Biochemistry Review Q's Flashcards
LECTURES 1. Muscle Biochemistry (1-27) SEMINARS: 1. Proteoglycan & Biochemistry of Joints (28-44) 2. Mitochondrial genome: Biogenesis & Defects (45-60)
1
Q
Which of the following sources of ATP do you use when you suddenly run from class because of a fire alarm? a. aerobic b. anaerobic
A
b. anaerobic
2
Q
Why is chicken meat white? a. no fat b. no ATP c. no mitochondria
A
c. no mitochondria
3
Q
Which of the following muscles is used by a long-distance runner? a. largest diameter muscles b. fast-twitch c. slow-twitch
A
c. slow-twitch
4
Q
Which of the following is used by muscles at rest? a. fatty acids b. glucose c. glycogen
A
a. fatty acids
5
Q
Which of the following muscles is used by a weight lifter? a. smallest diameter muscles b. fast-twitch c. slow-twitch
A
b. fast-twitch
6
Q
Inhibition of glucose utilization is strongest at which level? a. PFK-1 b. PFK-2 c. PDH
A
c. PDH
7
Q
What inhibits PFK-1? a. citrate accumulation b. acetyl-CoA c. NADH
A
a. citrate accumulation
8
Q
What’s a commonly used as a measure of kidney function? a. creatinine b. citrate c. carnitine
A
a. creatinine
9
Q
What does the body do when the ATP is high? a. inhibits malonyl coA b. inhibits carnitine transferase I c. inhibits carnitine transferase II
A
b. inhibits carnitine transferase I
10
Q
Which enzyme is directly inibited by high ATP levels? a. creatine phosphate b. adenylate kinase c. isocitrate dehydrogenase
A
c. isocitrate dehydrogenase
11
Q
Which of the following provides an ATP molecule? a. creatine phosphate b. creatine kinase c. isocitrate dehydrogenase
A
b. creatine kinase
12
Q
Which of the following carries a high energy phosphate from the mitochondria to myosin filaments? a. creatine phosphate b. creatine kinase c. isocitrate dehydrogenase
A
a. creatine phosphate
13
Q
When is ATP-CP Anaerobic Energy Pathway used? a. 40-minute walk b. short sprint
A
b. short sprint
14
Q
Which of the following provides an ATP molecule using two ADP molecules? a. adenylate kinase b. creatine kinase c. isocitrate dehydrogenase
A
a. adenylate kinase
15
Q
Which of the following activates glycogen phosphorylase b? a. AMP b. Ca+2 c. cAMP d. epinephrine
A
a. AMP
16
Q
Which of the following is used to fuel fast-twitch muscle fibers? a. anaerobic glycolysis b. aerobic glycolysis
A
a. anaerobic glycolysis
17
Q
What activates fatty acid oxidization? a. higher melonyl coA b. higher acetyl coA carboxylase c. AMP
A
c. AMP
18
Q
Which of the following inhibits phosphoprotein phosphatase? a. AMP b. Ca+2 c. cAMP d. epinephrine
A
c. cAMP
19
Q
Which of the following bind to calmodulin to activate phosphorylase kinase? a. AMP b. Ca+2 c. cAMP d. epinephrine
A
b. Ca+2
20
Q
Which of the following would happen to glycogen stores overnight? a. they decrease by 30% b. they decrease by 80% c. they stay the same
A
c. they stay the same
21
Q
Which of the following is used to eliminate nitrogen? a. cori cycle b. glucose alanine cycle
A
b. glucose alanine cycle
22
Q
Which of the following is used for high-intensity exercises? a. carbohydrates b. fatty acids
A
a. carbohydrates
23
Q
Glycogen degradation of which area is activated by glucagon? a. liver b. muscle c. both d. neither
A
a. liver
24
Q
Glycogen degradation of which area is activated by AMP? a. liver b. muscle c. both d. neither
A
b. muscle
25
Which of the following makes a higher number of ATP molecules? a. anaerobic glycolysis b. oxidative phosphorylation
b. oxidative phosphorylation
26
Which of the following has a higher amount of glycolytic enzymes? a. fast-twitch glycolytic fibers b. slow-twitch glycolytic fibers
a. fast-twitch glycolytic fibers
27
Which of the following is used to recycle lactate? a. cori cycle b. glucose alanine cycle
a. cori cycle
28
Which of the following GAG types is longer? a. chondroitin sulfate b. keratan sulfate
a. chondroitin sulfate
29
How are core proteins linked to hyaluronic acid? a. linker protein b. covalent bond
a. linker protein
30
Where are large aggregates of proteoglycan found? a. synovial fluid b. pericellular matrix c. intracellular matrix d. extracellular matric
c. intracellular matrix
31
Which of the following is used to treat/modify the joint damage caused by osteoarthritis? a. glucosamine b. glucosamine-6-phosphate c. both d. neither
d. neither
32
Which of the following is a proven effect of Glucosamine? a. articular cartilage restoration b. anti-inflammatory effect
b. anti-inflammatory effect
33
Many markets cell oral Glucosamine. Where do they extract it from?
mainly derived from chitin in crustacean shells
34
What kind of person is not allowed to consume oral Glucosamine?
A person with a shellfish allergy
35
Which is the major proteoglycan that makes up cartilage?
aggrecan
36
Patient presents with joint pain, swelling, and stiffness. CBC indicates absence of neutrophils. Synovitis is present as well as in infiltration of activated B cells, T lymphocytes, and overexpression of proinflammatory mediators. What's most likely? a. rheumatoid arthritis b. osteoarthritis
b. osteoarthritis
37
Which has high neutrophil count? a. rheumatoid arthritis b. osteoarthritis
a. rheumatoid arthritis
38
How do you diagnose osteoarthritis using biomarkers?
Monoclonal antibodies have been developed that recognize products of proteoglycan or collagen degradation
39
Which has low neutrophil count? a. rheumatoid arthritis b. osteoarthritis
b. osteoarthritis
40
Which of the following is helpful in detecting early cases of osteoarthritis? a. MMP b. ADAMT c. TIMPS d. GAGs
d. GAGs (glucosaminoglycans)
41
Which of the following occurs first? a. release of glucosaminoglycans b. appearance of collagen fragments
a. release of glucosaminoglycans
42
How are disaccharide residues linked with core proteins?
through serine or threonine residues using a galactose-galactose-xylose trisaccharide link
43
Which collagen fiber is the most available in cartilage? a. type 1 b. type 2 c. type 5 d. type 6
b. type 2
44
How are glycosaminoglycans (GAG) linked to core proteins? a. linker protein b. covalent bond
b. covalent bond
45
T/F: most mitochondrial DNA encodes for tRNA's
true, 22 out of the 37 encode for tRNA
46
Which is circular DNA? a. mitochondrial DNA b. nuclear DNA
a. mitochondrial DNA
47
Which is mostly non-coding? a. mitochondrial DNA b. nuclear DNA
b. nuclear DNA
48
Which has a haploid inheritance patter? a. mitochondrial DNA b. nuclear DNA
a. mitochondrial DNA
49
Which follows a relaxed replication? a. mitochondrial DNA b. nuclear DNA
a. mitochondrial DNA
50
Why is mitochondrial DNA more susceptible to damage?
no protection, more ROS exposure, bad repair mechanisms
51
Which of the following is due to mutations in the tRNA leucine gene? a. MERRF b. MMIT c. MELAS
c. MELAS
52
Which of the following is due to mutations in the tRNA lysine gene? a. MERRF b. MMIT c. MELAS
a. MERRF
53
Which of the following is due to mutations in the tRNA glutamic acid gene? a. MERRF b. MMIT c. MELAS
b. MMIT
54
Mutations in which mitochondrial DNA genes cause neuromuscular myopathy? a. tRNA genes b. rRNA genes c. protein-coding genes
a. tRNA genes
55
What are the first areas to be affected when ATP production is decreased?
brain and muscles
56
Why isn't paternal mitochondria utilized? a. paternal mitochondria gets eliminated by autophagy b. paternal mitochondria does not enter the egg c. paternal mitochondria is defective
a. paternal mitochondria gets eliminated by autophagy
57
What does a positive COX test indicate?
when positive, it indicates a normal efficiency of oxidative phosphorylation (cytochrome C oxidase high) and ATP synthesis
58
What does a positive COX test look like? a. white color b. red color c. brown color
c. brown color
59
Which stain is used to see red ragged muscle fibers?
Gomori Trichrome
60
Describe the pH of tissue in a patient with mitochondrial myopathy? a. high pH b. low pH
b. low pH (lactic acidosis)
61
What's the key substrate for purine synthesis?
PRPP (5-phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate)
62
what two things inhibit PRPP synthetase?
ADP & GDP
63
what two things inhibit GPAT enzyme?
AMP & GMP
64
Which of the following is used to make AMP? a. ATP b. GTP c. NAD
b. GTP
65
Which of the following is used to make GMP? a. ATP b. GTP c. aspartic acid
a. ATP
66
Which enzyme makes an ATP out of 2 ADP's? a. ribonucleotide reductase b. adenylate kinase d. AMP deaminase
b. adenylate kinase
67
What does the purine nucleotide cycle produce?
NH4 (ammonium) and Fumarate
68
Which enzyme makes nucleotides into deoxynucleotides? a. ribonucleotide reductase b. adenylate kinase d. AMP deaminase
a. ribonucleotide reductase
69
What enzyme converts AMP to IMP? and what does it release from this conversion?
AMP deaminase. it releases NH4
70
T/F: purines and pyrimidine catabolism is done by converting them to uric acid then excretion
false, pyrimidine is not made into uric acid. It's ultimately catabolized (degraded) to CO2
71
Inactivity of which enzyme causes fatigue of skeletal muscle during exercise? a. ribonucleotide reductase b. adenylate kinase d. AMP deaminase
d. AMP deaminase
72
T/F: uric acid has antioxidant properties
true
73
What is the majority of uric acid excreted into? a. urine b. feces
a. urine
74
Which of the following is the favored form at pH 7.4? a. uric acid b. urate anion
b. urate anion
75
Which best describes the urate solubility? a. more soluble with high ph b. more soluble at low ph c. more soluble at colder temperatures
a. more soluble with high ph
76
Which of the following have a higher uric acid solubility? a. men b. women
a. men
77
What's the major cause of hyperuricemia? a. excess meat consumption b. overproduction of uric acid c. under excretion of uric acid
c. under excretion of uric acid
78
7 y/o boy comes in with compulsive self-mutilation of the head and hands, learning difficulties and involuntary muscular movements. What's the diagnosis?
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
79
What things activates the GPAT enzyme?
high PRPP
80
What does NOT cause higher purine? a. higher PRPP synthase b. HGPRT deficiency c. lower r6p
c. lower r6p (A= PRPP is a positive activator of GPAT, which is an enzyme in the purine synthesis pathway B= HGPRT is part of the salvage pathway, which uses PRPP. If it'd deficient and not using PRPP, PRPP build up and activates GPAT C= R6P is a driver of the formation of PRPP)
81
What is identified as a therapeutic target of gout?
IL-1b
82
How does probenecid help treat gout?
it increases renal clearance by acting on URAT1 receptor
83
probenecid acts on which transporter? a. OAT1 b. ABCG2 c. URAT1 d. SLC2A e. MRP4
c. URAT1
84
Describe the relationship between allopurinol and hypoxanthine. a. they function similarly b. they have similar structures c. irreversible inhibition
b. they have similar structures (allopurinol is an analog of hypoxanthine)
85
Describe the relationship between allopurinol and xanthine oxidase. a. they function similarly b. they have similar structures c. irreversible inhibition
c. irreversible inhibition (allopurinol attaches because it looks like hypoxanthine, but then it stops the enzyme from working and doesn't let go)
86
Consumption of which of the following can trigger gout? a. cigarettes b. candy c. energy drink d. all of the above
d. all of the above (ethanol in cigarettes and fructose in candy & energy drinks can build up AMP and break down purine leading to high uric acid)
87
What elevates lactic acid levels?
high G6P
high AMP
high R5P
reduced HGPRT
reduced APRT
88
The most common cell that creates collagen is
fibroblasts
89
What collagen type can act as a filter? a. fibril forming b. network forming c. fibril associated
b. network forming
90
Which collagen type is most available? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 g. 7
a. 1
91
Which collagen type is used to make ligaments or tendons? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 g. 7
g. 7
92
The alpha chain structure is Gly-X-Y. Which of the following often represents X? a. glycine b. hydroxyproline c. proline d. adenine
c. proline
93
Which of the following parts of the alpha chain structure induces a kink? a. glycine b. hydroxyproline c. proline d. adenine
c. proline
94
Which of the following parts of the alpha chain structure is the smallest? a. glycine b. hydroxyproline c. proline d. adenine
a. glycine
95
The alpha chain structure is Gly-X-Y. Which of the following often represents Y? a. glycine b. hydroxyproline c. proline d. adenine
b. hydroxyproline
96
Which of the following can act to facilitate hydrogen bonding to the triple helix molecule? a. hydroxyproline residue d. hydroxylysine residue
a. hydroxyproline residue
97
What do the prolyl and lysyl hydroxylase enzymes need to function?
alpha-ketoglutarate and vitamin C
98
Which of the following prevents excessive flexibility of chains? a. glycine b. hydroxyproline c. proline d. adenine
c. proline
99
Which can serve as the attachment point for glycosylation? a. hydroxyproline residue d. hydroxylysine residue
d. hydroxylysine residue
100
What can act as a collagen synthesis marker?
hydroxyproline residue hydroxylysine residue
101
What happens to the alpha chains if hydroxyproline residue is lost?
it then has less strength because hydroxyproline helps make hydrogen bonds, which makes it more powerful
102
Where are procollagen chains made? a. ER lumen b. RER c. Golgi d. Extracellular space e. Vesicles
b. RER
103
Where is tropocollagen made? a. ER lumen b. RER c. Golgi d. Extracellular space e. Vesicles
d. Extracellular space
104
Where is the triple helix assembled? a. ER lumen b. RER c. Golgi d. Extracellular space e. Vesicles
a. ER lumen & c. Golgi
105
covalent crosslinking is done by which enzyme
lysine oxidase
106
Which enzyme acts extracellularly? a. prolyl hydroxylase b. lysyl hydroxylase c. lysine oxidase
c. lysine oxidase (procollagen peptidase also works extracellularly)
107
What type of links occurs when two allysine molecules bind? a. schiff base link b. aldol link
b. aldol link
108
Whats is allysine? and how to we make it?
its a derivative of lysine produced by lysyl oxidase enzyme in the extracellular matrix
109
Which enzyme needs copper to function? a. procollagen peptidase b. lysine oxidase c. hydroxylase
b. lysine oxidase
110
What type of links occurs when lysine and allysine bind? a. schiff base link b. aldol link
a. schiff base link
111
T/F: generally speaking the life span of collagen fibers is short
false, collagen is very stable and can last for up to several years
112
If a patient had high hydroxyproline in their urine, what can you assume?
high collagen degradation
113
What do you call fibroblasts inside tendons?
tenocytes
114
What is an adhesive molecule that's associated with cell junctions?
fibronectin (binds collagens and integrins)
115
T/F: after a tendon fully heals from an injury, and crosslinks are formed, then tendon returns to its previous strength before the injury
false, it becomes 30% weaker
116
Which enzyme is affected when a patient has scurvy? a. procollagen peptidase b. lysine oxidase c. hydroxylase
c. hydroxylase
117
Which enzyme is affected when a patient eats too many Lathyrus odoratus? a. procollagen peptidase b. lysine oxidase c. hydroxylase
b. lysine oxidase
118
"collagen suicide" is found in which inherited disorder?
OI
119
Which collagen type is affected by epidermolysis bullosa? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 g. 7
g. 7
120
Which TWO collagen types are affected in EDS? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 g. 7
a. 1 & c. 3
121
Muscle glucokinase has a high Km for glucose but low Vmax. How is this overcome during vigorous exercise?
A. Inhibit glycolysis
B. Activate glycogenolysis
C. Inhibit lipolysis
B. Activate glycogenolysis
122
Which enzymes are activated by Ca2+ released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
1. 1 + 2
2. 2 + 3
3. 1+ 4
4. 1 + 3
C. 1+ 4 (pyruvate dehydrogenase + Protein Kinase A)
124
Which of the following is true regarding osteoarthritis?
A. Increased TIMPs
B. Increased MMPs
C. Increased articular cartilage
D. Relieved by activity
B. Increased MMPs
125
What are the chances that all sons will inherit a mitochondrial myopathy if the father has the disease and the mother is healthy?
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 100%
A. 0%
126
What gene mutation is associated with MELAS?
A. tRNA leu
B. tRNA lys
C. tRNA glu
D. tRNA cys
A. tRNA leu
127
Which of the following is true regarding collagen?
A. Has strong electronegative charges
B. Amino acid structure consists of Gly-X-Y
C. One of the amino acids is hydroxymethionine
B. Amino acid structure consists of Gly-X-Y
128
Which of the following is part of collagen structure?
A. Pleated sheets
B. Alpha helix
C. Double helix
D. Triple helix
D. Triple helix
129
Why does copper deficiency result in defective collagen formation?
A. Cleavage of procollagen C and N terminals
B. Reduced activity of lysyl oxidase
C. Reduced activity of prolyl hydroxylase
D. Reduced glycosylation of lysine
B. Reduced activity of lysyl oxidase
