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MSK > Physiology Review Q's > Flashcards

Physiology Review Q's Flashcards

PHYSIO Lectures: 1. Mechanism of Muscle Contraction (1-24) 2. Excitation-Contraction coupling (25-41) 3. Neuromuscular Junction (42-67) PHYSIO PRACTICALS: 1. TS: Muscle twitch (68-74) 2. Nerve Conduction Velocity (75-77)

1
Q

Which of the following is a dark band? a. I band b. A band

A

a. I band

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2
Q

Which of the following has high ATPase activity? a. fast-twitch muscles b. slow-twitch muscles

A

a. fast-twitch muscles

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3
Q

Which of the following has lots of mitochondria? a. fast-twitch muscles b. slow-twitch muscles

A

b. slow-twitch muscles

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4
Q

Which of the following has a larger diameter? a. fast-twitch muscles b. slow-twitch muscles

A

a. fast-twitch muscles

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5
Q

Which of the following is stronger? a. fast-twitch muscles b. slow-twitch muscles

A

a. fast-twitch muscles

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6
Q

Which of the following has a high amount of oxidative enzymes? a. fast-twitch muscles b. slow-twitch muscles

A

b. slow-twitch muscles

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7
Q

Which of the following appears red? a. fast-twitch muscles b. slow-twitch muscles

A

b. slow-twitch muscles

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8
Q

Which of the following has a high amount of glycolytic enzymes? a. fast-twitch muscles b. slow-twitch muscles

A

a. fast-twitch muscles

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9
Q

What best describes the function of T tubules? a. store Ca b. plasma membrane c. help action potential go to deep muscle d. supply the energy needed for contraction e. connects actin and myosin filaments elastically

A

c. help action potential go to deep muscle

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10
Q

Which is used to view a muscle fiber? a. regular microscope b. electron microscope

A

a. regular microscope

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11
Q

What best describes the function of titin? a. store Ca b. plasma membrane c. help action potential go to deep muscle d. supply the energy needed for contraction e. connects actin and myosin filaments elastically

A

e. connects actin and myosin filaments elastically

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12
Q

T/F: the organization of myosin and actin must be constant in a healthy muscle

A

false; different organizations of myosin and actin occur based on location

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13
Q

Which is used to view a myofibril? a. regular microscope b. electron microscope

A

b. electron microscope

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14
Q

Which of the following has both actin and myosin? a. I band b. H zone c. A band d. Z line

A

c. A band

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15
Q

Which of the following only has actin? a. I band b. H zone c. A band d. Z line

A

a. I band

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16
Q

Which stops ATPase activity? a. TnC b. TnI c. TnT

A

b. TnI

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17
Q

Which of the following only has myosin? a. I band b. H zone c. A band d. Z line

A

b. H zone

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18
Q

Which regulates the interaction between troponin complex and thin filaments? a. TnC b. TnI c. TnT

A

c. TnT

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19
Q

Which marks the border of one sarcomere? a. I band b. H zone c. A band d. Z line

A

d. Z line

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20
Q

When does the myosin head move the actin forward? a. when the ATP binds b. when the ATP is hydrolyzed c. when the ADP is released

A

c. when the ADP is released

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21
Q

A medical student tries and fails to lift his 50Kg backbag from the ground. What type of contraction is this an example of? a. isometric b. isotonic

A

a. isometric

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22
Q

Describe the relationship between actin-myosin overlap and contraction force? a. directly proportional b. inversely proportional

A

a. directly proportional

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23
Q

Walking is what type of contraction? a. isometric b. isotonic

A

b. isotonic

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24
Q

Describe the relationship between the velocity of contraction and the muscle load? a. directly proportional b. inversely proportional

A

b. inversely proportional

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25
Q

Which of the following cells have a resting potential of zero? a. muscle cells b. neurons c. dead cells

A

c. dead cells

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26
Q

Which of the following molecules have no leak channels? a. K+ b. Na+

A

b. Na+

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27
Q

What is used to counter the high potassium concentration in the cell?

A

negatively charged chloride ions and negatively charged proteins

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28
Q

Which of the following plays the biggest role in resting potential? a. K+ potential b. Na+ potential c. Cl- potential

A

a. K+ potential

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29
Q

How do action potentials translate information? a. amplitude b. frequency

A

b. frequency

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30
Q

What determines the maximum frequency of a cell? a. failed initiations b. threshold c. refractory period d. resting state

A

c. refractory period

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31
Q

Which is open in a resting cell? a. activation gate b. inactivation gate

A

b. inactivation gate

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32
Q

Which is open in an inactivated cell? a. activation gate b. inactivation gate

A

a. activation gate

33
Q

describe the action potential of a nerve cell?

A

unidirectional

34
Q

Which helps spread the action potential in muscle cells? a. sarcoplasmic reticulum b. t tubule c. myofibrils

A

b. t tubule

35
Q

Where does a calcium influx NOT cause activation? a. skeletal muscle b. neurons

A

a. skeletal muscle

36
Q

Which of the following use calcium from the extracellular space? a. skeletal muscle b. neurons c. heart muscle

A

c. heart muscle

37
Q

Which of the following act to maintain Ca in SR? a. DHPR b. SERCA c. RYR

A

b. SERCA

38
Q

What calcium removing pump doesn’t need ATP?

A

MCU: mitochondrial Ca+2 uniporter

39
Q

Describe the relationship between leak channels and resting potential? a. directly proportional b. inversely proportional

A

a. directly proportional

40
Q

Which of the following has type 2 Ryanodine receptor (RDR)? a. skeletal muscle b. neurons c. heart muscle

A

c. heart muscle

41
Q

What is calsequestrin and what does it do?

A

its a Ca binding protein in the sarcoplasmic reticulum and it basically holds on to calcium ions to keep it in the SR longer (SERCA also maintains Ca in SR!)

42
Q

What does the dense bar do?

A

align the vesicles at the presynaptic membrane

43
Q

How does acetylcholine reach the muscle membrane if acetylcholinesterases exist in the space?

A

diffusion to the muscle membrane occurs faster than the enzyme can stop them

44
Q

What do T tubules look like when looking at it from a normal microscope?

A

a gutter (a synaptic gutter)

45
Q

What puts acetyl and choline back together? a. acetylcholinesterases b. choline acetyltransferase

A

b. choline acetyltransferase

46
Q

How many agonists does it take to fully open a nicotinic acetylcholine receptor?

A

4

47
Q

What causes massive exocytosis? a. Methacholine b. Muscarine c. Carbachol d. Nicotine e. Alpha-latrotoxin

A

e. Alpha-latrotoxin

48
Q

What causes muscle cramps by increasing intracellular Ca? a. Methacholine b. Muscarine c. Carbachol d. Nicotine e. Alpha-latrotoxin

A

b. Muscarine

49
Q

What of the following is acetylcholine receptor independent? a. Methacholine b. Muscarine c. Carbachol d. Nicotine e. Alpha-latrotoxin

A

e. Alpha-latrotoxin

50
Q

What of the following is a permanent blocker of acetylcholine receptors? a. Alpha-latrotoxin b. Bungarotoxin c. D-tubocurarine d. Botulinum toxin

A

b. Bungarotoxin

51
Q

What of the following is derived from clostridium spp. (an anaerobic bacteria)? a. Alpha-latrotoxin b. Bungarotoxin c. Carbachol d. Botulinum toxin e. D-tubocurarine

A

d. Botulinum toxin

52
Q

What of the following activates RYR receptors and stops endocytosis? a. Alpha-latrotoxin b. Bungarotoxin c. Carbachol d. Botulinum toxin e. D-tubocurarine

A

a. Alpha-latrotoxin

53
Q

What of the following is a temporary blocker of acetylcholine receptors? a. Alpha-latrotoxin b. Bungarotoxin c. Carbachol d. Botulinum toxin e. D-tubocurarine

A

e. D-tubocurarine

54
Q

What of the following is from Krait snakes? a. Alpha-latrotoxin b. Bungarotoxin c. Carbachol d. Botulinum toxin e. D-tubocurarine

A

b. Bungarotoxin

55
Q

Which endocytosis type occurs when staurosporine is taken? a. kiss and run b. bulk endocytosis c. classic

A

a. kiss and run

56
Q

Which TWO make up the snare? a. dynamin b. clathrin c. synapsin d. syntaxin e. synaptobrevin f. synaptotagmin

A

d. syntaxin & e. synaptobrevin (VAMP)

57
Q

Which endocytosis type uses the least energy? a. kiss and run b. bulk endocytosis c. classic

A

a. kiss and run

58
Q

Which of the following holds vesicles together? a. dynamin b. clathrin c. synapsin d. syntaxin e. synaptobrevin f. synaptotagmin

A

c. synapsin

59
Q

Which of the following triggers the fusion of the vesicle to the plasma membrane? a. dynamin b. clathrin c. synapsin d. syntaxin e. synaptobrevin f. synaptotagmin

A

f. synaptotagmin

60
Q

Which of the following cuts vesicles to be endocytosed? a. dynamin b. clathrin c. synapsin d. syntaxin e. synaptobrevin f. synaptotagmin

A

a. dynamin

61
Q

What helps the syntaxin to synaptobrevin connection? a. Tetanus toxin b. SNAP-25 c. SNARE d. Neurexin e. Alpha-latrotoxin

A

b. SNAP-25

62
Q

What helps synaptotagmin trigger vesicle fusion? a. Tetanus toxin b. SNAP-25 c. Botulinum toxin d. Neurexin

A

d. Neurexin

63
Q

What TWO toxins deactivate the Snare complex? a. Tetanus toxin b. SNAP-25 c. Botulinum toxin d. Neurexin e. Alpha-latrotoxin

A

a. Tetanus toxin & c. Botulinum toxin

64
Q

Which of the following stimulates Ca+2 dependent exocytosis?

a. Tetanus toxin
b. SNAP-25
c. Botulinum toxin
d. Neurexin
e. Alpha-latrotoxin

A

e. Alpha-latrotoxin

65
Q

Which of the following is activated by Alpha-latrotoxin? a. Tetanus toxin b. SNAP-25 c. Botulinum toxin d. Neurexin

A

d. Neurexin

66
Q

Which of the following docking proteins is in the plasma membrane side? a. synaptobrevin b. synaptotagmin c. synapsin d. syntaxin

A

d. syntaxin (it helps both synaptobrevin and synaptotagmin dock)

67
Q

Which of the following blocks exocytosis by cleaving docking proteins? a. Tetanus toxin b. SNAP-25 c. Botulinum toxin d. Neurexin e. Alpha-latrotoxin

A

c. Botulinum toxin

68
Q

Which muscle action potential is longer? a. skeletal muscle b. motoneuron c. cardiac ventricle

A

c. cardiac ventricle

69
Q

What pattern does an EMG of a bicep contraction look like?

A

spindle shaped

70
Q

What’s true about the duration of contraction? a. it’s constant throughout all muscles b. it increases as the size of the muscle increases c. it decreases as the size of the muscle increases

A

b. it increases as the size of the muscle increases

71
Q

What’s true about the duration of depolarization? a. it’s constant throughout all muscles b. it increases as the size of the muscle increases c. it decreases as the size of the muscle increases

A

a. it’s constant throughout all muscles

72
Q

Which muscle has the shortest contraction time? a. soleus b. gastrocnemius c. ocular muscle

A

c. ocular muscle

73
Q

What’s true about tetanization? a. power is increasing linearly b. power is increasing non-linearly

A

b. power is increasing non-linearly

74
Q

What’s true about tetanization? a. the higher the frequency the smoother plateau phase b. the lower the frequency the smoother plateau phase

A

a. the higher the frequency the smoother plateau phase

75
Q

Which part of the action potential do you use to measure latency? a. onset b. amplitude d. recovery period

A

a. onset (its the most consistent, the peak/amplitude varies based on the number of motor units)

76
Q

What is the patient not allowed to do for 24 hours before an EMG test? a. drink water b. exercise c. use lotion d. breathe

A

c. use lotion

77
Q

How do you calculate the nerve conduction velocity?

A

distance/time (diffrence between stimulation points)/(difference between latencies)

78
Q

What is the mechanism of acetylcholine inactivation in the synaptic cleft?

A. Enzymatic inactivation of acetylcholine into acetate and choline

B. Diffuse out of synaptic cleft

C. Reuptake into post-synaptic terminal

A

A. Enzymatic inactivation of acetylcholine into acetate and choline

79
Q

What is the correct order of synaptic vesicles?

A. Priming - Docking - Exocytosis - Endocytosis

B. Docking - Priming - Exocytosis - Endocytosis

C. Priming - Docking - Endocytosis - Exocytosis

D. Docking - Priming - Endocytosis - Exocytosis

A

B. Docking - Priming - Exocytosis - Endocytosis

MSK (16 decks)

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