Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

VET - Pharm > PharmQ3 > Flashcards

PharmQ3 Flashcards

1
Q

imidazole, available in oral and topical forms

A

Ketoconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

antiviral
(Roferon-A®) – is a protein substance with multiple roles in the body’s defense mechanisms
▪ Protects host cells from viruses
▪ Stimulates noninfected cells to produce antiviral proteins
▪ Mainly used in veterinary medicine for treatment of FeLV and ocular herpes in cats
▪ Adverse effects rarely seen in cats

A

Interferon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  • Polyene antifungal that’s reserved for severe, systemic
    fungal infections due to the adverse effect of nephrotoxicity.
  • Must be administered IV through dilution in 5 percent dextrose solution through a filter system and protected from light/moisture.
  • Renal function should be monitored when using this drug.
A

Amphotericin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  • Polyene antifungal found in various topical ointments and is also given orally for Candida albicans overgrowth in the mouth (oral thrush) and GI tract, often secondary to immune suppressive therapy and/or long-term antibiotic therapy.
  • Although less toxic than the polyene antifungals adverse
    effects of hepatotoxicity and cardiotoxicity have been reported.
A

Nystatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  • Fungistatic that’s only available as an oral preparation to treat
    dermatophyte infections of the skin, hair and nails.
  • Absorption is enhanced when using the “ultramicrosize” form and if given with a fatty meal.
  • The dosage regimen should continue until fungal cultures are negative and adverse effects include GI signs, and anemia/leukopenia in cats.
  • Should not be given during pregnancy due to potential teratogenicity.
A

Griseofulvin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the adverse effects of methylxanthine drugs such as theophylline and aminophylline?

A

Adverse effects are usually dose related and include vomiting/diarrhea, tachyarrhythmias, CNS stimulation, tremors, and seizures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the the uses, pharmacokinetics, and side effects of phenobarbital when used for therapy of seizures.

A

CNS depression (depresses motors centers of the cerebral cortex)
Side effects polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, liver enzyme elevation
Pharmacokinetics : Anticonvulsant barbiturate that undergoes “induced biotransformation” causing the rate of drug metabolism to be increased with continued use, also called the “tolerance” phenomenon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Anesthetic

A

An agent that causes the loss of all sensation. May be described as local, regional, or surgical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Anticonvulsant

A

A drug used that inhibits seizure activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Sedative

A

A drug used to suppress brain activity and awareness with reduced excitement caused by sleepiness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Analgesic

A

An agent that effects the loss of, or dissociation from pain. They work by stopping or preventing the perception of pain, the inflammatory process or the transmission of painful stimulus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Stimulant

A

Used to Reverse CNS Depression Caused by CNS Depressant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Disinhibition

A

????

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the general adverse effects associated with use of opiate drugs

A
  • Respiratory Depression (Decreased Oxygen Levels / Increased Carbon Dioxide Levels <- Dose Dependent)
  • Bradycardia/Hypotension
  • Thermoregulation (Hypothermia (rabbits, dogs) / Hyperthermia (cattle, goats, horses, cats))
  • Diarrhea / Vomiting Initially (Constipation with prolonged use)
  • Increased Auditory Response to Noise
  • Miosis (Dog and Pig)
  • Mydriasis (Cat and Horse)
  • Sweating, seen especially in horses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the drug of choice for IV emergency treatment of status epilepticus?

A

Levetiracetam (Keppra)

Anticonvulsant that is not a controlled substance and is believed to work by selectively affecting the release of neurotransmitters and impeding impulse conduction across synapses. It is used IV for Status Epilepticus and as an adjunct for refractory seizure patients or when phenobarbital and/or potassium bromide is not well tolerated. It is being used more as a first line anticonvulsant, especially in young animals, and is well tolerated. Adverse effects may be transient and include sedation in dogs, and lethargy and decreased appetite in cats.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  • CNS stimulant that is used to increase respirations in animals due to anesthetic respiratory depression.
  • It is also used to stimulate respiration in neonates following C-section by placing 1-2 drops sublingually or by injection into the umbilical vein.
  • Caution should be used in animals with a history of seizures.
A

Doxapram

17
Q
  • opioid
  • 5 Times more Potent Analgesic than Morphine (C-II), Same duration or shorter than oxymorphone
  • Less excitability in Cats
  • Multiple species use and less expensive than oxymorphone
A

Hydromorphone

18
Q
  • Alpha-2 Antagonist
  • reverses xylazine
A

Yohimbine

19
Q

(Narcan)
- Competitive opioid antagonist that works by blocking opioids at the receptors and is used for reversal of opioid overdose.
- This reversal agent has a shorter duration of effect than the opioid itself and therefore may need repeat treatments until the patient is fully recovered.

A

Naloxone

20
Q
  • Drug that is the most potent of the opioids and used primarily for severe orthopedic pain or end stage palliative cancer treatment in dogs and cats.
  • It is available as a slow-release transdermal patch that may be applied to the dorsal neck after clipping/cleaning/drying the area.
  • It is also administered IV, usually by constant rate of infusion, due to having a shorter duration of action in the injectable form.
A

Fentanyl

21
Q

What are the three common indications for use of butorphanole in animals

A

C-IV opioid agonist/antagonist used for analgesia, cough suppression, and neuroleptanalgesia

22
Q

What are the indications for the respiratory stimulant doxapram and with what condition should it be used cautiously?

A

CNS stimulant that is used to increase respirations in animals due to anesthetic respiratory depression. It is also used to stimulate respiration in neonates following C-section by placing 1-2 drops sublingually or by injection into the umbilical vein. Caution should be used in animals with a history of seizures.

23
Q

What spasmolytic drug is used as adjunctive therapy for inflammatory and traumatic conditions, especially intervertebral disc disease

A

methocarbamol (Robaxin®)
- used as an adjunctive therapy for inflammatory/traumatic skeletal muscle conditions, particularly intervertebral disc disease
- potent, central acting muscle relaxant (CNS selective action) that helps reduce muscle spasms but does not decrease muscle tone
- available in oral and injectable forms
- side effects rare but include sedation, lethargy and weakness
- warn clients that urine may be darker in color

24
Q

Which category of antiinflammatory drug has the ability to stabilize mast cell membranes and prevent the release of histamine?

A

Antihistamines

25
Q

What are the most common side effects of NSAIDS and which species best tolerates NSAID side effects?

A

Side effects include gastric ulceration, bleeding tendency, bone marrow suppression, and kidney and liver dysfunction.

Some Species Are More Tolerant Than Others

Horses > Dogs > Cats

26
Q

Describe the process of inflammation

A

a natural response of living tissue to injury and infection

27
Q

How does inflammation serve as a protective mechanism for the body

A

Serves to destroy, dilute, and sequester both the injurious agent and the injured tissue (that caused the inflammation)

28
Q
  • This NSAID is a very potent analgesic, antipyretic and anti-inflammatory drug that works by COX inhibition.
  • It is used extensively for pain associated with colic due to its ability to inhibit deep visceral pain and is also used for musculoskeletal disease in horses.
  • Other uses include treatment of shock, post-operative pain and intervertebral disc disease.
  • Although still labeled for both IV and IM injection, most equine clinicians avoid IM use due to risk of Clostridial infection.
  • “Banamine.”
A

Flunixin Meglumine

29
Q
  • Semisynthetic product derived from bovine cartilage used for adjunct therapy of degenerative joint disease.
  • This agent inhibits proteolytic enzymes that cause degeneration of joints and promotes production of joint fluid from the synovial membrane.
  • It’s approved for IM injection in horses and dogs and one of
  • “Adequan.”
  • Adverse effects are minimal.
A

PSGAGs

30
Q
  • Anti-inflammatory labeled for topically application to reduce acute swelling from trauma or other inflammatory conditions such as lick granulomas and constricted ear canals.
  • It also acts as a carrier of other agents through the skin.
  • Clients should wear gloves when applying this product since it can cause skin irritation/burning sensation, garlic smell/taste and birth defects.
A

DMSO

31
Q
  • Also known as the “fen” group of NSAIDs which includes ibuprofen, ketoprofen, carprofen, and naproxen. Carprofen is believed to target COX-2 which acts only in stopping inflammation, and spares the protective GI prostaglandins, therefore having limited GI side effects. Although commonly used for pain and osteoarthritis in dogs, rare liver toxicity to carprofen has been noted (especially in Labrador retrievers), so it is recommended that liver enzymes are assessed prior to therapy.

Other details possible??

A

Propionic acid derivatives

32
Q
  • Representative drug in the Pyrazolone category that is an inhibitor of prostaglandin synthesis by COX inhibition.
  • This drug is frequently used in equine medicine for pain associated with the musculoskeletal system and is commonly referred to as “bute” by horse owners.
  • Due to being highly protein bound and metabolized by the liver care must be taken if an animal has low albumin levels.
  • Side effects include GI ulceration, diarrhea and renal necrosis, especially if given long-term in high doses.
A

Phenylbutazone

33
Q
  • Non-narcotic analgesic (NOT an NSAID) that has limited antipyretic and anti-inflammatory effects.
  • It is rarely used in veterinary medicine due to toxic adverse effects.
  • It is contraindicated in cats at any dosage due to their limited ability to metabolize the drug by the liver. Toxic metabolites build up and cause anemia, cyanosis, liver damage and lethal methemoglobinemia. Clients should be warned that it is toxic to animals!
A

Tylenol

34
Q
  • The oldest member of anti-inflammatory agents that is the representative of the salicylate category and a potent inhibitor of prostaglandin synthesis by COX inhibition.
  • Cats cannot metabolize this drug as rapidly as other species due to deficiency of the glucuronyl transferase enzyme needed for metabolism.
  • It is used most in veterinary medicine for post-adulticide treatment of heartworm disease to reduce platelet clumping associated with narrowed pulmonary arteries.
A

Aspirin

35
Q

Where are corticosteroids produced naturally? Their effects on the body?

A

Hormones produced by the adrenal gland;

36
Q

How are corticosteroiod preparations classified?

A

Mineralocorticoids - Aldosterone

Glucocorticoids - Cortisol

37
Q

What are the common side effects associated with corticosteroid use?

A

Stimulate Breakdown of Glucose Stores Causing Hyperglycemia

Inhibit Fibrocartilage Growth

Decrease Immune Response by Inhibiting Lymphocytes

Also Neutrophils and Macrophages

Catabolic Effects – Break Down Protein

Weakened Musculature

Thinning of Skin

Hair Loss

Decreased Bone Density

“Iatrogenic” Cushing’s Disease

Induced Abortions

Polyuria/Poldipsia/Polyphagia

Decrease or Inhibit the Release of Stomach Protective Prostaglandins

May Result in Stomach Ulcers due to Increase in Gastric Acid Volume and Decrease in Gastric Acid pH

Elevated Liver Enzymes

38
Q

What effects do prostaglandins have on the body?

A

Mediators of Inflammation

Influences vascular permeability = Swelling, Pain

Vasodilation = Redness, Heat

Are Responsible for Maintaining the Health of the GI Tract

Aid in Maintaining the Blood Supply to the Kidneys

39
Q

What are the common side effects associated with antihistamine use?

A

drowsiness, dry mucous membranes, decreased GI secretions, and CNS stimulation in high doses.

VET - Pharm (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions