Phys/Anat facts Flashcards

1
Q

Where is EPO produced in the neonate

A

The liver is the predominant site of erythropoietin secretion in the fetus. In adults and children, the kidney is the main site.

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2
Q

What nutrients are absorbed in the duodenum

A

Ions! calcium, magnesium, phosphate
+ iron, folic acid.

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3
Q

What nutrients are absorbed in the proximal 100-200cm of small intestine:

A

CHO, protein, water-soluble vitamins

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4
Q

What nutrients are absorbed throughout small intestine

A

monoglycerides and fatty acids as micellar complexes; medium chain TG directly into the portal circulation.

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5
Q

What nutrients are absorbed in the distal ileum

A

B12, bile acids, Ca2+

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6
Q

How is Ca2+ absorbed through the gut?

A
  • Duodenum and upper jejunum: active vitamin D-dependent transport (more efficient, less Ca
  • Ileum: passive vitamin D-independent, paracellular diffusion (less efficient, more Ca).
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7
Q

Vitamin A deficiency – symptoms

A

ocular signs known as xerophthalmia, of which the earliest sign is night blindness.

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8
Q

Vitamin D deficiency – symptoms
.

A

rickets, hypocalcaemia, hypophosphataemia.

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9
Q

Vitamin E deficiency –symptoms

A

tocopherol (vitamin E) deficiency can be associated with a progressive sensory and motor neuropathy (proprioreceptive), spinocerebellar ataxia, retinal degeneration (pigmented retinopathy and loss of vision), and a haemolytic anaemia.

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10
Q

Vitamin K deficiency –symptoms

A

bleeding diathesis

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11
Q

What influences the magnitude of L>R shunt in ASD?

A

Size of defect + RV/LV compliance

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12
Q

What causes 3rd heart sound

A

Rapid ventricular filling- volume overload conditions

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13
Q

What part of the heart does pulmonary wedge pressure (5-12mmHg) approximate?

A

Indirect measure of the mean left atrial pressure. A catheter (e.g. Swan-Ganz catheter) is floated through the right heart into a branch of the pulmonary artery and the balloon is inflated, occluding the artery and blocking the incoming flow of blood. The tip of the catheter, which lies beyond the balloon, is connected to a pressure transducer. As this column of blood is connected to the left atrium via a bed of pulmonary capillaries and pulmonary veins, the pressure measured by the catheter tip will reflect the distal LA pressure (normally 5-12 mmHg).

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13
Q

What part of the heart does pulmonary wedge pressure (5-12mmHg) approximate?

A

Indirect measure of the mean left atrial pressure. A catheter (e.g. Swan-Ganz catheter) is floated through the right heart into a branch of the pulmonary artery and the balloon is inflated, occluding the artery and blocking the incoming flow of blood. The tip of the catheter, which lies beyond the balloon, is connected to a pressure transducer. As this column of blood is connected to the left atrium via a bed of pulmonary capillaries and pulmonary veins, the pressure measured by the catheter tip will reflect the distal LA pressure (normally 5-12 mmHg).

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14
Q

When do the paranasal sinuses develop/become pneumatized?

A

Birth- only ethmoidal sinuses are pneumatized
Maxillary sinuses are not pneumatized until 4 years of age
Sphenoidal sinuses present by age 5, frontal sinuses develop at age 7-8

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15
Q

What is the narrowest component of the upper airway in infants

A

Subglottis

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16
Q

What is FEF25-75 used to measure

A

FEF25-75 (maximum mid-expiratory flow rate) = flow in smaller airways, most effort dependant portion of curve, measures milder obstruction.

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17
Q

Patterns on spirometry with obstructive (extrathoracic & intrathoracic, fixed & variable) diseases

A

Obstruction- ↓ FEV1, N FVC, ↓ FEV1/FVC ratio
- Bronchodilator response: >12% change in FEV1 dx
- Provocation test: >15-20% change methacholine, histamine, saline

Fixed obstruction- flattening of curve both insp & exp
- glottic/subglottic lesion

Variable extrathoracic obstruction: flattening only on INSPIRATION (curve is upper)
- laryngeal/tongue pathology

Variable intrathoracic obstruction: flattening only on EXPIRATION (curve is lower)
- bronchomalacia/lower tracheal pathology

Sawtooth pattern- neuromuscular disease
Small hump in loop-

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18
Q

Patterns on spirometry with restrictive disease

A

Restrictive ↓FEV1, ↓FVC, N FEV1/FVC ratio

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19
Q

Patterns on spirometry with poor technique, cough- operator effects

A
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20
Q

Define normal sleep phases/cycle

A

Cycles 90-120min
- Infants 40mins
- Young children 50-60mins

  1. NREM (stage 1-4)
    Stage 1 lightest
    Stage 2 intermediate sleep 40-50% total sleep time
    Stage 3 and 4 deep/restful sleep (20% time)
  2. REM sleep = Rapid Eye movement
    20% of adult sleep, 50% of infant sleep
    - Low muscle tone, decreased TV/irregular breathing
    - Nightmares/dream
    - Consolidation of memory/plasticity
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21
Q

Define stages of sleep/normal durations

A

Normal napping
1 year old 2 naps per day
2 year old 1 nap per day
5 year old No napping
Normal sleeping
Approximate = 16 – age (only from birth to sleep time 9hrs, stable in adolescents)
Birth 16 hours
2 years 14 hours
6 years 10 hours
18 years 8 hours
Adult 7 hours

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22
Q

What are common changes to sleep patterns with age

A

There is a gradual decline in the average 24 hour sleep duration from infancy through adulthood
Average adolescent still requires 9-9.25 hours of sleep per night

Naps typically cease at age 5 years

Decline in the relative percentage of REM sleep from birth (50%) to early childhood into adulthood (25-30%)

SWS – peaks in early childhood, drops off abruptly after puberty, and then further decreases

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23
Q

Why is NO administered via ETT as close to patient as possible?

A

NO is usually fed into the ventilator tubing as close to the patient as possible, limiting the mixing time between O2 and NO- forms toxic compounds i.e NO2 (can damage resp tract)

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24
Median nerve supplies all motor in flexor compartment except
1. Thenar compartment 2. 2x Lumbricals (LOAF) EXCEPT FCU and medial half of FPD
25
Erbs vs Klumpkes palsy
E before K Erbs = upper brachial plexus C5-6, porters tip hand, adducted/medialy rotated, pronated/externally rotated - affects deltoids, biceps, brachialis, Klumpkes = lower brachial plexus C8-T1 - Claw hand- intrinsic hand muscles/ulnar flexors weak, unopposed - +/- Horners, vasoactive changes
26
What nerve supplies anatomical snuffbox sensation
Radial
27
What muscles does the ulnar nerve supply?
Medial 2 lumbrical = flex the MCP, extend the IP joints of little + ring fingers Interossei = abduct and adduct the fingers Hypothenar muscles Adductor pollicis
28
When does a childs eGFR reach adult levels (per equivalent BSA)?
2 yrs
29
Example of 'two hit hypothesis' in paediatric cancers?
Retinoblastoma two mutations (two hits) of key genes in the control of cell division occurring in a retinal neuro-ectodermal cell were necessary for the development of retinoblastoma
30
What is the main advantage of whole genome sequencing when compared to whole exome sequencing?
Intrinsic mutations are detected
31
Most common injury in NAI?
Metaphyseal corner fracture
32
Which cells produce Anti-Mullerian Hormone?
Sertoli cells Say no to mother
33
Mechanism of action of Sildenafil?
cGMP-specific phosphodiesterase inhibitor
33
Mechanism of action of Sildenafil?
cGMP-specific phosphodiesterase inhibitor
34
Management of EPSE with metaclopramide (oculogyric crisis)
Benztropine (anti-cholinesterase)
35
What gene is responsible for the cardiovascular phenotype in Williams syndrome?
ELN 'Elvin Facies'
36
Blood findings in C1Einh/HAE?
Low C4, low C1-esterase inhibitor level, low C1-esterase inhibitor function
37
Which CSF metabolite is the most sensitive marker of inflammation?
Neopterin
38
Which autoinflammatory condition is associated with a gene defect in pyrin?
Familial mediterranean fever 'Family festive pyre = pyrin'
39
What anti-epileptic drug demonstrates irreversible inhibition of GABA transaminase?
Vigabatrin
40
What is the term for the point of maximal absorption of a solute by the renal tubule?
Transport maximum
41
What protein is affected in NMO?
Aquaporin 4
42
What cell type accounts for increased immunity provided by conjugated pneumococcal vaccines in comparison to un-conjugated pneumococcal vaccines?
CD4
43
Where does the oesophagus originate from? What is its length at birth, when does it reach adult length?
Post-pharyngeal forgut Length of esophagus is 8-10 cm at birth and doubles in the first 2-3 years of life to reach 25cm in adult
44
When is swallowing first seen?
Swallowing seen as early as 16-20 weeks in utero -Polyhydramnios is the hallmark of lack of normal swallowing or esophageal upper GI obstruction
45
What are the landmarks surrounding the oesophagus?
Relation to adjacent structures Prevertebral fascia posteriorly Trachea/ L mainstem bronchus/ heart anteriorly Fixed at origin Mobile throughout mediastinum
46
Structure of stomach? Innervation?
Wall: mucosa>submucosa>muscularis>serosa Epi: simple columnar 2x sphincters: - LES (smooth muscle) - pyloric (allows passage into duodenum once fluid consistency- 'chyme') Stomach is surrounded by parasympathetic (stimulant) and sympathetic (inhibitor) plexuses which regulate both the secretions activity and motor activity of the muscles Interstitial cells of Cajal are specialised pacemaker cells located in the wall of the stomach, small intestine and large intestine – responsible for migrating motor complex which result in waves in peristalsis The epithelium and lamina propria are by tubular glands
47
Cells in stomach- what hormones/enzymes released?
Oxynctic/parietal cells: HCL (upper stomach) Chief cells: pepsinogen (activated by HCL, deactivated alakaline in duodenum) Enterochromaffin like cells: histamine (lower stomach)- regulate digestive hormones G cells: gastrin Mucous cells: mucus
48
Cells in stomach- what hormones/enzymes released?
Oxynctic/parietal cells: HCL (upper stomach, stimulated by Gastrin- G cells, ACh- PNS, M3 receptors/histamine- cAMP mediated = all increase H/K ATP-ase pump) G cells: gastrin (release histamine & thereby acid, ^ intracellular calcium) Enterochromaffin like cells: histamine (lower stomach, stimulates acid secretion) Chief cells: pepsinogen (activated by HCL, deactivated alakaline in duodenum)- proteolytic, Mucus cells: mucus
49
Structure, length, wall of small intestine
270cm at birth- 450/550 by 4yrs Mucosa with villii (present by 8 weeks gestation duodenum, 11weeks age ileum) Goblet cells = mucus Paneth cells- lysozyme/phospholipase, defensins Brunner cells- HCO3 mucus- alkalinisation of HCL from stomach Peyer patches = lymphatic/lymphocytes Plicae circulares- mucosa/submucosa
50
Hormonal signalling in SI when food enters:
Increased gastric secretions- intestinal phase of eating (PNS- vagal) Enterogastric reflex- inhibits stomach secretions GIP also inhibits gastric secretion CCK release: triggers GB/hepatic secretions Secretin: triggers HCO3 into GB/hepatic secretions
51
Large intestine, length, structure, function
75-100cm Absorption of water/electrolytes Storage and expulsion of faeces Taenia coli- muscle, contract to form haustra
52
Iron absorption
Duodenum
53
Folic acid absorption
Duodenum & jejunum
54
CHO absorption
Jejunum, proximal 100-200cm
55
Protein absorption
Proximal 100-200cm intestine
56
Fats, FFA, monoglycerides (micellar complexes) absoprtion
Throughout small intestine FFA/TG- prox 100-200cm MCT- via portal circulation Distal ileum, fatty acids
57
B12 absorption
Terminal ileum
58
Bile salt absorption
Terminal ileum
59
Water & electrolyte absorption
Colon
60
Water soluble vitamin absorption
Jejunum/proximal 100-200cm
61
C/M/P absorption
Duodenum & jejunum
62
Brush-border oligo/disaccharidases & carbohydrates produced:
Glucoamylase + dextrinase = maltose Sucrase-isomaltase Sucrose πŸ‘ͺ glucose + fructose Maltose πŸ‘ͺ glucose + glucose Effective against 1:6 alpha linkages Lactase Lactose πŸ‘ͺ glucose + galactose
63
Absorption of glucose, galactose & fructose
Apical: Glucose + galactose – Na+ dependent glucose transporter (SGLT1) [basis of ORS] Fructose – facilitated diffusion via GLU5 Basolateral All by GLUT2
64
Carbohydrate requirement & digestion
200-300gm/d, 50% of energy req Mouth: amylase Intestine: salivary amylase reactivated, pancreatic amylase release (stimulated by CCK)
65
Protein requirement and digestion
0.75g/kg/d Stomach: pepsin- hydrolyses bonds (chief cells- cAMP/intracellular Ca- PNS/CCK/gastrin) Duodenum: CCK = secretion & activation of proteases- trypsin, elastase, carboxypeptidase A&B
66
Function of pancreatic peptidases
Endopeptidases = trypsin, chymotrypsin, elastase Act at interior peptide bonds Exopeptidases = pancreatic carboxypeptidases Act on terminal amino acids
67
Function of pancreatic peptidases
Endopeptidases = trypsin, chymotrypsin, elastase Act at interior peptide bonds Exopeptidases = pancreatic carboxypeptidases Act on terminal amino acids
68
Absorption of peptides/oligopeptides?
Neonates: antigens, Iggs Enterocytes- endocytose Brush border: amino acid transporters, peptides via active transport (jejunum), faster than AAs Further digestion intracellularly Basolateral: 3+/2+ Na dependant, 10% as small peptides
69
Fat requirement, digestion & absorption?
120-150g, biliary lipid 40-50g - form fats/oils/membranes/skin lipids Stomach: emulsification- peristalsis/gastric& lingual lipase Pancreatic lipase: CCK stimulates release, trypsin activates colipase Hydrolyses 1,3 bonds Form micelles in SI- can be absorbed via SI wall FA <12 C direct to portal system (ie. MCT) FA >12 C re-esterified to TG FFA/MGs for chylomicrons in enterocytes- travel to lacteals and enter lymphatics Less efficient in neonates
70
B1 deficiency sx?
Beriberi (diffuse polyneuropathy due to myelin + axonal degeneration) Infantile Form (Mo deficient, breastfeeding) sudden onset heart failure, absent deep tendon reflexes, aphonia Wernicke-Korsakoff
71
B2 (riboflavin) deficiency sx?
Poor growth/FTT Angular cheilitis, stomatitis Moist scaly skin, seborrheic dermatitis Normocytic normochromic anemia Eyes- photophobia, itch, blurred vision, neovascularisation
72
B3 (niacin) deficiency Sx
Pellagra (diarrhoea, dementia, dermatitis) Glossitis, stomatitis, swollen tongue, ulcers
73
B5/B6 deficiency sx?
B5 (panthenoic acid) Rare, paraesthesias B6 (pyridoxine): Neuro – irritability, convulsions Hypochromic anaemia Isoniazid – needs B6 or get peripheral neuritis
74
B12 (cobalamin) deficiency sx?
Megaloblastic anemia Neuro (demyelination, subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord, optic atrophy) πŸ‘ͺ ataxia, paraesthesia, periph neuropathy Should not use nitrous oxide in individuals with B12 deficiency
75
Folate deficiency sx?
Macrocytic anaemia Neural tube defects in fetus
76
Vit C deficiency sx?
Scurvy Petechiae, ecchymoses, gingivitis Follicular hyperkeratosis, coiled hairs
77
Vit A deficiency sx?
Eye disease Night blindness Retinopathy Xerophthalmia Keratomalacia Keratinization – bitot spots Poor bone growth Nonspecific skin problems – hyperkeratosis Immune system impairment (B + T cell) - measles Growth failure
78
Vit E deficiency sx?
Haemolytic anaemia Neuropathy Spinocerebellar syndrome w variable involvement of peripheral nerves Ataxia Hyporeflexia Loss of proprioceptive + vibratory sensation Myopathy Skeletal myopathy
79
Development of nephron
Metanephric mesenchyme invades ureteric bud (from Wolffian duct)- forms renal vessicle which produces BC/prox tubule/LOH, Ureteric bud forms collecting duct, major/minor calyces Nephron number complete by 34-36wks
80
Stages of nephrogenesis
Arises from mesoderm 4th week- pronephros (disintegrates to produce mesonephros) 5th-6th week- metanephros- definitive adult kidney 28-32wks - mesonephros - paired tubules that produce urine, also contributes to bladder formation
81
Blood supply to the abdominal viscera (SI, stomach, pancreas, spleen, liver)
1. Coeliac axis off abdominal aorta R) = common hepatic artery (20-30% of blood supply, rest via portal vein) - Gastroduodenal artery: inner stomach curvature - Duodenal branch: duodenum - Proper hepatic artery: liver - R) hepatic artery > cystic artery: GB - Anterior/posterior & superior pancreatoduodenal artery: pancreas & duodenum L) = L) gastric artery & splenic artery - Splenic > R) gastroomental artery - Pancreatic branches 2. SMA off abdominal aorta - Supplies midgut - R) colon & mesentery 3. IMA off abdominal aorta - Supplies hindgut - L) colon & mesentery
82
What is the function of the spleen?
Lymphoid (white pulp) - Contains B cells in germinal centres - Haematopoesis 3-6mo in utero Filtration (red pulp) - Sinuses/reticular system with macrophages - Destruction of old RBCs Host defence (marginal zone) - Pickup organisms- dendritic cell/APC rich - particularly encapsulated (H.IB, strep pneumo, neisseria + protazoa)
83
Most likely lymphadenopathy in viral infection?
Submandibular/superior deep cervical nodes: - Drains the cheek, nose, lips, anterior tongue, submandibular gland, buccal mucosa. - Affected in 80% of children with URTI
84
Cervical lymph node drainage?
Submandibular: Drains the cheek, nose, lips, anterior tongue, submandibular gland, buccal mucosa. Superficial cervical: Drains the skin, lower larynx, parotid, lower ear canal. Submental : Drains the central lower lip, floor of mouth, tongue Posterior auricular: Drains the temporal and parietal scalp.
85
Aortic arch formation
1st = Max (maxillary) 3rd = 3=c Carotid (also looks like bunny teeth = carrot) 4th = 4 limbs (descending aorta) 6th = 2 lungs back to back (PA)
86
What part of foetal circulation receives the highest SpO2?
Placenta > UV (80%) > liver (ductus venosus) > IVC > RA (also 25% via lungs/PDA) shunt to LA (67%) > head 62% > descending aorta
87
SpO2/pressures in normal heart circulation
88
Surfactant proteins & function. What is ABCA3?
Surfactant: produced in Type 2 alveolar cells, decrease surface tension in alveoli to increase compliance Surfactant protein A, D- larger glycoproteins - Involved in innate immunity Surfactant B/C - Surface tension lowering - Surf B deficiency most common
89
Timing of umbilical cord seperation? Disorders with delayed?
21 days If > 1mo, consider neutrophil defects- i.e LAD, Chediak Higashi, WAS, RAC2 deficiency
90
What stages do first and second heart sound correspond to?
S1- closure of AV valves - End of diastole, start of isovolumetric contraction S2- closure of PA/Ao - End of systole - Start of diastole
91
Most significant factor influencing airflow through a tube?
Radius of tube
92
What stage of sleep do K complexes/sleep spindles occur?
NREM 2
93
What cell mediates type 4 hypersensitivity?
CD8 T cell
94
What is Ara H2?
A storage protein with trypsin inhibition properties
95
Food allergen with associated familial inheritance?
Peanut
96
Absorption of solutes across nephron? Where is water NOT absorbed?
97
Most likely cause of proteinuria on dipstick?
Haematuria
98
How many hormones does the anterior pituitary secrete? How many secretory cell types are there?
6 (FSH,LH, GH, CRH, PRL, TSH, ACTH) 5 cell types: Somatotrope (GH): 50% Lactotrope (PRL): 10-30% Gonadotrope (FSH/LH): 20% Corticotrope (ACTH): 10% Thyrotrope (TSH): 5%
99
What vitamin excess causes increased ICP?
Vitamin A
100
Cortical dysplasia involving insula- symptoms
Seizures - Choking sensation - Drug resistant epilepsy
101
Definition of segregation in genetics?
Determination of whether or not the variant of interest is present in the parents
102
Structure of Hb?
Two alpha globin chains, two beta globin chains, four heme groups
103
Upper limb myotomes
104
Lower limb myotomes
105
How much blood can a neonate lose into a subgaleal
250-75ml (80%!!!)
106
Kcal/kg per day for prem neonate vs term
120- prem 100- term
107
Phase 0 cardiac cycle?
Voltage gated Na+ channel
108
Phase 1 cardiac cycle?
K+ channel
109
Phase 2 cardiac cycle?
L-type Ca2+ channel in /K+ & Cl- out
110
Phase 3 cardiac cycle?
K+ out
111
Phase 4 cardiac cycle?
RMP- K+ inward rectifier
112
Erb vs Klumpke's palsy
Erb = waiter tip, C5,6,7 (tip me a 5er) Klumpke = claw, C8,T1 (bottom of plexus, creepy & lives under a bridge)
113
Differences between gas exchange and conducting airways?
Conducting = terminal bronchioles - Patency determined by cartillage - High velocity/resistance to airflow Gas exhcnage - Resp bronchioles, alveolar ducts and alveoli - Small caliber, large number/SA (larger apices >bases) - Low resistance to airflow, non turbulent/low velocity - Patency determined by negative pressure
114
Features of respiratory membrane, type1 & 2 alveolar cells?
Respiratory membrane = barrier between alveolar air and blood - Squamous alveolar cell (type 1) - Basement membrane (shared) - Squamous endothelial cell of capillary (pulmonary arterial supply) MAP 10mmHg, oncotic pressure 25mmHg, thickness 0.5mm Type 1 = 95%- surface for gas exchange Type 2 = 5%- produce surfactant (cuboidal), repair epithelium
115
Central control of respiration
Aim: pH 7.4, pO2 100mmHg, pCO2 40mmHg Brainstem - Inspiritory centre DRG - Expiratory centre VRG - pneumotaxic = rate/pattern, limits expoiration Motor cortex/limbic = conscious control Central chemoreceptors (CO2/CSF H+) - Medulla - ↑ PaCO2 β†’ ↑ CSF [H+] β†’ ↑ ventilation Peripheral chemoreceptors (pO2/pH) - Carotid bodies - Respond to ↓ PaO2, ↓ pH, ↑ PaCO2 β†’ ↑ ventilation Other receptors Stretch: Herring-Breuer reflex- excessive inflation triggers this reflex which is protective to further inflation as it inhibits inspiratory neurons Irritant - bronchocontriction/cough J receptors - oedema, ^RR/shallow breathing Baro/pain/temp receptors
116
Formula for compliance?
Compliance = change in volume/ change in pressure Distensibility of substance - Reciprocal to elastance - More compliant = expands easily
117
Formula for resistance
Poiseulle's law R = 8xlength x viscosity / pi radius^4 Length and viscosity constant = radius main factor Nasal airway = 40-50% of total resistance
118
Factors that affect lung compliance?
1. FRC (age, body size, posture) 2. Lung volume (resection, collapse, consolidation) 3. Lung elasticity (pulmonary oedema, fibrosis decrease)
119
Factors that affect lung compliance?
1. FRC (age, body size, posture) 2. Lung volume (resection, collapse, consolidation) 3. Lung elasticity (pulmonary oedema, fibrosis decrease)
120
How is carbon dioxide transported around the body?
Carbon dioxide - 90% transported as carbonic acid (CO2 + H2O – H2CO3 – HCO3 + H+) - Enzyme = carbonic anhydrase 5% carbamino-compounds – bound to haemoglobin and other proteins 5% dissolved in plasma
121
Causes of hypoxemia, hypercapnea?
Low O2 - Hypoventilation - Diffusion limitation - Shunt - V/Q mismatch High CO2 - Hypoventilation - V/Q mismatch