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Rotation > Clinical Pathology > Flashcards

Clinical Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common cause of mild chronic anemia?

A

chronic inflammation

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2
Q

What are the two causes of regenerative anemia?

A

hemolysis and hemmorhage

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3
Q

hypothyroidism can cause anemia?

A

yes- mild

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4
Q

Decreased EPO can lead to anemia? Yes or no

A

yes

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5
Q

Most common cause of iron deficiency?

A

chronic mild blood loss- ie gastric ulcer, or parasite burden ie haemonchus. Iniatially regenerative—> non-regen

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6
Q

How long is the pre-regen period? in domestic species

A

3-5 days

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7
Q

acanthocytes are usually caused by…

A
  • shear injury
  • lipid metabolism- changes cholesterol content predisposing to shear injury
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8
Q

How to differentiate between ekinocytes and acanthocyte>

A

acanthocyte is more irregular and long dendritic whereas ekinocytes more regular and short spikes

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9
Q

codocytes caused by

A

less cytoplasm (to plasma membrane)

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10
Q

schistocytes are always caused by…

A

shear injury

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11
Q

echinocytes are mostly caused by…

A
  • artefact (underfilling EDTA)
  • electrolyte imbalance
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12
Q

toxic changes seen in degenerate neutrophils

A
  • vacuolation
  • dolly bodies
  • basophilia (increased blueness)
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13
Q

Dolly bodies normal in cats?

A

yes

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14
Q

If the neutrophils are non-degenerate can there still be a bacterial cause?

A

Yes- as it is only the toxins

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15
Q

toxic neutrophils are only in …

A

the blood

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16
Q

Can degenerate neutrophils be found in the blood?

A

No

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17
Q

what stain for mycobacteria?

A

Ziehl Nielsson

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18
Q

3 cell types involved in cancer

A
  • round
  • epithelial
  • mesenchymal
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19
Q

characteristics of epithelial type tumours

A
  • cluster
  • distinct cell borders
  • exfoliate well- so good cellular content
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20
Q

Benign epithelial tumour may be called

A

adenoma

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21
Q

Malignant epithelial tumour may be called

A

Carcinoma

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22
Q

Types of round cell tumours

A
  • round cell
  • plasma cell
  • lymphoma
  • histiocytoma
    -TVT
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23
Q

criteria of malignancy

A
  • prominent, multiple, macronucleoli
  • nuclear molding
  • increased mitotic figures
  • anisokaryosis
    -anisocytosis
  • hypercellularity
  • macrocytosis
  • pleomorphism
  • high N:C ratio
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24
Q

only consider…. cells for cellularity

A

nucleated cells

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25
Q

What can cause thrombocytosis?

A
  • inflammation
  • increase in EPO
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26
Q

globulins are produced by… (2)

A
  • liver
  • lymphocytes (immunoglobulins)
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27
Q

globulins may increase during..

A
  • inflammation
  • neoplasia
  • hemoconcentration
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28
Q

What is the acute phase protein in dogs?

A

C-reactive protein

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29
Q

What is the acute phase protein in cats?

A

Serum Amyloid A

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30
Q

What is the acute phase protein in cattle and horses?

A

fibrinogen

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31
Q

What makes albumin : globulin go up and down respectively

A
  • inflammation (immunoglobulin goes up, albumin remains the same)
  • renal damage (globulin remains the same, albumin is lost)
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32
Q

function of urea

A
  • detoxicifies ammonium through urea cycle
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33
Q

how can you assess renal function?

A
  • creatinine
  • urea
  • SDMA
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34
Q

What is the earliest marker for GFR?

A
  • SDMA
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35
Q

Azotemia is defined as an increase in what? (2)

A
  • urea
  • creatinine
36
Q

Azotemia is classified as (3)

A
  • pre-renal
  • renal
  • post- renal
37
Q

In pre-renal azotemia, what is happening to the GFR?

A
  • should decrease leading to reduced clearance
38
Q

in renal stage of azotemia, what has happened to the nephron?

A
  • loss of functional capacity (65%- 75%)
  • drop in GFR
39
Q

in renal type of azotemia, urine volume increased or decreased?

A

increased

40
Q

what would be a high USG value for dogs indicating

A

> 1.030

41
Q

What may indicate post-renal azotemia?

A
  • from clinical signs
  • decreased urine output indicating obstruction (anuria)
42
Q

what would be a high USG value for cat indicating hypersthenuria

A

> 1.040

43
Q

USG value in post-renal azotemia?

A

variable

44
Q

what would be a high USG value for horse/cow indicating hypersthenuria?

A

> 1.025

45
Q

GGT is induced by cholestasis or hypercellular injury?

A

cholestasis

46
Q

ALP is induced by cholestasis or hypercellular injury?

A

cholestasis

47
Q

indicators of cholestasis? (2 liver enzymes)

A

GGT
ALP

48
Q

Best enzyme for hepatocellular injury in SA?

A

ALT

49
Q

Best enzyme for hepatocellular injury in LA?

A

SDH

50
Q

Can AST be used in all spp?

A

Yes

51
Q

Why is AST not specific?

A

also measure muscle damage (so always crosscheck with CK)

52
Q

Only in dogs, GC increases which liver enzyme?

A

ALP

53
Q

why is ALP higher in growing animals?

A

is also present in bones

54
Q

What can assess liver FUNCTION? If liver compromised decreased production of (4)

A

these will decrease:
- glucose
- urea
- albumin
- cholesterol

55
Q

What can assess liver FUNCTION? If liver compromised decreased removal of (3)

A

these will increase:
- billirubin
- ammonia
- bile acids

56
Q

types of jaundice (3)

A
  • pre-hepatic
  • hepatic
  • post-hepatic
57
Q

what can medetomidine do to glucose levels?

A
  • increase
58
Q

Causes of hyperglycemia?

A
  • stress (catecholamine)
  • GC
  • post-prandial
  • diabetes mellitus
  • hyperthyroidism
59
Q

In a fasting state, lipids are mainly synthesised by which organ?

A
  • liver
60
Q

T4 can cause hypo or hypercholesterolemia?

A

hypercholesterolemia

61
Q

increased T4 increases or decreases fat deposits?

A

decreases

62
Q

amylase is mostly produced by which organs?

A
  • SI
  • pancreas
  • etc
63
Q

amylase will increase with….

A
  • damage to the pancreatic cells
  • decreased renal clearance
64
Q

what is more specific for pancreatic damage- amylase or lipase?

A

amylase

65
Q

sodium- mostly intra or extracellular?

A

extracellular

66
Q

sodium can increase when…

A

dehydrated

67
Q

Cl- follows …

A

Na

68
Q

renal insufficiency will cause K to increase or decrease?

A

increase (as excretion is compromised)

69
Q

Do horses need vitamin D to absorb calcium?

A

no, this is why they excrete so much calcium

70
Q

Name hormones controlling calcium concentration in blood

A
  • PTH
  • vit D (NB not in horses)
  • calcitonin
71
Q

Can addisons cause increase or decrease in calcium?

A

increase

72
Q

primary hyeperparathyroidism- increase or decrease in calcium?

A

increase

73
Q

renal insufficiency- increase or decrease in calcium?

A

decrease

74
Q

Acute pancreatitis- Increase or decrease in calcium?

A

decrease

75
Q

what generally causes a metabolic alkalosis?

A

loss of acid ie vomiting, ileus sequestration

76
Q

ileus sequestration- metabolic acidosis or alkalosis?

A

metabolic alkalosis

77
Q

metabolic acidosis can be caused by

A
  • bicarb loss (ie diarrhoea, renal, saliva in cattle)
  • titrational metabolic acidosis
78
Q

What breed is predisposed to lipoma?

A

Weimarer

79
Q

what cells are part of the peritoneum?

A

mesothelial cells

80
Q

if you suspect uroabdomen- how can you test the abdominal effusion?

A
  • creatinine
  • potassium (needs to be 2 x higher than levels found in blood)
81
Q

Coxiella Brunetti causes what zoonotic disease?

A

Q Fever

82
Q

Q fever affect predominantly which system?

A

reproductive system

83
Q

Ddx similar to q fever

A
  • Toxoplasma Gondi
  • Lepto
  • Brucella Abortus/ bellatensis, Ovis
  • Neospora
  • Chlamydophila
    -BVD/ IBR
  • Bluetongue (however this is seasonal)
  • Campylobacter
84
Q

How does Q fever spread?

A
  • direct contact ie during lambing or calving
  • in contact with dust from any bodily fluid (milk, urine, contaminatedmanure, aborted material)
  • contacminated raw
  • vector transmission (ie tick bites??)
85
Q

HACCP is about efficiency, health, or safety?

A

SAFETY

86
Q

Ileus leading to HCl sequestration can lead to acidosis or alkalosis

A

alkalosis

87
Q
A

Rotation (11 decks)

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