Endell Flashcards

1
Q

What is the threshold for somatic cell count which would make you want to treat the cow for subclinical mastitis?

A

> 200,000 SCC CMT

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2
Q

What are the two types of mastitis?

A
  • environmental
  • contagious
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3
Q

What is the test for SCC called?

A

California Milk Test

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4
Q

Aminoglycosides- broad spec or narrow?

A

narrow

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5
Q

Aminoglycosides - gram negative or gram positive?

A

gram negative

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6
Q

What drugs are HP-CIAs?

A
  • fluoroquinolones
  • macrolides
  • cephalosporins 3rd-4th gen
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7
Q

E. Coli- gram negative or gram positive?

A

Gram negative

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8
Q

Define metaphylaxis

A

Treatment given to the entire herd as opposed to the individual

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9
Q

Causes of calf scour

A
  • Rotavirus
  • Coronavirus
  • Salmonella
  • E. Coli
  • Cryptococcus
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10
Q

What are the two bacteria that can cause calf scour? (<2 weeks)

A
  • E. Coli (<3days)
  • Salmonella
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11
Q

What test can you use on the farm that tests for calf scours?

A

SNAP test for corona/ rota, crytpo, e.coli

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12
Q

What bacteria does the SNAP test used to detect calf scours NOT account for?

A

Salmonella (but animals will have bloody faeces and pyrexia)

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13
Q

Pathogens that can cause calf pneumonia?
(<6m)

A
  • Mannheimia hemmolytica
  • Mycoplasma Bovis
  • IBR- BHV
  • (BVD indirectly as it causes immunocompromise)
  • Pasteurella Multocida
  • Histophilus Somni
  • Parainfluenza 3
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14
Q

What are the Bacterial Pathogens that can cause calf pneumonia? Are these commensals or non- commensals?

A
  • Histophilus Somni
  • Mannheimia Hemmolytics
  • Mycoplasma Bovis
  • Pasteurella Multocida

ALL COMMENSALS so usually 2ndary to viral infection- thats why its best to sample in the early stages of disease.

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15
Q

What causes new forest eye?

A

Moraxella Bovis

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16
Q

How would you treat calf pneumonia?

A
  • oxytetracycline 1st line - then florfenicols—-> macroclides (3rd line)
  • NSAIDs ie flunixin
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17
Q

Why use meloxicam instead of flunixin?

A
  • longer acting
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18
Q

What does a bacteriostatic antibacterial require?

A

a functional immune system

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19
Q

Pencillin factors

A
  • gram positive
  • cidal
  • time
  • poor penetration into CNS
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20
Q

Why can penicillin be used in cases of meningitis?

A

Because the BBB is damaged during inflammation

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21
Q

Where does penicillin not work?

A
  • acidic environments
  • against mycoplasma
  • in pus/ necrotic tissue
  • not in CNS
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22
Q

Why is amoxyclav better than penicillin G?

A
  • active in pus/necrotic
  • is good against gram positive and negative
  • inhibits Beta lactamases
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23
Q

What is amoxycillin ineffective against?

A
  • CNS
  • mycoplasma (no cell wall)
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24
Q

where does oxytetracycline not get into?

A
  • the uterus
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25
Q

TMPS - broad or narrow spec?

A

broad spectrum

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26
Q

TMPS- static or cidal?

A

cidal

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27
Q

TMPS- time or dose dependent?

A

time-dependent

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28
Q

tetracycline- dose or time dependent?

A

time-dependent

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29
Q

Example of an antibiotic has 0 milk withdrawal period?

A

Cephalophorins - 1 to 4??

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30
Q

Which NSAID has 0 milk withdrawal period?

A

ketoprofen

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31
Q

Trade names for Macrolides?

A

Draxxin, Tylan (tylosin),

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32
Q

Florphenicols can be used in young or old animals?

A

young- as cannot enter the food chain.

33
Q

Should you treat E. Coli with antibiotics?

A

NO- because it is the toxin that is damaging, so if you use AB will kill E/ Coli and release more toxin.

YES- because 2ndary infection can occur so need to prevent that.

34
Q

Can you use Penicillin for E. Coli?

A

No

35
Q

Fluids types

A
  • isotonic
  • hypertonic
  • hypotonic
36
Q

How much NaCl is there in a hypertonic bag?

A

7.2% NaCL

37
Q

When would you consider giving IVFT to an adult dairy cow?

A

Toxic mastitis

38
Q

How much isotonic would you give to a calf?

A

1L

39
Q

Hypertonic or isotonic for adult cow?

A
  • hypertonic first (obligatory)
  • isotonic secondary
40
Q

Hartmanns contains …. with precipitates with bicarbonate

A

Calcium

41
Q

When do dams get endometritis

A

> 21 days post partum

42
Q

When do dams get metritis

A

0-21 days post partum

43
Q

metritis- acute or chronic?

A

acute

44
Q

endometritis- acute or chronic?

A

chronic

45
Q

with metritis are cows always systemically unwell?

A

not necessarily

46
Q

What bacteria causes metritis?

A

e.coli—> Trueperella pyogenes and gram negative anaerobes

47
Q

What bacteria causes endometritis?

A

Trueperella Pyogenes and gram negative anaerobes

48
Q

Define clinical metritis

A

animal NOT systemically unwell but has an enlarged uterus and purulent uterine discharge

49
Q

We need to get heifers pregnant by… months

A

15 months

50
Q

We want heifers to be ideally calving at …months

A

24 months

51
Q

cows come into heat every … days

A

21 days

52
Q

Do heifers have longer or shorter cycles?

A

Heifers tend to have shorter intervals (only by one day or so!)

53
Q

what can we do to ensure heifers can start cycling (ie reach puberty) by 12months

A

ensure they gain sufficient weight! (ie 300kg for holstein )

54
Q

what is the voluntary waiting period

A

the time between calving and serving

55
Q

Pregnancy diagnosis for cows

A
  • non-return to estrous
  • rectal exam
  • US
  • lab tests (milk or blood P4)
56
Q

Rectal exam- what structures can you identify for pregnancy diagnosis?

A
  • position of the cervix
  • uterus (size, position, symmetry, thickness and tone)
  • ovaries
  • middle uterine artery (by 120d it is unilateral)- by 240d bilateral fremitus
57
Q

pyometra or mucometra can be confused with … in a cow

A

pregnancy

58
Q

what are the 3 phases of BEEF SYSTEMS IN THE UK

A

1- rearing
2- growing
3- finishing

59
Q

beef finishing systems can be classified into 3 categories

A

1- intensive
2- semi-intensive
3- extensive

60
Q

What are the indications for a C-section

A

1- foetal oversize and dam undersize
2- foetal deformity
3- Irreducible uterine torsion
4- Unresolvable malpresentations
5- Emphysematous calves

61
Q

What blocks are available for a C-section on a cow?

A
  • inverted L block (regional block)
  • paravertebral block
  • Line block (local anaesthesia)
  • GA
62
Q

Potential complications for C-section

A
  • hemmorrhage
  • infection (i.e. peritonitis)
  • suture failure
63
Q

Prognosis for dam survival after a C-section?

A
  • very good! 95%
64
Q

What is the prognosis for uterine prolapse ?

A
  • generally favourable and survival ranges from 72 to 83 per cent, with mortality mostly occurring acutely due to hypovolaemic shock and haemorrhage
65
Q

What agents causes ovine pneumonia?

A

PI-3, Respiratory syncitial virus, adenovirus

Mannheimia Hemmolytica, Mycoplasma, Hameophilus, Salmonella

66
Q

What agent causes BHV-1?

A

Bovine herpes virus 1

67
Q

Who is affected by BHV-1?

A

cattle

68
Q

What type of virus causes BVD?

A

Pestivirus

69
Q

You see crusty erosions around the nostrils and muzzle of a sheep, what possible agents ?

A
  • ORF
  • Bluetongue
70
Q

Fluid in the submandibular space in a sheep could indicate what disease?

A

Bottle jaw

71
Q

What causes bottle jaw?

A

parasitism - leading to protein loss- affecting oncotic pressure

72
Q

Normal TPR of a sheep

A

38.5-39.5

73
Q

Normal HR of a sheep

A

60-90

74
Q

Normal RR of a sheep

A

20-30 (but can go up to 60 on a hot day!)

75
Q

Large prominent vessels in the conjunctiva may indicate…

A

toxaemia

76
Q

When does pregnancy toxaemia generally occur in sheep?

A

last 4 weeks of gestation

77
Q

average gestation period of a sheep

A

147days

78
Q

What causes abortion in sheep?

A

Toxoplasma, Chlamydia, Listeria, Brucella, Border disease virus, Campylobacter, Salmonella