Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MSK > Biochemistry Review Q's > Flashcards

Biochemistry Review Q's Flashcards

LECTURES 1. Muscle Biochemistry (1-27) SEMINARS: 1. Proteoglycan & Biochemistry of Joints (28-44) 2. Mitochondrial genome: Biogenesis & Defects (45-60)

1
Q

Which of the following sources of ATP do you use when you suddenly run from class because of a fire alarm? a. aerobic b. anaerobic

A

b. anaerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why is chicken meat white? a. no fat b. no ATP c. no mitochondria

A

c. no mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following muscles is used by a long-distance runner? a. largest diameter muscles b. fast-twitch c. slow-twitch

A

c. slow-twitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is used by muscles at rest? a. fatty acids b. glucose c. glycogen

A

a. fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following muscles is used by a weight lifter? a. smallest diameter muscles b. fast-twitch c. slow-twitch

A

b. fast-twitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Inhibition of glucose utilization is strongest at which level? a. PFK-1 b. PFK-2 c. PDH

A

c. PDH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What inhibits PFK-1? a. citrate accumulation b. acetyl-CoA c. NADH

A

a. citrate accumulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What’s a commonly used as a measure of kidney function? a. creatinine b. citrate c. carnitine

A

a. creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does the body do when the ATP is high? a. inhibits malonyl coA b. inhibits carnitine transferase I c. inhibits carnitine transferase II

A

b. inhibits carnitine transferase I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which enzyme is directly inibited by high ATP levels? a. creatine phosphate b. adenylate kinase c. isocitrate dehydrogenase

A

c. isocitrate dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following provides an ATP molecule? a. creatine phosphate b. creatine kinase c. isocitrate dehydrogenase

A

b. creatine kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following carries a high energy phosphate from the mitochondria to myosin filaments? a. creatine phosphate b. creatine kinase c. isocitrate dehydrogenase

A

a. creatine phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When is ATP-CP Anaerobic Energy Pathway used? a. 40-minute walk b. short sprint

A

b. short sprint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following provides an ATP molecule using two ADP molecules? a. adenylate kinase b. creatine kinase c. isocitrate dehydrogenase

A

a. adenylate kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following activates glycogen phosphorylase b? a. AMP b. Ca+2 c. cAMP d. epinephrine

A

a. AMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following is used to fuel fast-twitch muscle fibers? a. anaerobic glycolysis b. aerobic glycolysis

A

a. anaerobic glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What activates fatty acid oxidization? a. higher melonyl coA b. higher acetyl coA carboxylase c. AMP

A

c. AMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following inhibits phosphoprotein phosphatase? a. AMP b. Ca+2 c. cAMP d. epinephrine

A

c. cAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following bind to calmodulin to activate phosphorylase kinase? a. AMP b. Ca+2 c. cAMP d. epinephrine

A

b. Ca+2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following would happen to glycogen stores overnight? a. they decrease by 30% b. they decrease by 80% c. they stay the same

A

c. they stay the same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following is used to eliminate nitrogen? a. cori cycle b. glucose alanine cycle

A

b. glucose alanine cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is used for high-intensity exercises? a. carbohydrates b. fatty acids

A

a. carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Glycogen degradation of which area is activated by glucagon? a. liver b. muscle c. both d. neither

A

a. liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Glycogen degradation of which area is activated by AMP? a. liver b. muscle c. both d. neither

A

b. muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following makes a higher number of ATP molecules? a. anaerobic glycolysis b. oxidative phosphorylation

A

b. oxidative phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following has a higher amount of glycolytic enzymes? a. fast-twitch glycolytic fibers b. slow-twitch glycolytic fibers

A

a. fast-twitch glycolytic fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following is used to recycle lactate? a. cori cycle b. glucose alanine cycle

A

a. cori cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following GAG types is longer? a. chondroitin sulfate b. keratan sulfate

A

a. chondroitin sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How are core proteins linked to hyaluronic acid? a. linker protein b. covalent bond

A

a. linker protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Where are large aggregates of proteoglycan found? a. synovial fluid b. pericellular matrix c. intracellular matrix d. extracellular matric

A

c. intracellular matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following is used to treat/modify the joint damage caused by osteoarthritis? a. glucosamine b. glucosamine-6-phosphate c. both d. neither

A

d. neither

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following is a proven effect of Glucosamine? a. articular cartilage restoration b. anti-inflammatory effect

A

b. anti-inflammatory effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Many markets cell oral Glucosamine. Where do they extract it from?

A

mainly derived from chitin in crustacean shells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What kind of person is not allowed to consume oral Glucosamine?

A

A person with a shellfish allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which is the major proteoglycan that makes up cartilage?

A

aggrecan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Patient presents with joint pain, swelling, and stiffness. CBC indicates absence of neutrophils. Synovitis is present as well as in infiltration of activated B cells, T lymphocytes, and overexpression of proinflammatory mediators. What’s most likely? a. rheumatoid arthritis b. osteoarthritis

A

b. osteoarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which has high neutrophil count? a. rheumatoid arthritis b. osteoarthritis

A

a. rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How do you diagnose osteoarthritis using biomarkers?

A

Monoclonal antibodies have been developed that recognize products of proteoglycan or collagen degradation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which has low neutrophil count? a. rheumatoid arthritis b. osteoarthritis

A

b. osteoarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of the following is helpful in detecting early cases of osteoarthritis? a. MMP b. ADAMT c. TIMPS d. GAGs

A

d. GAGs (glucosaminoglycans)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following occurs first? a. release of glucosaminoglycans b. appearance of collagen fragments

A

a. release of glucosaminoglycans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How are disaccharide residues linked with core proteins?

A

through serine or threonine residues using a galactose-galactose-xylose trisaccharide link

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which collagen fiber is the most available in cartilage? a. type 1 b. type 2 c. type 5 d. type 6

A

b. type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How are glycosaminoglycans (GAG) linked to core proteins? a. linker protein b. covalent bond

A

b. covalent bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

T/F: most mitochondrial DNA encodes for tRNA’s

A

true, 22 out of the 37 encode for tRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which is circular DNA? a. mitochondrial DNA b. nuclear DNA

A

a. mitochondrial DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which is mostly non-coding? a. mitochondrial DNA b. nuclear DNA

A

b. nuclear DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which has a haploid inheritance patter? a. mitochondrial DNA b. nuclear DNA

A

a. mitochondrial DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which follows a relaxed replication? a. mitochondrial DNA b. nuclear DNA

A

a. mitochondrial DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Why is mitochondrial DNA more susceptible to damage?

A

no protection, more ROS exposure, bad repair mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which of the following is due to mutations in the tRNA leucine gene? a. MERRF b. MMIT c. MELAS

A

c. MELAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which of the following is due to mutations in the tRNA lysine gene? a. MERRF b. MMIT c. MELAS

A

a. MERRF

53
Q

Which of the following is due to mutations in the tRNA glutamic acid gene? a. MERRF b. MMIT c. MELAS

A

b. MMIT

54
Q

Mutations in which mitochondrial DNA genes cause neuromuscular myopathy? a. tRNA genes b. rRNA genes c. protein-coding genes

A

a. tRNA genes

55
Q

What are the first areas to be affected when ATP production is decreased?

A

brain and muscles

56
Q

Why isn’t paternal mitochondria utilized? a. paternal mitochondria gets eliminated by autophagy b. paternal mitochondria does not enter the egg c. paternal mitochondria is defective

A

a. paternal mitochondria gets eliminated by autophagy

57
Q

What does a positive COX test indicate?

A

when positive, it indicates a normal efficiency of oxidative phosphorylation (cytochrome C oxidase high) and ATP synthesis

58
Q

What does a positive COX test look like? a. white color b. red color c. brown color

A

c. brown color

59
Q

Which stain is used to see red ragged muscle fibers?

A

Gomori Trichrome

60
Q

Describe the pH of tissue in a patient with mitochondrial myopathy? a. high pH b. low pH

A

b. low pH (lactic acidosis)

61
Q

What’s the key substrate for purine synthesis?

A

PRPP (5-phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate)

62
Q

what two things inhibit PRPP synthetase?

A

ADP & GDP

63
Q

what two things inhibit GPAT enzyme?

A

AMP & GMP

64
Q

Which of the following is used to make AMP? a. ATP b. GTP c. NAD

A

b. GTP

65
Q

Which of the following is used to make GMP? a. ATP b. GTP c. aspartic acid

A

a. ATP

66
Q

Which enzyme makes an ATP out of 2 ADP’s? a. ribonucleotide reductase b. adenylate kinase d. AMP deaminase

A

b. adenylate kinase

67
Q

What does the purine nucleotide cycle produce?

A

NH4 (ammonium) and Fumarate

68
Q

Which enzyme makes nucleotides into deoxynucleotides? a. ribonucleotide reductase b. adenylate kinase d. AMP deaminase

A

a. ribonucleotide reductase

69
Q

What enzyme converts AMP to IMP? and what does it release from this conversion?

A

AMP deaminase. it releases NH4

70
Q

T/F: purines and pyrimidine catabolism is done by converting them to uric acid then excretion

A

false, pyrimidine is not made into uric acid. It’s ultimately catabolized (degraded) to CO2

71
Q

Inactivity of which enzyme causes fatigue of skeletal muscle during exercise? a. ribonucleotide reductase b. adenylate kinase d. AMP deaminase

A

d. AMP deaminase

72
Q

T/F: uric acid has antioxidant properties

A

true

73
Q

What is the majority of uric acid excreted into? a. urine b. feces

A

a. urine

74
Q

Which of the following is the favored form at pH 7.4? a. uric acid b. urate anion

A

b. urate anion

75
Q

Which best describes the urate solubility? a. more soluble with high ph b. more soluble at low ph c. more soluble at colder temperatures

A

a. more soluble with high ph

76
Q

Which of the following have a higher uric acid solubility? a. men b. women

A

a. men

77
Q

What’s the major cause of hyperuricemia? a. excess meat consumption b. overproduction of uric acid c. under excretion of uric acid

A

c. under excretion of uric acid

78
Q

7 y/o boy comes in with compulsive self-mutilation of the head and hands, learning difficulties and involuntary muscular movements. What’s the diagnosis?

A

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

79
Q

What things activates the GPAT enzyme?

A

high PRPP

80
Q

What does NOT cause higher purine? a. higher PRPP synthase b. HGPRT deficiency c. lower r6p

A

c. lower r6p (A= PRPP is a positive activator of GPAT, which is an enzyme in the purine synthesis pathway B= HGPRT is part of the salvage pathway, which uses PRPP. If it’d deficient and not using PRPP, PRPP build up and activates GPAT C= R6P is a driver of the formation of PRPP)

81
Q

What is identified as a therapeutic target of gout?

A

IL-1b

82
Q

How does probenecid help treat gout?

A

it increases renal clearance by acting on URAT1 receptor

83
Q

probenecid acts on which transporter? a. OAT1 b. ABCG2 c. URAT1 d. SLC2A e. MRP4

A

c. URAT1

84
Q

Describe the relationship between allopurinol and hypoxanthine. a. they function similarly b. they have similar structures c. irreversible inhibition

A

b. they have similar structures (allopurinol is an analog of hypoxanthine)

85
Q

Describe the relationship between allopurinol and xanthine oxidase. a. they function similarly b. they have similar structures c. irreversible inhibition

A

c. irreversible inhibition (allopurinol attaches because it looks like hypoxanthine, but then it stops the enzyme from working and doesn’t let go)

86
Q

Consumption of which of the following can trigger gout? a. cigarettes b. candy c. energy drink d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above (ethanol in cigarettes and fructose in candy & energy drinks can build up AMP and break down purine leading to high uric acid)

87
Q

What elevates lactic acid levels?

A

high G6P

high AMP

high R5P

reduced HGPRT

reduced APRT

88
Q

The most common cell that creates collagen is

A

fibroblasts

89
Q

What collagen type can act as a filter? a. fibril forming b. network forming c. fibril associated

A

b. network forming

90
Q

Which collagen type is most available? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 g. 7

A

a. 1

91
Q

Which collagen type is used to make ligaments or tendons? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 g. 7

A

g. 7

92
Q

The alpha chain structure is Gly-X-Y. Which of the following often represents X? a. glycine b. hydroxyproline c. proline d. adenine

A

c. proline

93
Q

Which of the following parts of the alpha chain structure induces a kink? a. glycine b. hydroxyproline c. proline d. adenine

A

c. proline

94
Q

Which of the following parts of the alpha chain structure is the smallest? a. glycine b. hydroxyproline c. proline d. adenine

A

a. glycine

95
Q

The alpha chain structure is Gly-X-Y. Which of the following often represents Y? a. glycine b. hydroxyproline c. proline d. adenine

A

b. hydroxyproline

96
Q

Which of the following can act to facilitate hydrogen bonding to the triple helix molecule? a. hydroxyproline residue d. hydroxylysine residue

A

a. hydroxyproline residue

97
Q

What do the prolyl and lysyl hydroxylase enzymes need to function?

A

alpha-ketoglutarate and vitamin C

98
Q

Which of the following prevents excessive flexibility of chains? a. glycine b. hydroxyproline c. proline d. adenine

A

c. proline

99
Q

Which can serve as the attachment point for glycosylation? a. hydroxyproline residue d. hydroxylysine residue

A

d. hydroxylysine residue

100
Q

What can act as a collagen synthesis marker?

A

hydroxyproline residue hydroxylysine residue

101
Q

What happens to the alpha chains if hydroxyproline residue is lost?

A

it then has less strength because hydroxyproline helps make hydrogen bonds, which makes it more powerful

102
Q

Where are procollagen chains made? a. ER lumen b. RER c. Golgi d. Extracellular space e. Vesicles

A

b. RER

103
Q

Where is tropocollagen made? a. ER lumen b. RER c. Golgi d. Extracellular space e. Vesicles

A

d. Extracellular space

104
Q

Where is the triple helix assembled? a. ER lumen b. RER c. Golgi d. Extracellular space e. Vesicles

A

a. ER lumen & c. Golgi

105
Q

covalent crosslinking is done by which enzyme

A

lysine oxidase

106
Q

Which enzyme acts extracellularly? a. prolyl hydroxylase b. lysyl hydroxylase c. lysine oxidase

A

c. lysine oxidase (procollagen peptidase also works extracellularly)

107
Q

What type of links occurs when two allysine molecules bind? a. schiff base link b. aldol link

A

b. aldol link

108
Q

Whats is allysine? and how to we make it?

A

its a derivative of lysine produced by lysyl oxidase enzyme in the extracellular matrix

109
Q

Which enzyme needs copper to function? a. procollagen peptidase b. lysine oxidase c. hydroxylase

A

b. lysine oxidase

110
Q

What type of links occurs when lysine and allysine bind? a. schiff base link b. aldol link

A

a. schiff base link

111
Q

T/F: generally speaking the life span of collagen fibers is short

A

false, collagen is very stable and can last for up to several years

112
Q

If a patient had high hydroxyproline in their urine, what can you assume?

A

high collagen degradation

113
Q

What do you call fibroblasts inside tendons?

A

tenocytes

114
Q

What is an adhesive molecule that’s associated with cell junctions?

A

fibronectin (binds collagens and integrins)

115
Q

T/F: after a tendon fully heals from an injury, and crosslinks are formed, then tendon returns to its previous strength before the injury

A

false, it becomes 30% weaker

116
Q

Which enzyme is affected when a patient has scurvy? a. procollagen peptidase b. lysine oxidase c. hydroxylase

A

c. hydroxylase

117
Q

Which enzyme is affected when a patient eats too many Lathyrus odoratus? a. procollagen peptidase b. lysine oxidase c. hydroxylase

A

b. lysine oxidase

118
Q

“collagen suicide” is found in which inherited disorder?

A

OI

119
Q

Which collagen type is affected by epidermolysis bullosa? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 g. 7

A

g. 7

120
Q

Which TWO collagen types are affected in EDS? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 g. 7

A

a. 1 & c. 3

121
Q

Muscle glucokinase has a high Km for glucose but low Vmax. How is this overcome during vigorous exercise?

A. Inhibit glycolysis

B. Activate glycogenolysis

C. Inhibit lipolysis

A

B. Activate glycogenolysis

122
Q

Which enzymes are activated by Ca2+ released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

  1. 1 + 2
  2. 2 + 3
  3. 1+ 4
  4. 1 + 3
A

C. 1+ 4 (pyruvate dehydrogenase + Protein Kinase A)

124
Q

Which of the following is true regarding osteoarthritis?

A. Increased TIMPs

B. Increased MMPs

C. Increased articular cartilage

D. Relieved by activity

A

B. Increased MMPs

125
Q

What are the chances that all sons will inherit a mitochondrial myopathy if the father has the disease and the mother is healthy?

A. 0%

B. 25%

C. 50%

D. 100%

A

A. 0%

126
Q

What gene mutation is associated with MELAS?

A. tRNA leu

B. tRNA lys

C. tRNA glu

D. tRNA cys

A

A. tRNA leu

127
Q

Which of the following is true regarding collagen?
A. Has strong electronegative charges
B. Amino acid structure consists of Gly-X-Y
C. One of the amino acids is hydroxymethionine

A

B. Amino acid structure consists of Gly-X-Y

128
Q

Which of the following is part of collagen structure?

A. Pleated sheets

B. Alpha helix

C. Double helix

D. Triple helix

A

D. Triple helix

129
Q

Why does copper deficiency result in defective collagen formation?

A. Cleavage of procollagen C and N terminals

B. Reduced activity of lysyl oxidase

C. Reduced activity of prolyl hydroxylase

D. Reduced glycosylation of lysine

A

B. Reduced activity of lysyl oxidase

MSK (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions