

Question 1

What is a stabilized approach?

Answer 1

• Briefings/checklists complete
• Proper landing configuration for conditions
• Appropriate power settings
• Max sink rate of 1,000 fpm
• Speed within +10/-5 knots
• Only small heading and pitch changes
• Stable by 200 feet AGL

If not stably by 200ft, go around

Question 2

For admission to a flight test the student needs a letter signed by a qualified instructor dated within 30 days of the flight test stating that … (4 things)

Answer 2

• Training for all exercises in the Flight Training Manual and Flight Instructor Guide have been completed
• A simulated flight test was done and passed
• Candidate is considered to have reached a sufficient level of competency to pass the PPL flight test
• The instructor recommends the candidate for the flight test.

Question 3

How many flight hours does a student need to take their PPL flight test?

Answer 3

• min of 35 hrs for PPL
• CPL needs at least 75% of required flight hours

Question 4

How many days after a partialed flight test do you have to retake the flight test?

Answer 4

30 days

Question 5

As a class 4 instructor, what do you need to do for a flight test letter of recommendation for a student?

Answer 5

Have it co-signed by the supervising instructor.

Unless it is a recommend for a partial re-test, then you don’t need a co-signature

Question 6

What is the min pass mark for the PPL flight test?

Answer 6

PPL 62 points (50%)
CPL 93 points
Integrated CPL where a Nov Prog was done, 81 points

Question 7

Incomplete flight test info

Answer 7

If the test is not completed due to circumstances beyond the candidate’s control, the subsequent flight test will include the flight test items not completed on the original flight test and will be completed within the 30 days of the original letter of recommendation.

The following process will apply:
* a copy of the flight test report must be given to the candidate;
* the flight test may be completed at a later date;
* the original letter of recommendation remains valid;
* flight test items already assessed will not be re-tested, but items already demonstrated during the initial flight, and repeated for the purpose of the second flight, may be re-assessed as “1” if the aim
is not achieved;
* the original flight test report may be used to complete the test;

If the initial flight test included one or two failed air items, the partial flight test for these may be conducted during the subsequent flight test flight, after the candidate has completed all of the required items,
provided:
* the minimum pass mark has been achieved prior to beginning the retest of any previously failed items;
* no additional items were failed during the subsequent flight test; and
* a letter of recommendation for the partial flight test was received prior to the flight.

Question 8

Failure to obtain the _ _ _ or the failure of any _ _ _ constitutes failure of the flight
test.

Answer 8

Failure to obtain the minimum pass mark or the failure of any ground test item constitutes failure of the flight test.

Question 9

The failure of any ground item requires a…?

Answer 9

complete re-test and precludes (stops from happening) the air portion of the flight test.

Ground items are not eligible for a partial flight test.

Question 10

The failure of one or two air items will require a _ _ _ flight test on those items, and the failure of a third air item will require a _ _ _ .

Answer 10

The failure of one or two air items will require a partial flight test on those items, and the failure of a third air item will require a complete re-test.

Question 11

More than 5 (4 for CPL) combined flight test items assessed as either “1” and/or “2” constitutes failure of the flight test and will require a…?

Answer 11

Complete re-test

Question 12

The examiner will stop a test, assess it “1”, and a complete re-test will be required if the candidate jeopardizes safety by:

Answer 12

• displaying unsafe or dangerous flying that is not linked to a lack of proficiency or training; or
• demonstrating a pattern of failing to use proper visual scanning techniques to check for traffic before and while performing visual manoeuvres.

Question 13

What are the requirements to get a partial re-test instead of a complete re-test?

Answer 13

• You got the minimum pass score of 62 (50%)
• Failed no more than two flight test items
• You have not more than 5 items assessed as a 1 or 2

You can then do a partial re-test on the items assessed as a 1

*Also need a new letter of recommend for the partial test dated within 30 days of the last flight test. If you fail the partial, you need to do a complete-retest

Question 14

What is the definition of ‘air item’?

Answer 14

‘air items’ are tasks or manoeuvres performed with the aircraft, including the pre-flight inspection, start- up, run-up, taxiing, and emergency procedures.

Question 15

What is the definition of ‘flight test item’?

Answer 15

means a task, manoeuvre or exercise listed on the flight test report

Question 16

What situation on a flight test will result in a failed test and requite a complete re-test?

Answer 16

• Any failed ground item
• You don’t get the necessary 62 (93 CPL) points (50%)
• You have more than 5 (4, CPL) flight test items assessed at a 1 or 2
• Display unsafe or dangerous behaviour that is not linked to a skill, lack of training or proficiency;
• demonstrated pattern of failing to use proper visual scanning techniques
• a partial flight test is not completed within 30 days of the date of the failed flight test
• failure of more than two air items during a complete flight test

Question 17

‘Flight management’ for the purpose of a flight test refers to the effective use of all available resources, including…?

Answer 17

working with such groups as dispatchers, other crewmembers, maintenance personnel, and air traffic controllers.

Question 18

Problem Solving and Decision Making

Not a question, just info

Answer 18

(a) anticipates threats far enough in advance to avoid crisis reaction
(b) uses effective decision-making process
(c) makes appropriate inquiries
(d) prioritizes tasks to gain maximum information input for decisions
(e) makes effective use of all available resources to make decisions
(f) considers “downstream” consequences of the decision being considered

Question 19

Situational Awareness

Not a question, just info

Answer 19

(a) actively monitors weather, aircraft systems, instruments, ATC communications
(b) avoids “tunnel vision” - awareness that factors such as stress can reduce vigilance
(c) stays “ahead of the aircraft” in preparing for expected or contingency situations
(d) remains alert to detect subtle changes in the environment

Question 20

Communication

Not a question, just info

Answer 20

(a) provides thorough briefings
(b) asks for information and advice
(c) communicates decisions clearly
(d) asserts one’s position appropriately

Question 21

Workload Management

Not a question, just info

Answer 21

(a) organizes cockpit resources well
(b) manages errors effectively
(c) recognizes overload in self
(d) eliminates distractions during high workload situations
(e) maintains ability to adapt during high workload situations

Question 22

The candidate’s airmanship will be assessed along with other factors in determining the mark awarded foreach item. Aitmanship items include:

Answer 22

• looking out for other aircraft
• use of checklists
• consideration for other aircraft on the ground and in the air
• choice of run-up areas
• choice of runways
• clearing the engine during prolonged glides

The candidate will be expected to demonstrate good airmanship and complete accurate checks on a continuing basis and demonstrate the smooth and coordinated use of flight and power controls

Question 23

What is a minor error?

Answer 23

A minor error is an action or inaction that is inconsequential to the completion of a task, procedure or manoeuvre, even if certain elements of the performance vary from the recommended best practices.

Question 24

What is a major error?

Answer 24

A major error is an action or inaction that can lead to an undesired aircraft state or a reduced safety
margin, if improperly managed; or

an error that does not lead to a safety risk, but detracts measurably from the successful achievement of the defined aim of a sequence/item:

Question 25

What is a critical error?

Answer 25

A critical error is an action, inaction that is mismanaged and consequently leads to an undesired aircraft state or compromises safety such as:
* Non-compliance with CARS or non-adherence to mandated standard operating procedures;
* Repeated improper error management or uncorrected and unrecognized threats that risk putting the aircraft in an undesired state; or
* Repeated major errors or the non-performance of elements prescribed in the Performance Criteria
that are essential to achieving the Aim of a test sequence/item.

Question 26

What is the difference between an error and a deviation on a flight test item?

Answer 26

Error: means an action or inaction by the flight crew that leads to a variance from operational or flight
crew intentions or expectations.

**Deviation: ** means a variance in precision with respect to a specified limit published for a test
sequence/item, as a result of pilot error or faulty handing of the aircraft.

Question 27

Difference between minor, major, and critical deviations

Answer 27

Minor Deviation
A minor deviation is a deviation that does not exceed a specified limit:
Major Deviation
A major deviation is a deviation that exceeds a specified limit or repeated minor deviations without
achieving stability:
Critical Deviation
A critical deviation is a major deviation that is repeated, excessive or not corrected, such as:
* Repeated non-adherence to specified limits;
* Not identifying and correcting major deviations; or
* More than doubling the specified value of a limit.

Question 28

Marking system

Not question, just info

Answer 28

4: Performance is well executed considering existing conditions
3: Performance is observed to include minor errors
2: Performance is observed to include major errors
1: Performance is observed to include critical errors or the Aim (objective) of the test sequence/item is not
achieved

Question 29

In the ground item for airplane performance, what does the student need to know from memory?

Answer 29

state from memory and explain the practical application for the following speeds:
* best angle of climb speed (VX);
* best rate of climb speed (VY);
* manoeuvring speed (VA)

CPL Students will also need to calculate Vref and explain what Vref is

Question 30

In the ground item for airplane performance, what does the student need to be able to calculate?

Answer 30

• take-off distance required to clear a 50 ft obstacle;
• landing distance required to clear a 50 ft obstacle;
• power setting proposed for the planned enroute cruising flight (percentage, manifold
  pressure and RPM) and the expected cruise speed in KTAS;
• the available flight time with the fuel load and power settings proposed for the navigation flight;

Question 31

What are the error allowances for steep turns on the PPL and CPL test?

Answer 31

±100 feet altitude
±10 knots airspeed
±10º AoB (5º for CPL)
±10º from stated heading to recover on

On PPL test you only have to do a 180º turn. On CPL test you have to do two back to back in opposite directions.

Question 32

What are the error margins for slow flight on PPL and CPL test?

Answer 32

• ±100 feet altitude
• ±10° Heading (including on rollout)
• ±5° AoB

Question 33

What kinds of take-offs will the student demonstrate on a flight test?

Answer 33

On a PPL test, student will do one normal T/O
One short (with or without obstacle) or soft-field T/O

One a CPL test, student will do one soft field and one short field with obstacle

Question 34

What are the allowable error margins on a normal take off for PPL test?

Answer 34

• +10/–5 knots recommended rotation airspeed
• accelerate to and maintain the recommended or briefed climb speed +10/–5 knots

Question 35

What are the allowable error margins on a short field take off for PPL and CPL test?

Answer 35

• establish pitch attitude for obstacle clearance airspeed, and maintain that speed (+10/–5 knots) until obstacle is cleared

Question 36

What are the allowable error margins on a soft field take off for PPL and CPL test?

Answer 36

• remain in ground effect and accelerate to VX or VY, as obstacles may dictate;
• +10/–5 kts climb speed

Question 37

Margin of error in circuit for PPL and CPL test?

Answer 37

+/- 100 ft

Question 38

What kinds of landings will a PPL and CPL student demonstrate on a test?

Answer 38

PPL:
* Normal
* Short over an obstacle OR soft field

CPL:
* Power-off 180
* Short with obstacle or soft field
* Overshoot

Question 39

The accuracy of lateral positioning on the runway during takeoffs and landings will be assessed in
accordance with the following criteria:

Answer 39

4 – The fuselage remains over the centerline of the runway/landing surface;
3 – The wing remains over the centerline of the runway/landing surface;
2 – The aeroplane is at or drifts to a position where the centerline of the runway/landing surface is
beyond the wing tip;
1 – The aeroplane’s longitudinal axis is at or drifts to more than halfway from the centerline of the
runway/landing surface towards the edge of the pavement/prepared surface.

Question 40

Unless strong crosswinds or gusts are
present, all landings will be executed with…?

Answer 40

Full flap

Question 41

Normal landing error allowance for PPL test

Answer 41

+10 / -5 kts approach speed
+400 / -100 ft of touchdown point
Within 15 ft centerline

Question 42

Short field with obstacle landing error allowance for PPL and CPL test

Answer 42

+10/–5 knots approach speed (same for soft field)
+200/–50 feet of touchdown point (+100/-50 for CPL)
Within 15 (10 CPL) ft centerline

Question 43

Forced landing error allowance for PPL and CPL test

Answer 43

• +10/-5 knots of glide speed
• Specify field and touchdown zone
• Touchdown in first third of field (and no more than 1000ft past the end of that touchdown zone)
• Engine warms

Question 44

en-route error allowance for PPL test

Answer 44

±200 (100 CPL) ft cruising altitudes
±10° headings

Question 45

Instrument error allowance for PPL test

Answer 45

• ±15º of the assigned heading;
• ±200 feet of the assigned altitude;
• ±15 knots of the assigned airspeed;
• an angle of bank not to exceed the limit (peg) of the turn and bank indicator/turn-coordinator.

Question 46

Instrument error allowance for CPL test

Answer 46

• ±10º of assigned headings;
• ±100 feet of assigned altitudes;
• ±10 knots of assigned airspeeds;
• ±100 feet per minute of assigned rates of descent, when established;
• ±10º of assigned angles of bank

Question 47

What maneauver do you do on a CPL flight test that you don’t do on a PPL flight test?

Answer 47

Spin

Question 48

On a PPL test, a student can follow roads or rivers for their diversion. What must a CPL student do for a diversion and what are the margins of error allowed?

Answer 48

Must use dead rockoning as if they were over barren terrain. Cannot follow visual aids.

• provide an initial ETA when setting heading and confirm or revise that time while en route;
• maintain an appropriate selected airspeed (±10 knots)
• maintain selected headings (±10°);
• maintain declared altitudes (±100 feet)

Question 49

PPL Students don’t do a limited panel, but CPL does. What are the error allowances?

Answer 49

execute a continuous, coordinated turn, in the shortest direction, to a heading specified by the
examiner. Note: One heading correction is acceptable to more precisely achieve the specified heading

• ±15º of specified heading;
• ±100 feet of assigned altitude;
• ±10 knots of assigned airspeed

Question 50

PPL doesnt have to do Radio Navigation but CPL does. What are the error allowances?

Answer 50

• maintain the specified track within ±10º, or for GNSS, within 1 nautical mile
• ±15º of the selected heading;
• ±200 feet of the assigned altitude;