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Pathology Review Q's Flashcards

PATHO Lectures: 1. Pathology of Bone Healing (1-14) 2. Pathology of Autoimmune diseases: Systemic Lupus Erythematous (26-43) 3. Genetic Basis of Orthopedic diseases (44-79) 4. Pathology of Arthriris (80-99)

1
Q

Which of the following fractures would most likely lead to an infection?

a. greenstick
b. spiral
c. transverse
d. compound
e. pathological fracture

A

d. compound

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2
Q

Which of the following fractures occur due to minimal trauma? a. greenstick b. spiral c. transverse d. compound e. pathological fracture

A

e. pathological fracture

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3
Q

Which of the following can be seen in an x-ray? a. soft callus b. hard callus c. cartilaginous callus

A

b. hard callus

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4
Q

In which of the following patients does fracture healing take longer? a. 14 year old girl b. 35 year old man c. 55 year old diabetic women

A

c. 55 year old diabetic women

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5
Q

Which of the following occurs due to overuse? a. traumatic fracture b. stress fracture c. pathological fracture

A

b. stress fracture

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6
Q

Which of the following phases is when callus formation occurs? a. reactive phase b. remodeling phase d. reparative phase

A

d. reparative phase

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7
Q

Which of the following stimulates angiogenesis? a. transforming growth factor b. platelet derived growth factors c. fibroblast growth factors d. insulin like growth factors e. bone morphogenetic proteins

A

c. fibroblast growth factors

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8
Q

Which of the following is used clinically to enhance fracture healing? a. transforming growth factor b. platelet derived growth factors c. fibroblast growth factors d. insulin like growth factors e. bone morphogenetic proteins

A

e. bone morphogenetic proteins (BMP)

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9
Q

Which of the following stimulates bone resorption? a. transforming growth factor b. platelet derived growth factors c. fibroblast growth factors d. insulin like growth factors e. bone morphogenetic proteins

A

b. platelet derived growth factors

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10
Q

Which of the following degrades collagen? a. thyroid hormones b. leukotrienes c. prostaglandins d. angiogenic factors e. metalloproteinases

A

e. metalloproteinases

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11
Q

Which of the following inhibits osteoclast activity? a. thyroid hormones b. leukotrienes c. prostaglandins d. angiogenic factors e. metalloproteinases

A

c. prostaglandins

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12
Q

How do osteons communicate with the medullary cavity? a. through haversian systems b. through volkmann canals c. through central canal

A

b. through volkmann canals

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13
Q

T/F: woven bone deposition can be seen on x-ray

A

false, it can only be seen when its getting turned into lamellar bone

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14
Q

Which stage of fracture healing can last the longest? a. reactive phase b. remodeling phase d. reparative phase

A

b. remodeling phase (several years)

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15
Q

Which of the following affects the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints more? a. osteoarthritis b. rheumatoid arthritis

A

a. osteoarthritis

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16
Q

Which of the following affects the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints more? a. osteoarthritis b. rheumatoid arthritis

A

b. rheumatoid arthritis

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17
Q

Which of the following correctly analyzed the synovial fluid test? a. when the synovial fluid has pus, it means rheumatoid arthritis b. when the synovial fluid has a high cell count, it means septic arthritis c. when the synovial fluid has very low glucose, it means rheumatoid arthritis d. when the synovial fluid has crystals, it means septic arthritis

A

b. when the synovial fluid has a high cell count, it means septic arthritis A&C= Septic D= gout or pseudogout

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18
Q

How are the kidneys affected in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

amyloid build-up, medications, vasculitis, or associated diseases of RA, such as nephrotic syndrome

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19
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis patient comes in with very dry mouth. Which is more likely? a. amyloidosis b. Sjogren’s syndrome c. Nephrotic syndrome d. SLE

A

b. Sjogren’s syndrome

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20
Q

What HLA molecule is associated with Rheumatoid arthritis?

A

HLA-DRB1 (HLA-DR1, HLA-DR4, HLA-DR10, HLA-DR14)

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21
Q

What is “pannus” and why does it form in Rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Pannus is an abnormal layer of fibrovascular tissue or granulation tissue. Inflammation and exuberant proliferation of the synovium leads to the formation of pannus and destruction of cartilage, bone, tendons, ligaments, and blood vessels.

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22
Q

What is Rice-body formation? What disease is it associated with?

A

it’s a nonspecific response to chronic synovial inflammation. Rice bodies appear as grains of polished rice, they’re composed of an acidophilic collagenous center and are encased in fibrin. Associated with RA.

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23
Q

Which Rheumatoid patients are more likely to get Rheumatoid nodules?

A

ones with high RF value Rheumatoid factors (RFs) are IgM’s against IgG’s

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24
Q

What are Rheumatoid nodules made up of?

A

fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by epitheloid cells

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25
Q

Give 2 reasons why Rheumatoid patients get anemia?

A
  1. the inflammation causes hepcidin levels to increase 2. the NSAIDs we give them cause GI bleeding
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26
Q

Which type of immunoglobulin is made by the body to attack itself in Lupus? a. IgG b. IgA c. IgM d. IgD

A

c. IgM (IgM’s against IgG’s)

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27
Q

Which of the following is least specific to lupus? a. Alopecia b. photosensitivity c. Discoid rash d. Malar rash

A

a. Alopecia

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28
Q

Which of the following lupus types primarily affects the skin? a. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE b. Discoid lupus erythematosus (DLE)

A

b. Discoid lupus erythematosus (DLE)

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29
Q

which of the following is a strong chemotactic of neutrophils? a. C5a b. C6 c. C7b d. C8

A

a. C5a

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30
Q

What’s a Lichenoid reaction?

A

a reaction similar to lichen planus, meaning it causes swelling and irritation in the skin, hair, nails and mucous membranes

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31
Q

Describe SLE cases with follicular plugs a. acute b. chronic

A

b. chronic

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32
Q

T/F: all SLE patients have kidney disease

A

false, they all have immune complexes but that doesn’t necessarily mean disease

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33
Q

describe the relationship between lupus progression and subepidermal basement membrane thickness a. inversely proportional b. directly proportional

A

b. directly proportional

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34
Q

What’s an indicator of mesangial lupus? a. 2-3 cells per mesangium area b. 4-5 cells per mesangium area c. 7-8 cells per mesangium area

A

c. 7-8 cells per mesangium area

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35
Q

What is endocapillary?

A

An occlusion of capillary lumens due to cellular proliferation and endothelial cells edema

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36
Q

How do we measure capillary proliferation? a. subepithelial deposits b. subendothelial deposits

A

b. subendothelial deposits

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37
Q

dense hyaline deposits in glomeruli is a sign of

A

Proliferative Glomerulonephritis (wire loop)

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38
Q

crescentic glomerulonephritis is which type of kidney disease? a. acute b. chronic

A

a. acute (treat urgently)

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39
Q

SLE patient has to get dialysis treatments weekly because of his non-functioning kidney. What type of lupus did this become?

A

Diffuse sclerosing lupus

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40
Q

What’s the most common pulmonary manifestation of SLE?

A

Pleurisy; its when the pleura (which lines the inner side of the chest cavity and surrounds the lungs) becomes inflamed

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41
Q

What’s the most common cardiac manifestation of SLE?

A

Pericarditis

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42
Q

A nonbacterial endocarditis that is seen in association with SLE is called

A

Libman–Sacks endocarditis (may cause vegetation of mitral valve)

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43
Q

Why do some SLE patients have spontaneous abortions?

A

reduced blood to fetus

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44
Q

Which of the following is derived from hematopoietic cells? a. osteoblast b. osteocytes c. osteoclast

A

c. osteoclast

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45
Q

Which of the following makes osteoid (which later becomes an ossification center)?

a. osteoblast
b. osteocytes
c. osteoclast

A

a. osteoblast

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46
Q

In which of the following does the osteoclast and osteoblast work in the same surface? a. bone modeling b. bone remodeling

A

b. bone remodeling (in modeling they work on different sides, that’s how the shape changes)

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47
Q

A defect in which of the following causes skeletal deformities? a. bone modeling b. bone remodeling

A

a. bone modeling

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48
Q

Which of the following occurs in a basic multicellular unit (BMU)? a. bone modeling b. bone remodeling

A

b. bone remodeling

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49
Q

What balances the electroneutrality of H+ in the lacunae?

A

Cl-

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50
Q

What’s true about the carbonic anhydrase II pump? a. it removes H+ from lacunae b. it uses ATP c. its encoded by CA3 gene

A

b. it uses ATP

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51
Q

What’s the function of the cement line that’s produced after resorption?

A

osteoblast adherance

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52
Q

Which of the following stops bone loss? a. RANKL b. OPG c. both

A

b. OPG

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53
Q

Which of the following is inhibited by estrogen? a. RANKL b. OPG

A

a. RANKL

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54
Q

When are osteoclasts more active? a. high RANKL and low OPG b. high OPG and low RANKL

A

a. high RANKL and low OPG

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55
Q

What occurs when WNT signals increase? a. increase bone resorption b. increase bone formation

A

b. increase bone formation

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56
Q

Which of the following causes suppression of bone resorption? a. high RANKL / OPG ratio b. low RANKL / OPG ratio

A

b. low RANKL / OPG ratio

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57
Q

Which of the following does WNT signaling inhibit? a. chondrocyte formation b. osteoclast formation c. osteoblast formation d. osteocyte formation

A

b. osteoclast formation

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58
Q

Which is caused by multifactorial causes? a. OI b. primary osteoporosis c. osteopetrosis

A

b. primary osteoporosis

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59
Q

In which of the following are you more likely to find low bone mineral density? a. OI b. primary osteoporosis c. osteopetrosis

A

a. OI

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60
Q

Which OI type is more severe? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 g. 7

A

c. 3

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61
Q

OI that is autosomal dominant is caused by mutations of which genes?

A

COL1A1 COL1A2

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62
Q

Which OI type is characterized by dark sclera? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 g. 7

A

b. 2

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63
Q

Which TWO OI types are autosomal recessive? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 g. 7

A

f. 6 & g. 7

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64
Q

Which OI type is characterized by a triangluar face and very short stature? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 g. 7

A

c. 3

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65
Q

Which OI type causes the angle of inclination to be less than 120 degrees? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 g. 7

A

g. 7 (it causes coxa vara)

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66
Q

sclerotic dense lines in the X ray of a patient with OI indicates which of the following? a. high resporption area b. new bone formation

A

b. new bone formation

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67
Q

Which of the following increases the risk of osteomyelitis? a. osteoporosis b. osteopetrosis

A

b. osteopetrosis

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68
Q

T/F: autosomally dominant osteopetrosis is more severe than the recessive osteopetrosis

A

false, its more benign

69
Q

Why does osteopetrosis increase the risk of osteomyelitis?

A

due to the decreased vascularity

70
Q

Which of the following leads to a quantitative osteoclast disorder? a. TCIRG1 b. TNFSF11 c. SNX10 d. CLCN7

A

b. TNFSF11

[TNFSF11 and TNFSF11A genes encode for RANKL and RANK respectively]

71
Q

Albers-Schönberg disease is a. recessive b. dominant

A

b. dominant

72
Q

Which mutation affects Cl- luminal concentration? a. TCIRG1 b. TNFSF11 c. SNX10 d. CLCN7

73
Q

Which mutation affects the V-ATPase pump of lysosomes? a. TCIRG1 b. TNFSF11 c. SNX10 d. CLCN7

74
Q

Which of the following encodes the beta subunit of CIC-7? a. TCIRG1 b. TNFSF11 c. SNX10 d. OSTM1

75
Q

What seals the lacunae under the osteoclast?

A

actin rings

76
Q

A mutation in which of the following delocalizes endosomes? a. TCIRG1 b. TNFSF11 c. SNX10 d. OSTM1

77
Q

Bone deficiency in the femur is a common complication of a. type 1 osteopetrosis b. type 2 osteopetrosis c. type 3 osteopetrosis

A

b. type 2 osteopetrosis

78
Q

Which gene is associated with osteopetrosis with rickets and osteomalacia? a. TCIRG1 b. TNFSF11 c. SNX10 d. CA2

79
Q

Which gene is associated with osteopetrosis and renal tube acidosis? a. TCIRG1 b. TNFSF11 c. SNX10 d. CA2

80
Q

T/F: osteoarthritis is not primarily an inflammatory condition

81
Q

Patient comes in with an accumulation of homogentisic acid. Which is most likely? a. ankylosing spondylitis b. psoriatic arthritis c. reiter’s syndrome d. alkaptonuria e. enteropathic arthritis f. gout g. pseudo-gout

A

d. alkaptonuria

82
Q

Patient comes in with arthritis, conjunctivitis, and cervicitis. Which is most likely? a. ankylosing spondylitis b. psoriatic arthritis c. reiter’s syndrome d. alkaptonuria e. enteropathic arthritis f. gout g. pseudo-gout

A

c. reiter’s syndrome

83
Q

Patient comes in with Calcium pyrophosphate crystals. Which is most likely? a. ankylosing spondylitis b. psoriatic arthritis c. reiter’s syndrome d. alkaptonuria e. enteropathic arthritis f. gout g. pseudo-gout

A

g. pseudo-gout

84
Q

Patient is HLA-B27 positive. Which is most likely? a. ankylosing spondylitis b. psoriatic arthritis c. reiter’s syndrome d. alkaptonuria e. enteropathic arthritis f. gout g. pseudo-gout

A

a. ankylosing spondylitis

85
Q

Patient comes in with pigmentation of sclera, skin, and urine. Which is most likely? a. ankylosing spondylitis b. psoriatic arthritis c. reiter’s syndrome d. alkaptonuria e. enteropathic arthritis f. gout g. pseudo-gout

A

d. alkaptonuria

86
Q

Describe the water and proteoglycan content of the cartilage of a patient with osteoarthritis. a. increased water content, increased proteoglycan content b. increased water content, decreased proteoglycan content c. decreased water content, increased proteoglycan content d. decreased water content, decreased proteoglycan content

A

b. increased water content, decreased proteoglycan content (aggregation also decreases in osteoarthritis patients)

87
Q

Which rheumatoid patient has a better prognosis? a. seronegative b. seropositive

A

a. seronegative

88
Q

What’s the likelihood that a rheumatoid patient would get nodules? a. 5% b. 15% c. 25% d. 55%

89
Q

T/F: rheumatoid nodules are only found in rheumatoid patients

A

false, patient with rheumatic fever and SLE also get them

90
Q

Patient comes in with arthritis and a white flakey rash. Which is most likely? a. ankylosing spondylitis b. psoriatic arthritis c. reiter’s syndrome d. alkaptonuria e. enteropathic arthritis f. gout g. pseudo-gout

A

b. psoriatic arthritis

91
Q

Patient comes in with arthritis and an inflammatory bowel condition. Which is most likely? a. ankylosing spondylitis b. psoriatic arthritis c. reiter’s syndrome d. alkaptonuria e. enteropathic arthritis f. gout g. pseudo-gout

A

e. enteropathic arthritis

92
Q

Which is true? a. all people with gout also have hyperuricaemia b. all people with hyperuricaemia also have gout

A

a. all people with gout also have hyperuricaemia

93
Q

Patient comes in complaining of toe pain every winter. Which is most likely? a. tuberculous arthritis b. gout c. reiter’s syndrome d. lyme arthritis

94
Q

tophi is the hallmark of what disease?

95
Q

tophi is made up of urate crystals surrounded by what cells?

A

macrophages

96
Q

Patient comes in with knee swelling. You suspect a bacterial infection, what must you do?

A

Treat him immediately. The knee can get ruined by bacterial infections in a couple of days. (this was said in class)

97
Q

Patient comes in with a target rash and a fever. Which is most likely? a. tuberculous arthritis b. gout c. reiter’s syndrome d. lyme arthritis

A

d. lyme arthritis

98
Q

Patient complains of a stiff back and a granuloma (necrosis in it). Which is most likely? a. tuberculous arthritis b. gout c. reiter’s syndrome d. lyme arthritis

A

a. tuberculous arthritis

99
Q

What does green turbid synovial fluid usually mean?

100
Q

Where is the most common site for soft tissue tumors? a. upper extremity b. lower extremity c. head and neck

A

b. lower extremity (thigh)

101
Q

Rhabdomyosarcoma is most common in

a. children
b. young adult
c. adult
d. elderly

A

a. children

102
Q

Which of the following genes cause Gardner syndrome when defective?

a. APC
b. P53
c. NF1
d. FOXO1
e. HMGA2

103
Q

Which of the following causes tumors to grow on nerves? a. Li-fraumeni syndrome b. Neurofibromatosis c. Gardner syndrome

A

b. Neurofibromatosis

104
Q

Which of the following genes cause Li-fraumeni syndrome when defective? a. APC b. P53 c. NF1 d. FOXO1 e. HMGA2

105
Q

Which is usually superficial? a. lipoma b. liposarcoma

106
Q

Which of the following genes cause Neurofibromatosis when defective? a. APC b. P53 c. NF1 d. FOXO1 e. HMGA2 f. RB1

107
Q

Which is painless? a. lipoma b. liposarcoma

108
Q

Which of the following leads to the presence of multiple polyps in the colon? a. Li-fraumeni syndrome b. Neurofibromatosis c. Gardner syndrome

A

c. Gardner syndrome

109
Q

Which has an irregular outline? a. lipoma b. liposarcoma

A

b. liposarcoma

110
Q

Which is encapsulated? a. lipoma b. liposarcoma

111
Q

Which of the following leads to a predisposition to a wide range of cancers. Due to a mutation in a tumor suppressor gene TP53? a. Li-fraumeni syndrome b. Neurofibromatosis c. Gardner syndrome

A

a. Li-fraumeni syndrome

112
Q

Which of the following has spaces lined by benign plump endothelial cells? a. humanguima b. angiosarcoma

A

a. humanguima

113
Q

Which of the following is caused by polyvinyl chloride? a. humanguima b. angiosarcoma

A

b. angiosarcoma (it causes hepatic angiosarcoma)

114
Q

Which of the following can cause death via metastasis? a. leiomyoma b. leiomyosarcoma

A

b. leiomyosarcoma

115
Q

Which of the following has spindle cells of different sizes? a. leiomyoma b. leiomyosarcoma

A

b. leiomyosarcoma pleomorphic spindle cells

116
Q

the soft tissue of leiomyoma looks normal under the microscope, how can you identify it?

A

cells are normal but the architecture is different. it’s multidirectional

117
Q

Which has round tumor cells with little cytoplasm? a. alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma b. embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma c. pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma

A

a. alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma

118
Q

Which is a low-grade tumor that develops new, high-grade cells? a. well-differentiated liposarcoma b. myxoid liposarcoma c. pleomorphic liposarcoma d. dedifferentiated liposarcoma

A

d. dedifferentiated liposarcoma

119
Q

Which has the worst prognosis? a. alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma b. embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma c. pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma

A

c. pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma (large multinucleated cells)

120
Q

Which has normal-looking skeletal muscles? a. alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma b. embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma c. pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma

A

b. embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma

121
Q

Whats true about bone cancers? a. they are more malignant tumors than benign ones b. a child is more likely to get a malignant tumor c. the eldery are more likely to get a malignant tumor

A

c. the eldery are more likely to get a malignant tumor

122
Q

Which cancer is more likely to be in the epiphysis of long bones? a. ewing sarcoma b. osteosarcoma c. chondroblastoma d. osteochondroma

A

c. chondroblastoma (& giant cell tumor)

123
Q

Which cancer is more likely to be in the epiphysis of long bones? a. ewing sarcoma b. osteosarcoma c. giant cell tumor d. osteochondroma

A

c. giant cell tumor (& chondroblastoma)

124
Q

Where is Ewing sarcoma most likely to occur? a. diaphysis b. epiphysis c. metaphysis

A

a. diaphysis

125
Q

Where is osteosarcoma most likely to occur? a. diaphysis b. epiphysis c. metaphysis

A

c. metaphysis

126
Q

Which of the following has a sun-burst appearance on X ray? a. osteoid osteoma b. osteosarcoma c. Ewing sarcoma

A

b. osteosarcoma sun-burst= osteosarcoma sun-ray= Ewing sarcoma

127
Q

Mutation of which gene causes retinoblastoma? a. APC b. P53 c. NF1 d. FOXO1 e. HMGA2 f. RB1

128
Q

Which of the following leads to a formation of Codman’s triangle? a. osteoid osteoma b. osteosarcoma

A

b. osteosarcoma

129
Q

Which of the following would have a sclerotic rim and a lytic center? a. osteoid osteoma b. osteosarcoma

A

b. osteosarcoma

130
Q

Which of the following appears to have Lace like a neoplastic bone? a. osteoid osteoma b. osteosarcoma

A

b. osteosarcoma

131
Q

Who is most likely to get chondrosarcoma?

A

adults or elderly

132
Q

Which chondrosarcoma is more likely to be malignant? a. proximal b. distal

A

a. proximal (distal chondrosarcoma= likely benign)

133
Q

Xray shows popcorn calcification. Whats the diagnosis?

A

chondrosarcoma

134
Q

Who is most likely to get Ewing sarcoma?

A

children from 10-15

135
Q

Which of the following has a sun-ray/onion skin appearance on X ray? a. chondrosarcoma b. Ewing sarcoma

A

b. Ewing sarcoma

136
Q

Prostate (and breast) cancer tend to produce what kind of bone lesion? a. lytic lesions b. sclerotic lesions

A

b. sclerotic lesions (unusual hardening of bone)

137
Q

What’s more likely to be positive in a patient with Ewing sarcoma? a. CD31 b. CD34 c. CD99 d. D2-40

138
Q

Which is more likely to lead to rhabdomyosarcoma? a. EWS-FLI1 b. P53 c. NF1 d. FOXO1 e. HMGA2

139
Q

Which is more likely to lead to Ewing sarcoma? a. EWS-FLI1 b. P53 c. NF1 d. FOXO1 e. HMGA2

A

a. EWS-FLI1

140
Q

PAX3 and PAX7 gene mutations lead to which cancer?

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma (FOXO1 gene too)

141
Q

PAX3 and PAX7 gene mutations lead to which cancer?

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma (FOXO1 gene too)

142
Q

CD31 and CD34 are markers for what kind of cells?

A

endothelial markers (ex/ angiosarcoma)

143
Q

desmin and myoD1 are positive in which cancer

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma (myogenic regulatory proteins)

144
Q

Patient comes in with scaly red rash, Elevated serum CK, and atrophy in muscle. What’s the most likely diagnosis? a. polymyositis b. dermatomyositis c. osteoarthritis d. rheumatoid arthritis

A

b. dermatomyositis

145
Q

Patient had a bilateral hip replacement surgery, femur head had ivory-like bone surface. What’s the most likely diagnosis? a. polymyositis b. dermatomyositis c. osteoarthritis d. rheumatoid arthritis

A

c. osteoarthritis (ivory-like surface is rough and doesn’t have cartilage on it)

146
Q

Patient had joint pain and stiffness of the proximal IP joints. What’s the most likely diagnosis? a. polymyositis b. dermatomyositis c. osteoarthritis d. rheumatoid arthritis

A

d. rheumatoid arthritis

147
Q

This patient developed acute knee arthritis following an acute lobar pneumonia. What is the most likely diagnosis? A- Hyperuricemia B- Septic arthritis C- Rheumatoid arthiritis D- Hemarthrosis E- Osteoarthritis

A

B- Septic arthritis

148
Q

60 y/o patient has round nodules on left ear. What is the most likely diagnosis? A- Hyperuricemia B- Septic arthritis C- Rheumatoid arthiritis D- Hemarthrosis E- Osteoarthritis

A

A- Hyperuricemia

149
Q

40-year-old lady has swelling on her forearm. It was soft, mobile and painless. Whats the most likely diagnosis? a) Lipoma b) Liposarcoma c) Leiomyoma d) Leiomyosarcoma

150
Q

a tumor of brown adipose tissue is called

151
Q

Whats a fibroid made out of?

A

smooth muscle

152
Q

Tumor Xray revealed Codman’s triangle and a sunburst appearance. Biopsy revealed lace-like osteoid pattern. Whats the diagnosis? a) Angiosarcoma b) Osteoclastoma c) Osteosarcoma d) Chondrosarcoma e) Ewing sarcoma

A

c) Osteosarcoma

153
Q

Xray shows a lytic lesion in the lower end of femur involving the epiphysis. Biopsy shows giant cells. a) Angiosarcoma b) Osteoclastoma c) Osteosarcoma d) Chondrosarcoma e) Ewing sarcoma

A

b) Osteoclastoma (AKA giant cell tumor)

154
Q

A well defined, encapsulated tumor has spindle cells, with cigar-shaped nuclei. What tumor is it? a) Angiosarcoma b) Hemangioma c) Leiomyoma d) Liposarcoma

A

c) Leiomyoma

155
Q

A deeply seated tumor was incised. Cells of different sizes where found, as well as lipoblasts. Whats the diagnosis? a) Lipoma b) Leiomyosarcoma c) Leiomyoma d) Liposarcoma

A

d) Liposarcoma

156
Q

Patient previously had a tumor that was cured via radioation therapy. Recently, another tumor that has a blue/red collor appeared. Whats most likely?

a) Angiosarcoma
b) Leiomyosarcoma
c) Osteosarcoma
d) Chondrosarcoma
e) Ewing sarcoma

A

a) Angiosarcoma (Angiosarcoma has a relationship with radiation therapy)

157
Q

Which is a lytic tumor? a. Osteosarcoma b. Ewing sarcoma

A

b. Ewing sarcoma

158
Q

Which of the following is described as having chickenwire vasculature? a) Lipoma b) Liposarcoma c) Leiomyoma d) Leiomyosarcoma

A

b) Liposarcoma

159
Q

Patient had a tumor with a blue hue that had a popcorn appearance on X-ray. What’s most likely? a) Angiosarcoma b) Leiomyosarcoma c) Osteosarcoma d) Chondrosarcoma e) Ewing sarcoma

A

d) Chondrosarcoma

160
Q

40-year-old lady has swelling on her forearm. It was soft, mobile and painless. Whats the most likely diagnosis? a) Lipoma b) Liposarcoma c) Leiomyoma d) Leiomyosarcoma

161
Q

Factor 8 marker was along a tumor. Which cell is it an indicator of?

A

endothelial cell marker (along with CD31 and CD34)

162
Q

80 year old comes in complaining of bleeding even though she had menopause years ago. Biopsy showed hyperchromatic nuclei and atypical cells, whats most likely?

a) Angiosarcoma
b) Hemangioma
c) Leiomyoma
d) Liposarcoma

A

d) Liposarcoma (bleeding in a post-menopausal woman usually means necrosis and hemorrhage, indicating Liposarcoma)

163
Q

Codman’s triangle indicates a. Osteosarcoma b. Ewing sarcoma

A

a. Osteosarcoma

164
Q

Which is a sclerotic tumor? a. Osteosarcoma b. Ewing sarcoma

A

a. Osteosarcoma (sclerotic= make more bone)

165
Q

Onion skin indicates a. Osteosarcoma b. Ewing sarcoma

A

b. Ewing sarcoma

166
Q

A fracture site shows invasion of glandular structures and proliferation of capillaries and fibroblasts producing fibrocartilage. What phase is represented here?

A. Bone remodeling

B. Hematoma

C. Provisional callus

D. Hard callus

A

C. Provisional callus

167
Q

A woman with lupus nephritis presented with acute renal failure and required dialysis. Upon kidney biopsy, what would you expect to see?

A. Membranous lupus

B. Proliferative glomerulonephritis

C. Crescentic proliferative lupus

D. Diffuse sclerosing lupus

A

D. Diffuse sclerosing lupus

168
Q

An 8-year-old boy presented with knee pain. His mom informed the doctor that she had realized that her son’s urine was dark and would become black. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Rheumatoid arthritis

B. Ankylosing spondylitis

C. Osteoarthritis

D. Reiter’s syndrome

A

C. Osteoarthritis

169
Q

A 10-year-old girl presented with a small round-cell tumor. Upon investigation, it was found that the girl has a translocation t(11,22). What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Ewing sarcoma

B. Chondrosarcoma

C. Leiomyoma

D. Liposarcoma

A

A. Ewing sarcoma

MSK (16 decks)

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