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Rotation > Post mortem > Flashcards

Post mortem Flashcards

1
Q

Name some artefacts you may encounter during a PM

A
  • freeze-thaw effect: Crystals formed during freezing can then thaw leading to heavy cutsH
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2
Q

Heme imbibition define

A

staining from blood (colour change on different organs)

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3
Q

External exam of cadaver before PM- Name some things to take note

A
  • rigor mortis
  • BCS
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4
Q

info required before carrying out a PM

A
  • clinical history
  • permission from Owner to perform PM
  • time and manner of death
  • cadaver storage details
  • reason for PM
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5
Q

emphysema define

A

gas pockets (can be caused by Clostridia)

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6
Q

when opening the thorax from the abdomen check for ….

A

negative pressure

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7
Q

If there is no negative pressure when opening the thorax this could be due to …

A

a puncture wound for example.

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8
Q

What forms part of the pluck

A
  • oesophagus
  • caudal vena cava
  • aorta
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9
Q

open the trachea, and you find froth- what may this indicate?

A

pulmonary oedema

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10
Q

open the trachea, and you find ingesta- what may this indicate?

A

aspiration

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11
Q

pig enteric disease causes (5)

A
  • coccidia
  • clostridia
  • enterogenic E.Coli
  • viral (coronavirus and rotavirus)
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12
Q

Pre-patency period for pig coccidia (days)

A

5 days!

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13
Q

Which two bacteria can attach to the apical surface of pig enterocytes and release toxins?

A
  • clostridium
  • E.COli
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14
Q

Catarrhal enteritis in pigs (yellow) is suggestive of what?

A
  • viral. infection
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15
Q

Hemmorhagic enteritis in pigs (red) is suggestive of what?

A

clostridium

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16
Q

What is the cause of bronchopneumonia in pre-weaned pigs?

A

Pasteurella Multocida, Bordetella Bronchiseptical

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17
Q

What is the cause of bronchopneumonia in post-weaned pigs?

A

streptococcus suis, Glasserella parasuis, Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae

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18
Q

What can cause septicemia in pigs? (routes)

A
  • inhalation of agent
  • navel ill
  • ingestion
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19
Q

Pathogenesis of septicaemia in pigs

A

ingestion/inhalation/navel ill > spreading through
bloodstream > toxin production + release of inflammatory mediators > vascular
damage > oedema/effusions into body cavities, fibrin exudation, widespread
haemorrhages (petechiae), thrombosis

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20
Q

Notifiable diseases in pigs

A
  • Aujeskys disease
  • african swine fever
  • Classical swine fever
  • vesicular disease (i.e FMD)
  • Brucellosis
  • Porcine epidemic diarrhoea
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21
Q

What notifiable pig disease could be the cause of petechiation of the kidney?

A

classical swine fevel

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22
Q

What is the main clinical signs of pigs with vesicular disease?

A

lameness

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23
Q

what disease gives rise diffuse necrotizing (pyogranulomatous) orchitis in pigs?

A

Brucellosis

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24
Q

fowl paralysis can be indicative of what type of poultry disease ?

A

Mareks disease

25
Q

What are the notifiable diseases for chickens?

A

Newcastle
avian influenza

26
Q

What does myxoma mean? (However these are rare so don’t look for them)

A
  • histological fibromas
  • macroscopically nodules
27
Q

Caseous Lymphadenitis is caused by

A
  • Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
28
Q

How to test for CLA in sheep?

A
  • do an elisa for the antibody on the blood
29
Q

If a sheep is positive for CLA what should you do?

A

cull

30
Q

CLA is commonly transmitted to

A
31
Q

Causative a Johnes

A

MAP (Mycobacterium avium paratuberculosis)

32
Q

Causative agent of CLA

A

Corynebacterium Pseudotuberculosis

33
Q

How to stain intracellular bacterium?

A

Ziehl Neelsson

34
Q

What disease causes cobblestone of the ileum (thickened mucosa)

A

Johnes- cow

35
Q

How can you test for Johnes in a cow herd?

A
  • PCR (60% false results)
  • ELISA
36
Q

Blacks disease is caused by what other parasite

A
  • liver fluke as it creates an anerobic environment
37
Q

liver fluke travel through the intestine–> the liver–> ..?…

A

the gallbladder

38
Q

liver fluke give rise to what other cx

A

anemia
jaundice

39
Q

Black disease affects which species

A

cattle
sheep

40
Q

Pulpy kidney disease in small ruminants is caused by

A

Clostridium Perfringens D- secondary to immunocompromise

41
Q

What’s an effective way of treating a dysbiosis?

A

fecal transplant

42
Q

Clostridium difficile affect which spp (6)

A
  • horses
  • human
  • dogs
  • cat
  • pigs
  • rabbits
43
Q

Clostrium hemolyticum is also called

A

Clostrium novyi Type D

44
Q

Blacks leg is caused by what type of clostridium

A

Clostridium Chauvoei

45
Q

3 types of clostriudium

A
  • enterotoxic (gut types)
  • histotoxic (tissue)
  • neutotoxic (pns)
46
Q

the two types of neurotoxic clostridium

A
  • C. Tetani
  • C. Botulism (cows grazing near areas where chickens have been defecating)
47
Q

Apart from Clostridia, which other bacteria have toxins?

A
  • ## VTEC / Shiga-producing
48
Q

How do you stabilise a GDV? what is the risk of untwisting GDV?

A
  • 1) IV FLUID!! 2 catheters
  • 2) test for lactate as a px factor

REPERFUSION INJURY

49
Q

Explain what happens in SIRS

A

IL1, IL6, TNFa
—->
HR increase and BP decrease (due to vasculitis)

—–> DIC, multiorgan dysfunction

50
Q

How to treat a SIRS case?

A
  • hypertonic fluids (to bring fluid that has leaked out of vessels back in)
  • dexamethasone (to decrease the inflammation)
51
Q

Most likely Taenia saginata can be found in which muscles

A
  • most likely the masseter
52
Q

Tenia Ovis intermediate host is which spp?

A
  • dog
  • fox
53
Q

Why is Erysipelas in pigs important for public health?

A

zoonotic–> humans

54
Q

Is BVD notifiable?

A

no

55
Q

what makes a disease notifiable?

A
  • trade implications
  • financial implications
  • viability of eradicating
  • political decision
  • risk to public health
56
Q

Can Erysipelas cause septicaemia and endocarditis?

A

yes

57
Q

Apart form Erysipelas, what other agent can cause septicaemia?

A

Streptococcus Suis (NOTIFIABLE)

58
Q

In ASF, which organ increases in size?

A
  • the spleen
  • gastrohepatic LN
59
Q

Name some causative agents of septicaemia in pigs?

A
  • Streptococcus Suis
  • Erysipelas Suis
  • African swine fever

Rotation (11 decks)

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