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Licensure Exam Comprehensive Review > Pharmacology I Quiz > Flashcards

Pharmacology I Quiz Flashcards

1
Q

What type of organism are the drugs ketoconazole and griseofulvin effective against?

  • Viruses
  • Bacteria
  • Fungi
  • Flukes
A

Fungi

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2
Q

How is pilocarpine administered?

  • eye drops
  • suppository
  • oral suspension
  • inhalation
A

eye drops

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3
Q

Which category of controlled drugs is most tightly controlled?

  • V
  • IV
  • I
  • II
A

I

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4
Q

Which of the following is an anticholinergic?

  • Ketamine HCl
  • Acepromazine
  • Xylazine
  • Glycopyrrolate
A

Glycopyrrolate

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5
Q

The H2 receptors are found in the

  • Carotid arches
  • Saliva
  • Gastric mucosa
  • Aortic arch
A

Gastric mucosa

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6
Q

Which class of antibiotics is most associated with joint cartilage damage in young, growing animals?

Aminoglycosides
Sulfonamides
Fluoroquinolones
Penicillins

A

Fluoroquinolones

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7
Q

Which of the following types of drugs promote excretion of urine?

Diuretics
Emetics
Antibiotics
Anticholinergics

A

Diuretics

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8
Q

Neomycin, streptomycin, gentamicin and dihydrostreptomycin all belong to what class of antibiotics?

  • Nitrofurans
  • Polymixins
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Tetracyclines
A

Aminoglycosides

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9
Q

Griseofulvin acts on

  • Both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
  • Dermatophytes
  • Gram-positive bacteria
  • Gram-negative bacteria
A

Dermatophytes

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10
Q

Which drug is a respiratory stimulant?

  • Doxapram
  • Propranolol
  • Dobutamine
  • Oxytocin
A

Doxapram

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11
Q

What does the term OD mean on a prescription?

  • Left eye
  • Right eye
  • Right ear
  • Left ear
A

Right eye

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12
Q

Which insulin form is used initially to treat a DKA cat (diabetic ketoacidosis)?

  • Intermediate acting
  • Long acting
  • Short acting
  • Ultra-long acting
A

Short acting

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13
Q

ACE inhibitors are used to treat which condition?

  • Urinary incontinence
  • Hypertension
  • Seizures
  • Asthma
A

Hypertension

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14
Q

Which is the best drug to treat ventricular fibrillation?

  • Bretylium
  • Verapamil
  • Propranolol
  • Lidocaine
A

Lidocaine

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15
Q

Which group of drugs causes pupillary dilation to allow for a better retinal examination?

  • Topical anesthetics
  • Miotics
  • Mydriatics
  • Osmotics
A

Mydriatics

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16
Q

Which of the following is a hypertonic solution?

  • 0.9% saline
  • LRS
  • Distilled water
  • 50% dextrose
A

50% dextrose

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17
Q

Which of the following is a bronchodilator?

  • Lidocaine
  • Aminophylline
  • Propranolol
  • Metoclopramide
A

Aminophylline

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18
Q

Which topical drugs should not be used with a corneal ulcer?

  • Cyclosporin
  • Lubricants
  • Glucocorticoids
  • Flurbiprofen
A

Glucocorticoids

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19
Q

Antiemetics are indicated in which situation?

  • Apnea
  • Vomiting
  • Diarrhea
  • Hysteria
A

vomiting

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20
Q

Which of the following is used to treat demodex in dogs?

  • Fenbendazole
  • Advantage
  • Fipronil
  • Amitraz
A
21
Q

Which class of drug poses the most threat to those handling the medication?

  • Antineoplastics
  • Anthelmintics
  • Antibiotics
  • Antiprotozoals
A
22
Q

Acetylcystein (mucomyst) is an antidote for which toxicity?

  • Acetaminophen
  • Opioid
  • Lidocaine
  • Digoxin
A

Acetaminophen

23
Q

Enrofloxacin, marbofloxacin and orbifloxacin are all which type of drug?

  • Penicillins
  • Cephalosporins
  • Fluroquinolones
  • Aminoglycosides
A
24
Q

Which of the following drug is commonly used to treat giardia?

  • Metronidazole
  • Drontal
  • Pyrantel pamoate
  • Praziquantel
A

Metronidazole

25
Q

Which emetic can be given in the subconjunctival sac?

  • Apomorphine
  • Hydrogen peroxide
  • Xylazine
  • Syrup of ipecac
A

Apomorphine

26
Q

What is the meaning of 60 ml PO TID?

  • Two ounce by mouth every 8 hours
  • Two tablespoon by mouth twice daily
  • Four tablespoons in mouth every 6 hours
  • 6 teaspoons as drench every 8 hours
A

Two ounce by mouth every 8 hours

27
Q

Which of the following is required on the label of medications dispensed for treating food animals but is not required on the label of medications dispensed for household pets?

  • Strength of the drug
  • Drug withdrawal time
  • Brand name of the drug
  • Clinic name and address
A

Drug withdrawal time

28
Q

Butorphanol is commonly used as of the following

  • Bronchodilator
  • Antidiarrheal agent
  • Antiemetic
  • Antitussive agent
A

Antitussive agent

29
Q

What type of drug is sucralfate?

Antidiarrheal

Antibloat

Antiulcer

Laxative

A

Antiulcer

30
Q

Thiobarbiturates should not be administered to

  • Spaniels
  • Rottweilers
  • Greyhounds
  • Collies
A
31
Q

What is given to treat an animal with eclampsia?

  • Calcium
  • Glucose
  • Insulin
  • Potassium
A

calcium

32
Q

A cow is accidentally dosed with an equine dose of xylazine. What drug should immediately be delivered?

  • Yohimbine
  • Atipamezole
  • None. The doses are the same for cows and horses
  • Epinephrine
A

Yohimbine

33
Q

Decreased coat luster, hair loss, decreased appetite, listlessness, cold intolerance and reproductive failure are all signs of what disease and are treated with which medications?

  • Diabetes mellitus/insulin
  • Hypothyroidism/levothyroxine
  • Hyperthyroidism/methimazole
  • Addison’s disease/Percorten V
A

Hypothyroidism/levothyroxine

34
Q

Which NSAID is commonly used in equines?

  • Aspirin
  • Etodolac
  • Ibuprofen
  • Phenylbutazone
A

Phenylbutazone

35
Q

Which form of insulin has the longest duration of action in a cat?

  • Glargine
  • Protamine Zinc
  • Crystalline
  • NPH
A

Glargine

36
Q

How is furosemide classified?

  • Vasodilators
  • Diuretics
  • Antiarrhythmics
  • Positive inotropes
A

Diuretics

37
Q

What medications cause the pupils to constrict?

  • Miotics
  • Diuretics
  • Emetics
  • Mydriatics
A

Miotics

38
Q

Sulfonamides are commonly used to treat bacterial infections, but are also effective to treat which of the following?

  • Ringworm
  • Coccidia
  • Herpesvirus
  • Spirochetes
A

Coccidia

39
Q

All of the following organs can facilitate the elimination of drugs except

  • Kidneys
  • Liver
  • Lungs
  • Spleen
A

Spleen

40
Q

What does it mean to administer medication PO?

  • Intravenously
  • Intramuscularly
  • Orally
  • Rectally
A

Orally

41
Q

Phenylpropanolamine is used to treat what condition?

  • Urinary incontinence
  • Anaphylaxis
  • High blood pressure
  • Vomiting
A

Urinary incontinence

42
Q

Sulfonamides are commonly used to treat bacterial infections, but are also effective to treat which of the following?

  • Spirochetes
  • Ringworm
  • Herpesvirus
  • Coccidia
A

Coccidia

43
Q

Which of the following describes the action of a parasympathomimetic or cholinergic drug?

  • Decreases salivation
  • Increases salivation
  • Dilates the pupils
  • Lowers clotting time of blood
A

Increases salivation

44
Q

Short-term effects of corticosteroid therapy include all of the following except

  • Delayed healing
  • Osteoporosis
  • Polyphagia
  • Polyuria
A

Osteoporosis

45
Q

Drug excretion occurs primarily in which organs?

  • Pancreas and kidney
  • Kidney and liver
  • Stomach and intestine
  • Spleen and pancreas
A

Kidney and liver

46
Q

The effects of which toxin can be counteracted with Vitamin K?

  • Metaldehyde
  • Brodifacoum
  • Theobromine
  • Acetominophen
A

Brodifacoum

47
Q

Which of the following would be used to control epileptic seizures?

  • Ketamine HCl
  • Meperidine
  • Doxapram HCl
  • Diazepam
A

Diazepam

48
Q

What is the biological half-life of a drug?

  • The time it takes 50% of the animals to die from the dose
  • The time the drug is good on the shelf
  • The time it takes an animal to eliminate half of the dose
  • When an animal only receives half of the required dose
A

The time it takes an animal to eliminate half of the dose

49
Q

Which of the following is a parenteral route of administration?

  • Subcutaneous injection
  • Suppository
  • Nasogastric tube
  • Oral tablets
A

Subcutaneous injection

Licensure Exam Comprehensive Review (13 decks)

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