Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MSK > Learning Topic Review Q's > Flashcards

Learning Topic Review Q's Flashcards

LEARNING TOPICS 1. Behavioural Science: Psychological Aspects of Pain (1-12) 2. Pathology: Pathology of non-neoplastic diseases of Bone (13-33) 3. Nuclear Medicine: The Bone Scan (34-36) 4. Microbiology: Fungal Infections of the musculoskeletal system in immunocompromised patients (37-50) 5. Epidemiology/Prevention: Epidemiology of Rheumatoid Arthritis (51-56) 6. Pathology: Non-neoplastic diseases of Skeletal Muscle (57-78)

1
Q

Which of the following pain types is described as maladaptive?

  1. Acute
  2. Prechronic
  3. Chronic
A

C. Chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

T/F: prechronic pain is described as the transition between acute to chronic pain

A

false, its the critical time in which the patient heals OR proceeds to chronic pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following pain types is induced when a patient undergoes surgery?

  1. Acute
  2. Prechronic
  3. Chronic
A

A. Acute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is often used by children?

  1. 0-10 rating scale
  2. face scale
  3. visual analog scale
A

B. face scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which is the most reliable indicator of pain?

  1. electromyography
  2. physiological measures
  3. behavioral observation
A

C. behavioral observation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following would recover from pain faster?

  1. a person who takes a sick day to lay in bed and heal
  2. a person who would carry on with their regular lives
A

B. a person who would carry on with their regular lives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following is believed to increase pain perception?

  1. positive reinforcement
  2. negative reinforcement
A

A. positive reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following methods is used when a patient uses hypnosis to relieve pain?

  1. behavioral method
  2. cognitive method
  3. respondent method
A

C. respondent method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following methods is used when a patient uses Socratic questions to relieve pain?

  1. behavioral method
  2. cognitive method
  3. respondent method
A

B. cognitive method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following methods is used when a patient uses reinforcements to relieve pain?

  1. behavioral method
  2. cognitive method
  3. respondent method
A

A. behavioral method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following methods is used when a patient uses exercise to relieve pain?

  1. behavioral method
  2. cognitive method
  3. respondent method
A

A. behavioral method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following methods is used when a patient uses attention diversion to relieve pain?

  1. behavioral method
  2. cognitive method
  3. respondent method
A

B. cognitive method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following arises from the mononuclear phagocytic system?

  1. osteoblasts
  2. osteocytes
  3. osteoclasts
A

C. osteoclasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which is randomly organized in an irregular manner?

  1. woven bone
  2. spongy
  3. compact bones
A

A. woven bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following causes fatal anemia?

  1. Achondroplasia
  2. Osteopetrosis
  3. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
  4. Paget’s disease
A

B. Osteopetrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following is characterized by a blue sclera?

  1. Achondroplasia
  2. Osteopetrosis
  3. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
  4. Paget’s disease
A

C. Osteogenesis Imperfecta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following is characterized by excessive callus formation?

  1. Achondroplasia
  2. Osteopetrosis
  3. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
  4. Paget’s disease
A

C. Osteogenesis Imperfecta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following is caused by a mutation in the short arm of chromosome 4?

  1. Achondroplasia
  2. Osteopetrosis
  3. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
  4. Paget’s disease
A

A. Achondroplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following is characterized by thick bones?

  1. Achondroplasia
  2. Osteopetrosis
  3. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
  4. Paget’s disease
A

B. Osteopetrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following is causes blindness and deafness?

  1. Achondroplasia
  2. Osteopetrosis
  3. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
  4. Paget’s disease
A

B. Osteopetrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following is caused by mutation of FGFR3?

  1. Achondroplasia
  2. Osteopetrosis
  3. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
  4. Paget’s disease
A

A. Achondroplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following results in disordered remodeling?

  1. Achondroplasia
  2. Osteopetrosis
  3. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
  4. Paget’s disease
A

D. Paget’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following is caused by osteoclast dysfunction?

  1. Achondroplasia
  2. Rickets
  3. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
  4. Paget’s disease
A

D. Paget’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following is caused by a defect in the function of osteoclasts?

  1. Achondroplasia
  2. Osteopetrosis
  3. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
  4. Rickets
A

B. Osteopetrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

After taking a biopsy from a patient, his bone appears to be porous. What’s the most likely disease?

  1. Hyperparathyroidism
  2. Rickets
  3. Osteoporosis
  4. Paget’s disease
A

C. Osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

After taking a biopsy from a patient, his bone appears to have a mosaic pattern. What’s the most likely disease?

  1. Hyperparathyroidism
  2. Rickets
  3. Osteoporosis
  4. Paget’s disease
A

D. Paget’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which is associated with secondary hyperparathyroidism?

  1. parathyroid adenoma
  2. parathyroid hyperplasia
  3. parathyroid hypoplasia
A

B. parathyroid hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which is due to estorgen deficiency?

  1. Postmenopausal osteoporosis
  2. Senile osteoporosis
A

A. Postmenopausal osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which is associated with primary hyperparathyroidism?

  1. parathyroid adenoma
  2. parathyroid hyperplasia
  3. parathyroid hypoplasia
A

A. parathyroid adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which occurs in men and women?

  1. Postmenopausal osteoporosis
  2. Senile osteoporosis
A

B. Senile osteoporosis (occurs due to increase in age)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Bone has a wedge-shaped pale yellow infarct. Which is most likely?

  1. Osteoporosis
  2. AVN
  3. Osteonecrosis
A

C. Osteonecrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How do you treat femoral AVN?

A

arthroplasty (prosthetic replacement of the femoral hip)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following can be caused by sickle cell anemia?

  1. Osteoporosis
  2. AVN
  3. Osteonecrosis
A

C. Osteonecrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which of the following only sees bone structural changes when they increase or decrease 50%?

  1. radiograph
  2. scintillation camera
  3. radiotracers
A

A. radiograph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which phase of the multiphase bone scan indicates the presence of a bony reaction?

  1. Flow phase
  2. Blood pool
  3. Delayed image
A

C. Delayed image

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following would have a negative delayed image?

  1. cellulitis
  2. osteomyelitis
A

A. cellulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

biopsy specimens shows acutely branched septate hyphae. Which organism is most likely to be found?

  1. Coccidioidomycosis
  2. Histoplasmosis
  3. Blastomycosis
  4. Cryptococcosis
  5. Aspergillosis
A

E. Aspergillosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following organisms can be diagnosed using serum or urine tests?

  1. Coccidioidomycosis
  2. Histoplasmosis
  3. Blastomycosis
  4. Cryptococcosis
  5. Aspergillosis
A

B. Histoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Synovial fluid examination showed cloudy or frankly purulent fluid with high protein and WBC count. broad-based budding cells can also be seen. Which is most likely?

  1. Coccidioidomycosis
  2. Histoplasmosis
  3. Blastomycosis
  4. Cryptococcosis
  5. Aspergillosis
A

C. Blastomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of the following organisms can be diagnosed using India ink examination or agglutination test?

  1. Coccidioidomycosis
  2. Histoplasmosis
  3. Blastomycosis
  4. Cryptococcosis
  5. Aspergillosis
A

D. Cryptococcosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Microscopic examination of the infected tissue shows endosporulating spherules with granulomatous inflammatory changes. Which is most likely?

  1. Coccidioidomycosis
  2. Histoplasmosis
  3. Blastomycosis
  4. Cryptococcosis
  5. Aspergillosis
A

A. Coccidioidomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which is the most frequent fungal pathogen seen in intravenous drug abusers?

  1. Candidiasis
  2. Coccidioides immitis
  3. Aspergillus
  4. Histoplasma capsulatum
  5. Blastomyces dermatitidis
  6. Cryptococcus neoformans
A

A. Candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which of the following is associated with a sterile immune complex arthritis (desert rheumatism)?

  1. Candidiasis
  2. Coccidioides immitis
  3. Aspergillus
  4. Histoplasma capsulatum
  5. Blastomyces dermatitidis
  6. Cryptococcus neoformans
A

B. Coccidioides immitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which of the following can be diagnosed by demonstrating budding yeast cells with pseudohyphae?

  1. Candidiasis
  2. Coccidioides immitis
  3. Aspergillus
  4. Histoplasma capsulatum
  5. Blastomyces dermatitidis
  6. Cryptococcus neoformans
A

A. Candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which TWO are associated with necrotizing granulomas?

  1. blastomycosis
  2. coccidioidomycosis
  3. histoplasmosis
A

B. coccidioidomycosis & C. histoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which causes Tenosynovitis?

  1. Cryptococcus neoformans
  2. Sporothrix schenckii
  3. Aspergillus
  4. Histoplasma capsulatum
A

B. Sporothrix schenckii (&Candida & Coccidioides immitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which is associated with pyogenic granulomas?

  1. coccidioidomycosis
  2. histoplasmosis
A

B. coccidioidomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A neonate with a low birth weight aquired bone and joint disease. Which is the most likely cause?

  1. Cryptococcus neoformans
  2. Coccidioides immitis
  3. Aspergillus
  4. Candidiasis
A

D. Candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which is associated with pyogranuloma?

  1. blastomycosis
  2. histoplasmosis
A

A. blastomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which organism is inhaled as spores and may cause nodular and ulcerative skin lesions?

  1. Candidiasis
  2. Coccidioides immitis
  3. Blastomyces dermatitidis
  4. Histoplasma capsulatum
A

C. Blastomyces dermatitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which of the following can you conclude form the fact that the incidence of RA is decreasing but the prevalence is increasing?

  1. RA can be spread
  2. we cured RA
  3. people with RA are dying more
  4. people with RA are surviving longer
A

D. people with RA are surviving longer (Prevalence= Incidence X Duration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What drugs have been developed for RA patients that decrease mortality?

A

disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Who is affected more by RA?

  1. teen boys
  2. women
  3. men
  4. 2-year-olds
A

B. women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which of the following cause RA?

  1. bacterial infections
  2. viral infections
  3. both
  4. neither
A

D. neither, these are triggers! not everyone with a viral illness will develop RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Who has a very high risk of developing RA when they smoke?

A

Genetically susceptible individuals Those with positive anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What stops out the primary prevention of RA?

A

limited knowledge on its etiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Describe the pattern of normal human muscle fibers

A

mosaic pattern (checkerboard)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which of the following is where nerves, blood vessels, and muscle spindles are located

  1. epimysium
  2. endomysium
  3. perimysium
A

c. perimysium

59
Q

Which of the following is a sign of neurogenic muscular atrophy?

  1. target fibers
  2. angular fibers
  3. both
  4. neither
A

c. both (they’re two names of the same thing!)

60
Q

Five-year-old presents with a waddling gait & enlarged calves. His parents are both healthy. What’s the diagnosis

  1. duchenne muscular dystrophy
  2. myasthenia gravis
  3. polymyositis
  4. dermatomyositis
A

a. duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) (1/2 of the cases are sporadic; it’s also X linked)

61
Q

Which of the following is a neuromuscular disease that leads to varying degrees of skeletal muscle weakness affecting muscles of the eyes, face, and swallowing?

  1. duchenne muscular dystrophy
  2. myasthenia gravis
  3. polymyositis
  4. dermatomyositis
A

b. myasthenia gravis

62
Q

Which is known as type 5 glycogen storage disease?

  1. Pompe’s Disease
  2. Mitochondrial myopathy
  3. Central core disease
  4. McArdle’s disease
A

d. McArdle’s disease

63
Q

Which of the following is characterized by facial rash?

  1. duchenne muscular dystrophy
  2. myasthenia gravis
  3. polymyositis
  4. dermatomyositis
A

D. dermatomyositis

64
Q

In which of the following are the patients most likely to die due to cardio-respiratory failure before age 2?

  1. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
  2. Myasthenia gravis
  3. Pompe’s disease
  4. McArdle’s disease
A

c. Pompe’s Disease

65
Q

Which is known as type 2 glycogen storage disease?

  1. Pompe’s Disease
  2. Mitochondrial myopathy
  3. Central core disease
  4. McArdle’s disease
A

a. Pompe’s Disease

66
Q

In which of the following are the patients most likely to die young due to respiratory insufficiency?

  1. duchenne muscular dystrophy
  2. myasthenia gravis
  3. polymyositis
  4. dermatomyositis
A

a. duchenne muscular dystrophy

67
Q

Which of the following enzymes are low in Pompe’s Disease patients?

  1. alpha glucosidase
  2. acid maltase
  3. both
  4. neither
A

c. both (they’re different names for the same thing!!)

68
Q

Which of the following is an indicator of proximal weakness?

  1. anti-dystrophin antibody presence
  2. gowers maneuver
  3. mosaic pattern muscle fibers
  4. high creatine kinase
A

b. gowers maneuver

69
Q

You suspect that a patient has duchenne muscular dystrophy, what tests do you run?

A

1- a blood test for common deletions 2- stain muscle with anti-dystrophin antibody presence

70
Q

Perifascicular atrophy is a characteristic of

  1. duchenne muscular dystrophy
  2. myasthenia gravis
  3. polymyositis
  4. dermatomyositis
  5. pompe’s Disease
  6. central core disease
A

D. dermatomyositis

71
Q

A female patient comes in with pain and aching in muscles, Proximal weakness, and Elevated creatinine kinase. No rash or myofibers atrophy is present. Which is more likely?

  1. duchenne muscular dystrophy
  2. myasthenia gravis
  3. polymyositis
  4. dermatomyositis
A

C. polymyositis (eliminate dermatomyositis because no rash or Perifascicular atrophy, those the only differences between them)

72
Q

Which of the following is due to a RYR1 gene mutation?

  1. Pompe’s Disease
  2. Mitochondrial myopathy
  3. Central core disease
  4. McArdle’s disease
A

c. Central core disease

73
Q

Which of the following is maternally passed? a

  1. Pompe’s Disease
  2. Mitochondrial myopathy
  3. Central core disease
A

b. Mitochondrial myopathy

74
Q

Which of the following is autosomal dominant?

  1. Pompe’s Disease
  2. Mitochondrial myopathy
  3. Central core disease
  4. Dermatomyositis
A

c. Central core disease

75
Q

Which of the following are positive for Ragged Red Fibers?

  1. Pompe’s Disease
  2. Mitochondrial myopathy
  3. Central core disease
  4. Dermatomyositis
A

b. Mitochondrial myopathy

76
Q

Which of the following lacks oxidative enzymes?

  1. Pompe’s Disease
  2. Mitochondrial myopathy
  3. Central core disease
  4. dermatomyositis
  5. polymyositis
A

c. Central core disease

77
Q

Which of the following diseases has a strong association with malignant hyperthermia?

  1. Pompe’s Disease
  2. Mitochondrial myopathy
  3. Central core disease
  4. Dermatomyositis
  5. Polymyositis
A

c. Central core disease

78
Q

Which muscle type does Central core disease affect?

  1. type 1
  2. type 2
A

a. type 1 (slow twitch)

79
Q

Why is a lupus screening test not recommended?

A

no cost-effective tests or sufficiently accurate tests are available

80
Q

Which gene is most associated with SLE?

  1. HLA-S9
  2. HLA-A9
  3. HLA-B8
  4. HLA-G8
A

c. HLA-B8

81
Q

What is the TREX-1 gene and what happens if it’s defective?

A

Encodes repair enzymes that degrades DNA. A defective TREX-1 gene is associated with SLE

82
Q

T/F: most new SLE cases are linked to familial clustering

A

F, most new cases are sporadic

83
Q

Why is most likely to get SLE?

  1. 18 y/o boy
  2. 18 y/o black girl
  3. 18 y/o white girl
A

b. 18 y/o black girl

84
Q

Which if the following country types have the greatest burden of OA?

  1. developing countries
  2. developed countries
A

a. developing countries

85
Q

The sole use of which of the following methods leads tp the over estimation of the burden of disease for OA?

  1. symptoms
  2. radiological changes
  3. pathological changes
A

b. radiological changes (they’re not always accompanied by symptoms)

86
Q

Which of the following more commonly causes gout?

  1. high uric acid production
  2. high uric acid consumption
  3. body has problems removing it
A

c. body has problems removing it

87
Q

Which of the following was concluded by recent studies?

  1. smokers have a lower prevalence for OA
  2. smokers have a higher prevalence for OA
A

a. smokers have a lower prevalence for OA

(this is probably because they dont live as long, so they dont get OA from age, or because they’re more skinny, which puts less pressure on the knees)

88
Q

Which of the following is a risk factor for gout?

  1. solid organ transplants
  2. the medication used for the transplants
  3. both
A

c. both

89
Q

Which is false about OA?

  1. having a healthy weight is the best prevention method
  2. taking vitamin supplements is another prevention method
  3. having protection from injury is another prevention method
A

b. taking vitamin supplements is another prevention method (no evidence of this)

90
Q

Which NSAID is often used for gout treatment?

  1. prednisone
  2. aspirin
  3. colchicine
  4. indomethacin
A

c. indomethacin

91
Q

Which is used for patients who cannot have NSAIDs?

  1. naproxen
  2. aspirin
  3. febuxostat
  4. indomethacin
  5. prednisone
A

e. prednisone

92
Q

Which of the following makes gout worse?

  1. naproxen
  2. aspirin
  3. febuxostat
  4. indomethacin
  5. prednisone
A

b. aspirin

93
Q

Why shouldn’t we give aspirin to gout patients?

A

it inhibits uric acid secretion

94
Q

Which of the following has side effects of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea?

  1. allopurinol
  2. febuxostat
  3. colchicine
  4. indomethacin
  5. prednisone
A

c. colchicine

95
Q

Which of the following are Xanthine oxidase inhibitors?

  1. allopurinol
  2. febuxostat
  3. colchicine
  4. indomethacin
  5. prednisone
A

a. allopurinol & b. febuxostat

96
Q

Which of the following is safer to use in patients with kidney transplants?

  1. allopurinol
  2. febuxostat
A

b. febuxostat (metabolized in the liver)

97
Q

Which of the following inhibit uric acid reabsorption?

  1. indomethacin
  2. probenecid
  3. febuxostat
  4. pegloticase
A

b. probenecid

98
Q

Which of the following uric acid reabsorption inhibitors causes urinary stones or uric acid deposition?

  1. losartan
  2. probenecid
A

b. probenecid (A isn’t on the drug list. uricosuric drugs excrete uric acid so it can build up and cause stone formation)

99
Q

Which of the following disrupts granulocyte migration to the joint?

  1. allopurinol
  2. febuxostat
  3. colchicine
  4. indomethacin
  5. prednisone
A

c. colchicine (by binding to tubulin and becoming a mitotic prison)

100
Q

Which of the following is an analog of hypoxanthine?

  1. allopurinol
  2. febuxostat
A

a. allopurinol

101
Q

Which of the following can have side effects of gastrointestinal disturbances?

  1. allopurinol
  2. febuxostat
A

a. allopurinol

102
Q

Which of the following is a non-purine inhibitor of XO?

  1. allopurinol
  2. febuxostat
A

b. febuxostat

103
Q

What is the function of urate oxidase? and why is it important?

A

its an enzyme that converts uric acid to allantoin. its important because allantoin is much more excretable in the urine.

104
Q

A technician lab tests the urine of a disobedient patient and finds allantoin. What can you conclude?

A

That’s not human urine because we don’t have urate oxidase, which makes allantoin. (so the patient gave us animal urine. I don’t know why I made a whole story either…)

105
Q

Patient comes with preserved joint motion and tenderness upon palpitation. Is it likely that he has arthritis?

A

No

106
Q

Patient comes with monoarticular joint pain and constitutional symptoms (fever, malaise). Whats a likely diagnosis?

A

infectious arthritis

107
Q

Patient comes with monoarticular joint pain and a limited range of motion. Whats a likely diagnosis?

A

bursitis, tendinitis, or muscle injury

108
Q

When is the use of computed tomography appropriate?

A

joint aspirations of difficult to access places ex/ hips, sacroiliac, sternoclavicular joints

109
Q

Patient comes with bloody synovial fluid and no evidence of trauma. What tests should you order?

A

prothrombin (PT), partial tissue thromboplastin time (PTT), platelet count, and bleeding time

110
Q

Patient comes with refractory monoarthritis, you suspect an atypical agent. What tests should you order?

A

synovial biopsy (to diagnose tuberculosis, fungus, and sarcoidosis)

111
Q

Which of the following is most commonly reported?

  1. upper back pain
  2. lower back pain
A

b. lower back pain

112
Q

Whats FALSE about back pain?

  1. stress may induce it
  2. smoking may induce it
  3. it occurs to more men than women
  4. whole-body vibrations induce it
  5. regular exercise may prevent it
A

c. it occurs to more men than women

113
Q

What forms a border between the intervertebral disks and the neural canal?

A

PLL

114
Q

Why do 95% of lumbar disc herniations occur at the L4-5 and L5-S1 levels?

A

because PLL thins as it runs inferiorly from L1 to S1

115
Q

Which vertebral ligament may thicken and cause spinal stenosis with age?

A

ligamentum flavu

116
Q

Where does the spinal cord end?

A

L1-L2

117
Q

Which pain fibers supply structures in the lumbosacral region?

A

posterior rami and sinuvertebral nerves

118
Q

Which vertebral structures have no pain receptors?

A

nucleus pulposus and inner annular fibers

119
Q

What percent of disc patients are asymptomatic?

A

20% to 30% (this is because there are no pain receptors in some areas)

120
Q

Which of the following is exacerbated by sitting, bending, coughing, and straining?

  1. Spinal Infection
  2. Fracture
  3. Sciatica
  4. Cauda Equina Syndrome
  5. Spinal Stenosis
A

g. Sciatica

121
Q

Which of the following is relieved by sitting down?

  1. Spinal Infection
  2. Fracture
  3. Sciatica
  4. Herniated Disk
  5. Spinal Stenosis
A

e. Spinal Stenosis

122
Q

A patient with a history of osteoporosis comes in after a minor fall complaining of muscle spasms in the back. What’s more likely?

  1. Spinal Stenosis
  2. Fracture
  3. Herniated Disk
  4. Sciatica
A

b. Fracture

123
Q

Patient comes in saying that they have pain going downhill but not uphill. Whats most likely?

  1. Spinal Stenosis
  2. Fracture
  3. Herniated Disk
  4. Sciatica
A

a. Spinal Stenosis

124
Q

Which of the following is relieved by lying in a supine position?

  1. Spinal Infection
  2. Fracture
  3. Sciatica
  4. Cauda Equina Syndrome
  5. Spinal Stenosis
A

c. Sciatica

125
Q

Patient comes in with back pain, which doesn’t get better after rest, and fever but no neurologic symptoms. Which is most likely?

  1. Spinal Infection
  2. Fracture
  3. Herniated Disk
  4. Cauda Equina Syndrome
A

a. Spinal Infection (1/2 of patients has no neurologic symptoms, and 1/2 of patients have no fever.)

126
Q

Which of the following doesn’t have relieving factors, and any motion exacerbates the symptoms?

  1. Spinal Infection
  2. Fracture
  3. Herniated Disk
  4. Cauda Equina Syndrome
A

c. Herniated Disk

127
Q

Which of the following has a high mortality rate?

  1. Spinal Infection
  2. Fracture
  3. Herniated Disk
  4. Cauda Equina Syndrome
A

a. Spinal Infection

128
Q

Patient comes in complaining of pain and lack of sensation over the buttocks and upper posterior thighs. Rectal exam also showed decreased sphincter tone. Whats more likely?

  1. Spinal Stenosis
  2. Malignancy
  3. Sciatica
  4. Cauda Equina Syndrome
A

d. Cauda Equina Syndrome (diagnose via MRI)

129
Q

Patient comes in with chronic back pain thats worse at hight and weightloss. Which is likely?

  1. Spinal Infection
  2. Fracture
  3. Herniated Disk
  4. Malignancy
A

d. Malignancy

130
Q

Which vertebral malignancy is more common?

  1. primary
  2. metastatic
A

b. metastatic

131
Q

Patient complains that when they walk for too long or use their arm, they go numb for 15 minutes before sensation returns. They also have back pain, what’s the diagnosis?

  1. Spinal Infection
  2. Fracture
  3. Herniated Disk
  4. Spinal Stenosis
A

d. Spinal Stenosis (Vascular claudication is the numbness after use; pseudoclaudication is when it lasts for more than 5 minutes)

132
Q

Which is true?

  1. positive SLR test usually means a person has sciatica
  2. a negative SLR test usually means a person doesn’t have sciatica
  3. both
  4. neither
A

b. a negative SLR test usually means a person doesn’t have sciatica (sensitivity of 80% but a specificity of 40%, so the negative test accurate)

133
Q

How do you diagnose a patient with a suspected spinal infection?

A

MRI

134
Q

An AIDS patient presented with disseminated infection. Blood culture showed capsulated yeast cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. Cryptococcus neoformans
  2. Coccoides immitis
  3. Candida albicans
  4. Blastomyces dermatitidis
A

A. Cryptococcus neoformans

135
Q

Blood culture showed broad-based budding yeast cells. What is the most likely causative agent?

  1. Blastomycosis
  2. Histoplasmosis
  3. Mucormycosis
  4. Coccidioidomycosis
A

A. Blastomycosis

136
Q

Which organism causes a self-limiting immune complex arthritis, known as “desert rheumatism”?

  1. Coccidioides immitis
  2. Sporothrix schenckii
  3. Candida
  4. Aspergillus
A

A. Coccidioides immitis

137
Q

Ohio, USA /vertebral infection / large intracellular budding

Which fungal microbe presents as intracellular budding yeast cells?

  1. Histoplasma capsulatum
  2. Blastomyces dermatitidis
  3. Cryptococcus neoformans
  4. Aspergillus
A

A. Histoplasma capsulatum

138
Q

A diabetic patient had a blood culture with non-septate hyphae. What is the most likely causative agent?

  1. Mucormycosis
  2. Blastomycosis
  3. Coccidioidomycosis
  4. Aspergillosis
A
  1. Mucormycosis
139
Q

For which case would a Three Phase (Multiphasic) bones can be most useful?

  1. Osteomyelitis of humerus
  2. Bony metastasis of prostate cancer
  3. Suspected child abuse
A
  1. Osteomyelitis of humerus
140
Q

A 45-year-old male with severe brochinal asthma takes ora lprednisolone. He later develops severe pain in his right hip. He undergoes an arthroplasty. Other joints are normal. What do you expect to see in the bone?

  1. Arthritic changes
  2. Bone necrosis
A

B. Bone necrosis

141
Q

What disease is associated with an enzyme deficiency?

  1. Type V glycogenosis
  2. Pompe’s disease
  3. Corticosteroid myopathy
  4. McArdle disease
A

B. Pompe’s disease

142
Q

Patient taking long-term prednisone for acute gout attacks. What is another drug that can be given to prevent peptic ulcer formation?

  1. Misoprostol
  2. Indomethacin
  3. Ibuprofen
  4. Celecoxib
A
  1. Misoprostol
143
Q

Which of the following is true regarding osteoarthritis?

  1. Incidence and severity increases with age
  2. Genetics is not part of etiology
  3. Most commonly affects the elbow and wrist
  4. Obesity can protect against osteoarthritis
A
  1. Incidence and severity increases with age
144
Q

Which of the following is true about epidemiology of back pain?

  1. Retired adults are more likely to suffer from it than working adults
  2. One-year prevalence of back pain is 80%
  3. Less than 20% of cases seek medical help
  4. 90% of people with back pain recover completely within 6 weeks
  5. Treatment of back pain is evidence-based
A

D. 90% of people with back pain recover completely within 6 weeks

MSK (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions