Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MSK > Microbiology Review Q's > Flashcards

Microbiology Review Q's Flashcards

1. Viral Infections of Muscles, Joints, & Bones (1-10) -- 2. Infective Osteomyelitis (11-33) 3. Immunopathogenesis of Rheumatoid Arthriris (34-47) 2. Immunopathogenesis of Systemic Lupus Erythematosis (48-59)

1
Q

Which of the following causes oral sores? a. Coxsackievirus A b. Coxsackievirus B c. Hepatitis B d. Ross river virus

A

a. Coxsackievirus A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following may cause muscle and joint weakness? a. Ross river virus b. HIV c. Parvovirus d. Rubella

A

b. HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is treated with oseltamivir? a. Hepatitis B b. Ross river virus c. Influenza virus d. Rubella

A

g. Influenza virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following causes sharp chest and upper abdomen pain? a. influenza virus b. HIV c. Coxsackievirus B d. Hepatitis B

A

c. Coxsackievirus B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following causes elevated liver enzymes, arthritis, & a rash? a. influenza virus b. HIV c. Parvovirus d. Ross river virus

A

d. Ross river virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following causes jaundice, muscle, and joint pain? a. Coxsackievirus A b. Coxsackievirus B c. Hepatitis B d. Ross river virus

A

c. Hepatitis B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following causes generalized maculopapular rash and arthritis? a. Parvovirus b. Ross river virus c. Influenza virus d. Rubella

A

d. Rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following causes a lacy rash, arthritis, and pure red cell aplasia? a. influenza virus b. Rubella c. Parvovirus d. Ross river virus

A

c. Parvovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following causes myalgia? a. Hepatitis B b. Ross river virus c. Influenza virus d. Rubella

A

c. Influenza virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A pregnant women has joint pain. After delivey, doctors noticed malformations in the baby. Which of the following can cause this? a. Hepatitis B b. Ross river virus c. Influenza virus d. Rubella

A

d. Rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following is more at risk of damage caused by pressure? a. epiphysis b. metaphysis c. diaphysis

A

a. epiphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Patient has osteomyelitis for 4 weeks, what’s a better description? a. acute osteomyelitis b. chronic osteomyelitis

A

b. chronic osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does a foreign material cause more osteomyelitis? a. it inhibits the immune system b. its a site for multiplication c. the body attacks it

A

b. its a site for multiplication (nidus for infection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following most commonly causes osteomyelitis? a. oblique fracture b. transverse fracture c. hairline fracture d. open fracture

A

d. open fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In which of the following is osteomyelitis more recognizable? a. children b. teens c. adults d. elderly

A

a. children (systemic upset)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following species cause osteomyelitis in intravenous drug users? a. S. aureus b. Pseudomonas c. H. influenzae d. B. melitensis

A

b. pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following is least likely to get spinal osteomyelitis? a. children b. teens c. adults d. elderly

A

a. children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following patients are we most likely has radiological evidence? a. children b. teens c. elderly

A

c. elderly (they’re more likely to have chronic, and we’d see the sequestrum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following is known to cause chronic osteomyelitis? a. S. pyogenes b. Bacteroides spp. c. H. influenzae d. C. perfringens

A

b. Bacteroides spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following is most often isolated in all types of osteomyelitis? a. S. aureus b. C. perfringens c. H. influenzae d. M. tuberculosis

A

a. S. aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following is known to cause chronic osteomyelitis? a. S. pneumoniae b. C. perfringens c. Salmonella enterica d. M. tuberculosis

A

d. M. tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is known to cause osteomyelitis in patients with sickle cell? a. S. pneumoniae b. C. perfringens c. Salmonella enterica d. M. tuberculosis

A

c. Salmonella enterica (Salmonella spp.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following is known to cause osteomyelitis in patients with diabetic foot lesions? a. Anaerobic bacteria b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. S. pneumoniae d. M. tuberculosis

A

a. Anaerobic bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following is known to cause osteomyelitis in nosocomial infections? a. Anaerobic bacteria b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. S. pneumoniae d. M. tuberculosis

A

b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which one means newly formed bone? a. involucrum b. sequestrum

A

a. involucrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following is useless in the first week? a. MRI b. Ultrasound c. X-ray

A

c. X-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which can be used for gram-negative? a. fusidic acid b. ciprofloxacin c. clindamycin d. teicoplanin e. vancomycin

A

b. ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which cannot be used alone? a. fusidic acid b. ciprofloxacin c. clindamycin d. teicoplanin e. rifampicin

A

e. rifampicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which is used for gram-positive? a. fusidic acid b. ciprofloxacin c. clindamycin d. teicoplanin e. rifampicin

A

d. teicoplanin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which is able to penetrate the bone very well? a. fusidic acid b. ciprofloxacin c. clindamycin d. teicoplanin e. rifampicin

A

c. clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

back pain is indicative of which? a. acute osteomyelitis b. chronic osteomyelitis

A

b. chronic osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which usually affects a single long bone? a. acute osteomyelitis b. chronic osteomyelitis

A

a. acute osteomyelitis

33
Q

Which causes osteomyelitis in a foreign body associated infection? a. Anaerobic bacteria b. Pseudomonas app. c. Propionibacterium app.

A

c. Propionibacterium app.

34
Q

Which of the following causes spine inflammation and has the main symptom of low back pain? a. Spondyloarthritis b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Ankylosing spondylitis

A

a. Spondyloarthritis (C= ankylosing means stiffness and that’s the main symptom)

35
Q

Which HLA allele causes Ankylosing spondylitis? a. C33 b. B27 c. DR4 d. HC9

A

b. B27

36
Q

Which TWO HLA alleles causes Rheumatoid arthritis? a. HLA-DR1 b. HLA-DR2 c. HLA-DR3 d. HLA-DR4

A

a. HLA-DR1 & d. HLA-DR4

37
Q

Which TWO HLA alleles causes SLE? a. HLA-DR1 b. HLA-DR2 c. HLA-DR3 d. HLA-DR4

A

b. HLA-DR2 & c. HLA-DR3

38
Q

Which HLA allele causes a more severe RA? a. HLA-DR1 b. HLA-DR4

A

a. HLA-DR1

39
Q

Which hypersensitivity type is utilized in RA and SLE? a. Type I hypersensitivity b. Type II hypersensitivity c. Type III hypersensitivity d. Type IV hypersensitivity

A

c. Type III hypersensitivity

40
Q

Which of the following so anti-CCP antibodies indicate? a. SLE b. RA c. malignancies

A

b. RA

41
Q

Which is more common in RA? a. anti-IgA b. anti-IgD c. anti-IgM d. anti-IgG e. anti-IgE

A

d. anti-IgG

42
Q

Anti-CCP antibodies are against which amino acid?

A

Citrulline

43
Q

What’s true about synovial lining? a. made of 4-5 layers of tissue b. intercellular fluid can’t cross it c. made of fibroblasts and macrophages

A

c. made of fibroblasts and macrophages

44
Q

What cytokine plays a major role in RA?

A

TNF-alpha (made by macrophages!)

45
Q

Which of the following does the initial attraction of cells (macrophages & neutrophils) in RA? a. IL-1 b. TNFa c. IL-6 d. IL-7

A

a. IL-1

46
Q

Which of the following activates T cells in RA? a. IL-1 b. TNFa c. IL-6 d. IL-7

A

c. IL-6

47
Q

How does Methotrexate help RA patients?

A

Blocks lymphocyte cycling

48
Q

Which leads to death in SLE patients? a. respiratory manifestations b. renal manifestations c. CNS manifestations d. skin manifestations

A

b. renal manifestations

49
Q

Which is the least common manifestation in SLE patients? a. respiratory manifestations b. renal manifestations c. CNS manifestations d. skin manifestations

A

c. CNS manifestations

50
Q

T/F: UV light only induces skin manifestations of SLE

A

F, it’s a trigger for systemic and dermal manifestations

51
Q

Which complement protein is used for SLE screening a. C1u b. C1q c. C1n d. C1p

A

b. C1q

52
Q

Which of the following cytokines have a higher serum titer in people with active SLE? a. IL-7 b. IFN-a c. IFN-γ d. IL-9

A

c. IFN-γ

53
Q

Non-specific polyclonal activation of B-cell occurs in a. SLE b. RA c. malignancies

A

a. SLE

54
Q

Which TWO of the following cytokines are lower in people with SLE? a. IL-1 b. IL-2 c. IL-4 d. INF-g e. TGF- b

A

b. IL-2 & e. TGF- b

55
Q

What mediates the clearance of immune complexes by phagocytic cells in the liver?

A

C receptors

56
Q

What two complement proteins attract neutrophils?

A

C3a C5b

57
Q

Which hypersensitivity type is utilized to make auto-antibodies against RBC’s in SLE? a. Type I hypersensitivity b. Type II hypersensitivity c. Type III hypersensitivity d. Type IV hypersensitivity

A

b. Type II hypersensitivity (Type II hypersensitivity leads to leukopenia, thrombocytopenia & hemolytic anemia)

58
Q

UV light induces apoptosis of which skin cells?

A

keratinocytes (Patient with SLE have an inappropriate expression of class II MHC molecules+ (Ro) Ag on them)

59
Q

What do drugs targeting BLyS proteins do?

A

stop the B-lymphocyte stimulator protein (BLyS) from activating B cells, thus reducing antibody production

60
Q

Patient has fever and monoarticular joint pain. You suspect septic arthritis, what’s your next course of action? a. aspirate joint b. give antimicrobial therapy

A

a. aspirate joint (mandatory to aspirate first)

61
Q

How do you treat arthritis in a prosthesis joint?

A

surgically remove the prosthesis (antimicrobial therapy won’t work alone)

62
Q

Patient with diabetic foot acquired septic arthritis, what’s a likely causative organism? a. Coliforms b. Haemophilus influenzae (type b) c. Streptococcus agalactiae d. Salmonella

A

c. Streptococcus agalactiae

63
Q

Which of the following needs both factor X&Y to grow? a. Coliforms b. Haemophilus influenzae (type b) c. Streptococcus agalactiae d. Salmonella

A

b. Haemophilus influenzae (type b)

64
Q

Whats FLASE about disseminated gonococcal infections? a. Usually polyarticular b. Affects men and women equally c. Only 1-5% get articular manifestations

A

b. Affects men and women equally (women are asymptomatic, so the infection disseminates to the joints more often)

65
Q

10 year old has fever, diarrhea, jaundice, and joint swlling and pain. Whats more likely? a. Coliforms b. Haemophilus influenzae (type b) c. Streptococcus agalactiae d. Salmonella

A

d. Salmonella

66
Q

An AIDS patient acquired septic arthritis, what’s a likely causative organism? a. Coliforms b. Haemophilus influenzae (type b) c. Streptococcus agalactiae d. Salmonella

A

a. Coliforms (affect immunosupressed)

67
Q

Patient complains of sacroiliac joint pain. He visited his farm 3 days ago but didn’t drink milk. Whats more likely? a. Brucella b. Salmonella c. Mycobacteria d. Streptococcus agalactiae

A

a. Brucella (don’t have to drink raw milk to get it, its respiratory too)

68
Q

A one year old acquired septic arthritis, what’s a likely causative organism? a. Coliforms b. Haemophilus influenzae (type b) c. Streptococcus agalactiae d. Salmonella

A

b. Haemophilus influenzae (type b)

69
Q

Which organism stains black in SS agar? a. Coliforms b. Haemophilus influenzae (type b) c. Streptococcus agalactiae d. Salmonella

A

d. Salmonella

70
Q

Patient had discharging sinus, which was drained, and knee pain. what’s a likely causative organism? a. Brucella b. Salmonella c. Mycobacteria d. Streptococcus agalactiae

A

c. Mycobacteria (tuberculosis)

71
Q

Which organism must be treated with triple therapy, debridement, and arthrodesis? a. Brucella b. Salmonella c. Mycobacteria d. Streptococcus agalactiae

A

c. Mycobacteria (tuberculosis) (debridement= the removal of damaged tissue or foreign objects from a wound arthrodesis= artificial induction of joint ossification between two bones by surgery)

72
Q

A 20-year-old female presented with arthralgia, lacy maculopapular rash, and “slapped cheek” appearance. What is the most likely causative agent?

A. Rubella

B. Parvovirus

C. Influenza

D. Enterovirus

A

B. Parvovirus

73
Q

A 21-year-old male sustained an open fracture to his right leg and underwent pins and needles fixation. Six months later, he developed osteomyelitis. Blood culture revealed gram positive cocci. What is the most likely causative agent of the infection?

A. Coagulase negative staphylococci

B. Escherichia coli

C. Treponema pallidum

D. Brucella melitensis

A

A. Coagulase negative staphylococci

74
Q

A 14-year-old girl with sickle cell disease presented with osteomyelitis of her humerus. Blood culture showed a gram negative bacillus. What is the most likely causative agent of the infection

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

B. Salmonella species

C. Streptococcus pyogenes

D. Streptococcus typhi

A

B. Salmonella species

75
Q

Patient with a diabetic foot ulcer presented with osteomyelitis. Blood culture showed beta hemolytic gram positive cocci in chains. What is the most likely causative agent of the infection?

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

B. Streptococcus agalactiae

C. Streptococcus pyogenes

D. Staphylococcus aureus

A

B. Streptococcus agalactiae

76
Q

The antibody is rheumatoid arthritis targets which autoantigen?

A. IgM

B. Nuclear antigen

C. Cytoplasmic antigen

D. IgG

A

D. IgG

77
Q

What is the function of TH1 cells?

A. Secrete perforins

B. Produce antibodies

C. Produce inflammatory cytokines

D. Activate complements

A

C. Produce inflammatory cytokines

78
Q

What is the leading cause of hemolytic anemiain SLE?(AskDr.)

A. Neutrophil release proteases

B. Perforins by cytotoxic cells

C. IL-2

D. Complement activation

A

A. Neutrophil release proteases

D. Complement activation

MSK (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions