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Licensure Exam Comprehensive Review > Anesthesia Homework > Flashcards

Anesthesia Homework Flashcards

1
Q

A drug from which of the following categories will cause loss of motor function when administered during an epidural?

  • Alpha-2 agonist
  • Opioid
  • Corticosteroid
  • Local anesthetic
A

Local anesthetic

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2
Q

Which drug should not be used IM for sedation?

  • Xylazine
  • Acepromazine
  • Phenobarbital
  • Ketamine
A

Phenobarbital

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3
Q

Malignant hyperthermia associated with inhalant anesthesia is most likely to be encountered in

  • Dogs
  • Rabbits
  • Sheep
  • Pigs
A

Pigs

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4
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the blood parameters of a dog that is hypoventilating under anesthesia?

  • O2 and CO2 are both elevated
  • O2 is elevated
  • CO2 is lowered
  • CO2 is elevated
A

CO2 is elevated

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5
Q

Which of the following is a narcotic antagonist?

  • Yohimbine
  • Naloxone
  • Propofol
  • Oxymorphone
A

Naloxone

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6
Q

The circulatory system can be monitored during general anesthesia by checking which of the following?

  • All of the above
  • Color of mucus membranes
  • CRT
  • Heart rate
A

All of the above

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7
Q

The drug that has the longest duration of effect after one injection is

  • Morphine
  • Butorphanol
  • Buprenorphine
  • Oxymorphone
A

Buprenorphine

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8
Q

Naloxone is the reversal agent for which drug?

  • Ketamine
  • Acepromazine
  • Oxymorphone
  • Sodium thiamylal
A

Oxymorphone

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9
Q

What size reservoir bag should be used for a 25 pound dog?

  • 2 liters
  • 1 liter
  • 4 liters
  • 0.5 liter
A

1 liter

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10
Q

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs used to control mild postoperative pain include:

  • Acetylpromazine and ibuprofen
  • Carprofen and ketoprofen
  • Diazepam and acetaminophen
  • Aspirin and xylazine
A

Carprofen and ketoprofen

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11
Q

Which of the following would NOT be a potential indicator of intraoperative pain?

  • Increased heart rate
  • Increased respiratory rate
  • Increased patient movement
  • Decreased blood pressure
A

Decreased blood pressure

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12
Q

What is a common problem with extubation of the brachycephalic breeds during the anesthetic recovery period?

  • An obstructed airway leads to dyspnea
  • These breeds respire with positive pressure ventilation
  • The technician is often bitten by these breeds
  • These breeds take longer to regain the swallowing reflex
A

An obstructed airway leads to dyspnea

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13
Q

Using ketamine as an anesthetic agent diminishes the value of what measure in assessing anesthetic depth?

  • Pedal reflex
  • Jaw muscle tone
  • Eye position
  • Pinna reflex
A

Eye position

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14
Q

Glycopyrrolate is an anticholinergic with all of the following advantages over atropine except

  • Crosses the placental barrier
  • Less likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias
  • Longer duration of action
  • Smaller dose volume
A

Crosses the placental barrier

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15
Q

Local anesthetics

  • Block catecholamine release
  • Cause increased release of inhibitory neurotransmitters
  • Interfere with transmission of the impulse along the nerve fiber
  • Disrupt nerve impulse transmission at the NMJ
A

Interfere with transmission of the impulse along the nerve fiber

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16
Q

What is the minimum acceptable heart rate for an anesthetized large breed dog?

  • 80 bpm
  • 100 bpm
  • 60 bpm
  • 120 bpm
A

60 bpm

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17
Q

Intravenous sodium bicarbonate is used to

  • Treat cardiac arrhythmias
  • Stimulate respiration
  • Produce positive inotropic effects
  • Combat acidosis
A

Combat acidosis

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18
Q

What may develop in an animal that received no atropine preanesthetic?

  • Bradycardia
  • Severe emesis
  • Collapsed trachea
  • Sinusitis
A

Bradycardia

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20
Q

Compared to a rebreathing system, a non-rebreathing system:

  • uses more oxygen for the same size patient
  • requires more soda lime
  • does not require a scavenging system
  • requires a larger rebreathing bag for the same size patient
A

uses more oxygen for the same size patient

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20
Q

What adverse effect may be caused by the use of morphine as a preanesthetic?

  • Bronchodilation
  • Decrease the amount of anesthetic used
  • Excitation and vomiting
  • Increased sensitivity to pain
A

Excitation and vomiting

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21
Q

Which animal is most likely to experience laryngospasm during intubation?

  • horse
  • cat
  • cow
  • dog
A

cat

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22
Q

Which animal is most likely to experience laryngospasm during intubation?

  • horse
  • cat
  • cow
  • dog
A

cat

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23
Q

Which of the drugs listed must be confined to a locked cabinet?

  • Atropine
  • Acepromazine
  • Oxymorphone
  • Xylazine
A

Oxymorphone

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24
Q

What is the main reason for periodically emptying the rebreathing bag on a closed circuit anesthetic machine?

  • Prevent CO2 buildup and acidosis
  • Monitor leaks in the system
  • Keep the bag pliable to facilitate exhalation
  • Allow inhalation of fresh anesthetic
A

Prevent CO2 buildup and acidosis

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25
Q

A capillary refill time that is over 2 seconds indicates

  • Congestive heart failure
  • Decreased ventilation
  • Decreased peripheral blood perfusion
  • Hypertension
A

Decreased peripheral blood perfusion

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26
Q

Which drug is an antagonist of xylazine?

  • Yohimbine
  • Pentazocine
  • Detomidine
  • Butorphanol
A

Yohimbine

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27
Q

What is a common problem with extubation of the brachycephalic breeds during the anesthetic recovery period?

  • These breeds take longer to regain the swallowing reflex
  • The technician is often bitten by these breeds
  • These breeds respire with positive pressure ventilation
  • An obstructed airway leads to dyspnea
A

An obstructed airway leads to dyspnea

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28
Q

What drug is an antagonist of medetomidine (Domitor)?

  • Yohimbine
  • Dopram
  • Atipamezole
  • Naloxone
A

Atipamezole

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29
Q

Which of the following anesthetic agents may cause panting?

  • Diazepam
  • Barbiturates
  • Ketamine
  • Narcotics
A

Narcotics

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30
Q

Which phase of equine anesthesia poses the highest risk to the horse and is the phase over which the anesthetist has the least control?

  • premedication
  • induction
  • maintenance
  • recovery
A

recovery

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31
Q

What is the function of the “pop-off” valve on the anesthesia machine?

  • restricts gas flow to only one direction
  • allows the release of excess pressure
  • allows for free air to enter the breathing circuit
  • controls the amount of air to the rebreathing bag
A

allows the release of excess pressure

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32
Q

What is a major complication with general anesthesia in a goat?

  • nerve paralysis
  • bloat
  • laryngospasm
  • hyperthermia
A

bloat

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33
Q

The drug that has the longest duration of effect after one injection is

  • Butorphanol
  • Oxymorphone
  • Morphine
  • Buprenorphine
A

buprenorphine

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34
Q

Which of the scheduled drugs has the highest abuse potential?

  • II
  • IV
  • I
  • III
A

I

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35
Q

What term describes the volume of gas inhaled and exhaled in one breath?

  • Expiratory volume
  • Reservoir volume
  • Inspiratory volume
  • Tidal volume
A

Tidal volume

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36
Q

What is the position of the trachea relative to the esophagus?

  • Trachea is ventral to the esophagus
  • Trachea is to the right of the esophagus
  • Trachea is dorsal to the esophagus
  • Trachea is to the left of the esophagus
A

Trachea is ventral to the esophagus

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37
Q

What drugs will not slow the heart rate?

  • Gas anesthetics
  • Alpha-2 agonists
  • Phenothiazine tranquilizers
  • Anticholinergics
A

Anticholinergics

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38
Q

Which of the following anesthetic agents is contraindicated in sight hounds?

  • Dissociative anesthetics
  • Benzodiazepines
  • Thiobarbiturates
  • Gas anesthetics
A

Thiobarbiturates

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39
Q

The best method for determining the proper inflation of an endotracheal tube cuff is

  • Use 1 ml of air for each millimeter of internal diameter of the tube.
  • Inject air until the bulb on the cuff tubing is too hard to collapse.
  • Use a 12-ml syringe and inject 12 ml of air into the cuff.
  • Inject air while applying pressure from the reservoir bag until no air escapes around the tube.
A

Inject air while applying pressure from the reservoir bag until no air escapes around the tube.

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40
Q

At normal doses, what effect does atropine have on the heart rate?

  • Prevents a decrease
  • Increases
  • Decreases
  • No effect
A

Prevents a decrease

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41
Q

Why is epinephrine often added to lidocaine for local analgesia?

  • Epinephrine is a pharmacologic antagonist to lidocaine
  • Epinephrine has a sedative effect
  • Epinephrine neutralizes the pH of lidocaine, making it less painful
  • Epinephrine prolongs the effects of lidocaine
A

Epinephrine prolongs the effects of lidocaine

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42
Q

What is the classification of ketamine HCl?

  • Barbiturate
  • Neuroleptanalgesic
  • Tranquilizer
  • Dissociative anesthetic
A

Dissociative anesthetic

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43
Q

Which preanesthetics are contraindicated in epileptics?

  • Anticholinergics
  • Phenothiazines
  • Alpha 2 agonists
  • Opioids
A

Phenothiazines

44
Q

Which of the following drugs is commonly administered via a transdermal patch?

  • Fentanyl
  • Diazepam
  • Ketoprofen
  • Butorphanol
A

fentanyl

45
Q

Which of the following best describes a properly inserted endotracheal tube?

  • the adapter is just caudal to the incisors
  • the cuff is just caudal to the glottis
  • the tip is midway between the larynx and the thoracic inlet
  • the tip is just caudal to the third rib
A

the tip is midway between the larynx and the thoracic inlet

46
Q

Preanesthetic drugs typically include which of the following?

  • narcotics and tranquilizers
  • narcotics and analeptics
  • anticholinergics and analeptics
  • tranquilizers and inhalant gases
A

narcotics and tranquilizers

47
Q

___ analgesia is the administration of an analgesic before the pain develops.

  • Somatic
  • Referred
  • Preemptive
  • Visceral
A

Preemptive

48
Q

Which of the following is the most likely complication of endotracheal tube cuff over-inflation during lengthy anesthesia?

  • air leakage from the cuff
  • cuff wear and tear
  • cuff rotation within the trachea
  • tissue necrosis
A

tissue necrosis

49
Q

Patients that have water withheld for long periods before surgery and general anesthesia may be prone to

  • Vomiting during induction
  • Dehydration and hypotension
  • Respiratory depression
  • Nothing more that other patients
A

Dehydration and hypotension

50
Q

Which of the following would not cause pale mucous membranes?

  • Hypotension
  • Hyperthermia
  • Stress causing catecholamine release leading to vasoconstriction
  • Anemia
A

Hyperthermia

51
Q

What is the major drawback in using ketamine alone as the sole anesthetic in an ovariohysterectomy in the feline?

  • Increased salivation
  • Little abdominal analgesia
  • Cardiac depression
  • Loss of muscle tone
A

Little abdominal analgesia

52
Q

Which of the following is NOT an effect of anticholinergic drugs?

  • Prevent bradycardia
  • Prevent vomiting
  • Constrict airways
  • Decrease tear flow
A

Constrict airways

53
Q

What happens to the ventilation rate and depth as the anesthesia level deepens?

  • no change
  • disappears
  • increases
  • decreases
A

decreases

54
Q

While monitoring a horse receiving oxygen at the rate of 8 L/min, isoflurane 2.5%, and fluids at the rate of 10 ml/kg/hr, you note that the blood pressure suddenly falls to 60 mm Hg, and the peripheral pulse becomes weak. Your first response should be to

  • Administer a vasoactive agent
  • Lower the isoflurane concentration and increase fluid delivery rate
  • Not be concerned
  • Turn down the oxygen flow
A

Lower the isoflurane concentration and increase fluid delivery rate

55
Q

Puppies or kittens delivered by cesarean section that have reduced respiratory function can be given this drug underneath their tongue to stimulate respiration.

  • Doxapram
  • Lidocaine
  • Atropine
  • Epinephrine
A

Doxapram

56
Q

What is the likely effect on an anesthetized patient if the soda lime is exhausted?

  • the patient will wake up
  • hypercarbia
  • white mucous membranes
  • elevated SpO2
A

hypercarbia

57
Q

A capillary refill time that is over 2 seconds indicates

  • Hypertension
  • Decreased ventilation
  • Congestive heart failure
  • Decreased peripheral blood perfusion
A

Decreased peripheral blood perfusion

58
Q

Which term describes a drug that stimulates a receptor?

  • antithesis
  • antagonist
  • agonist
  • antitussive
A

agonist

59
Q

What is the pressure in the thoracic cavity during normal inhalation?

  • Negative pressure
  • Balanced pressure
  • Mediastinal pressure
  • Positive pressure
A

Negative pressure

60
Q

What is the effect of doxapram on the anesthetized patient?

  • Increase cardiac output
  • Increase respiration rate
  • Increase heart rate
  • Increase blood pressure
A

Increase respiration rate

61
Q

Which of the following is the best method to rapidly fill a reservoir bag with pure oxygen when not connected to a patient?

  • close the “pop-off valve
  • turn up the flowmeter
  • turn off the anesthetic gases
  • use the flush valve
A

use the flush valve

62
Q

Which species has the greatest risk for regurgitation and aspiration when placed under general anesthesia?

  • cattle
  • rabbits
  • cats
  • horses
A

cattle

63
Q

Vital signs are checked and recorded every 5 minutes for cats and dogs under anesthesia. How often are they checked and recorded for a horse under anesthesia?

  • every 5 minutes
  • at the start and finish of anesthesia
  • whenever an alarm goes off
  • every 20 minutes
A

every 5 minutes

64
Q

Why are intravenous barbiturates generally contraindicated in C-sections of a bitch?

  • Severe respiratory depression of the fetuses results
  • Agalactia of the mother leads to the loss of a high percentage of the pups
  • The drug is excreted primarily in the milk of the lactating female
  • Nausea in the mother is a frequent complication
A

Severe respiratory depression of the fetuses’ results

65
Q

Which of the following drugs would have the strongest analgesic effect in a dog?

  • Acepromazine
  • Propofol
  • Buprenorphine
  • Sevoflurane
A

Buprenorphine

66
Q

What size endotracheal tube would be the best first choice for an 8 pound cat?

  • 8 mm
  • 4 mm
  • 6 mm
  • 2 mm
A

4 mm

67
Q

What may develop in an animal that received no atropine preanesthetic?

  • Sinusitis
  • Severe emesis
  • Collapsed trachea
  • Bradycardia
A

Bradycardia

68
Q

What is balanced anesthesia?

  • Anesthesia that is monitored by a team of anesthesiologists throughout the procedure
  • Anesthesia that is well maintained throughout the entire surgical procedure
  • The use of combinations of drugs to selectively act as anesthetics, analgesics, and muscle relaxants
  • The proper positioning of the patient on the induction and surgery table
A

The use of combinations of drugs to selectively act as anesthetics, analgesics, and muscle relaxants

69
Q

Which drug is a dissociative anesthetic?

  • Xylazine
  • Acepromazine
  • Ketamine
  • Thiopental sodium
A

Ketamine

70
Q

Which of the following is not seen when ketamine is administered IV rather than IM?

  • longer duration of effects
  • lower dose rate used
  • less pain on injection
  • quicker onset of effects
A

longer duration of effects

71
Q

Which of the following is NOT an effect associated with atropine administration?

  • Tachycardia
  • Excessive salivation
  • Decreased gastrointestinal motility
  • Mydriasis
A

Excessive salivation

72
Q

A patient in ASA class I physical status is

  • In absolutely no danger while under anesthesia
  • An adult animal with no signs of evident disease on physical examination
  • A normal patient with no organic disease
  • A moribund patient
A

A normal patient with no organic disease

73
Q

Which of the following is not a reason for using preanesthetic drugs?

  • less induction drugs are needed
  • provide analgesia
  • decrease blood pressure
  • reduce patient anxiety
A

decrease blood pressure

74
Q

Obesity delays elimination of what drug because of its high lipid solubility?

  • Guaifenesin
  • Xylazine
  • Propofol
  • Thiopental
A

Thiopental

75
Q

Guaifenesin is commonly used for anesthesia in what species?

  • horse
  • guinea pig
  • goat
  • dog
A

horse

76
Q

What is the pressure in the thoracic cavity during normal inhalation?

  • Mediastinal pressure
  • Balanced pressure
  • Positive pressure
  • Negative pressure
A

Negative pressure

77
Q

Propofol is a/an

  • Nonbarbiturate, intravenous anesthetic with hypotensive potential
  • Ketamine-like dissociative
  • Ultrashort-acting barbiturate
  • Xylazine antagonist
A

Nonbarbiturate, intravenous anesthetic with hypotensive potential

78
Q

Which of the following drugs is an anticholinergic?

  • Adrenaline
  • Epinephrine
  • Glycopyrrolate
  • Cortisone
A

Glycopyrrolate

79
Q

Which drug should be avoided in the stallion because it may cause permanent prolapse of the penis?

  • glycopyrrolate
  • xylazine
  • butorphanol
  • acepromazine
A

acepromazine

80
Q

Which patient has the greatest risk of hypothermia under general anesthesia?

  • 6 month old quarter horse mare
  • yearling Suffolk sheep
  • 2 year old female Chihuahua
  • 6 week old male Siamese cat
A

6 week old male Siamese cat

81
Q

What drug is an antagonist of dexmeditomidine?

  • naloxone
  • atropine
  • xylazine
  • atipamezole
A

atipamezole

82
Q

When monitoring a cat under anesthesia, which of the following should you bring to the attention of the veterinarian?

  • SpO2 = 96 %
  • MAP = 40 mm Hg
  • ETCO2 = 38 mm Hg
  • HR = 120 bpm
A

MAP = 40 mm Hg

83
Q

If atropine was not given to an animal under anesthesia, what would dilated pupils indicate?

  • Too light a plane of anesthesia
  • Excitement stage
  • Too deep a plane of anesthesia
  • Adequate plane of anesthesia
A

Too deep a plane of anesthesia

84
Q

Which of the following is not a controlled substance?

  • midazolam
  • fentanyl
  • acepromazine
  • ketamine
A

acepromazine

84
Q

You are attempting to administer IV premedication to a horse by first placing the needle in the jugular vein. Blood begins pulsating and ejecting forcefully from the needle. What is the most likely explanation?

  • the needle is too short
  • normal jugular venospasm
  • the horse has hypertension
  • the needle is in the carotid artery
A

the needle is in the carotid artery

85
Q

___ should not be used as part of the anesthetic plan if the patient has an intestinal obstruction.

  • Nitrous oxide
  • Isoflurane
  • Atropine
  • Acepromazine
A

Nitrous oxide

86
Q

Which drug is a respiratory stimulant?

  • Propanolol
  • Oxytocin
  • Doxapram
  • Dobutamine
A

Doxapram

87
Q

What is a pulse deficit?

  • The pulse is slow
  • The heart is beating without pumping blood
  • The heart is beating too slowly
  • The pulse is weak
A

The heart is beating without pumping blood

88
Q

The volume of the rebreathing bag on an anesthetic machine should be at least

  • The same as the patient’s tidal volume
  • Nine times the patient’s tidal volume
  • Six times the patient’s tidal volume
  • Three times the patient’s tidal volume
A

Three times the patient’s tidal volume

89
Q

Dobutamine is used in emergency anesthetic and clinical situations to

  • Correct cardiac arrhythmias
  • Decrease the heart rate
  • Increase respiratory rate
  • Increase cardiac output
A

Increase cardiac output

90
Q

Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause hypotension after administration?

  • Thiopental
  • Ketamine
  • Propofol
  • Acepromazine
A

Ketamine

91
Q

Which drug is the most potent sedative?

  • Detomidine
  • Acepromazine
  • Xylazine
  • Diazepam
A

detomidine

92
Q

What is the term for using a combination of drugs to provide better pain management?

  • Inductive analgesia
  • Multimodal analgesia
  • Dissociative analgesia
  • Preemptive analgesia
A

Multimodal analgesia

93
Q

Which preanesthetic may cause emesis in cats?

  • Atropine
  • Dexmedetomidine
  • Acepromazine
  • Ketamine
A

Dexmedetomidine

93
Q

Which of the following statements is false regarding sighing of an animal?

  • In simplest terms, it is artificial breathing for the animal
  • The pop-off valve should be closed
  • Pressure should never exceed 20 cm H2O
  • Sighing should be done every 20 - 30 minutes
A

Sighing should be done every 20 - 30 minutes

94
Q

What should the anesthetist do to prevent atelectasis during anesthesia?

  • Administer IV fluids
  • Sigh the patient periodically
  • Monitor the heart rate
  • Check the body temperature
A

Sigh the patient periodically

94
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  • When giving medications by the IT route, the dosage rate should be doubled from the IV dose.
  • Furosemide may be used to treat pulmonary edema.
  • Doxapram is a respiratory stimulant.
  • Dopamine is an analeptic stimulant.
A

Dopamine is an analeptic stimulant

95
Q

What is the function of the manometer?

  • Reduce high pressures of gases at the cylinder
  • Measure blood pressure
  • Measure gas flow rate
  • Monitor pressure in a circle system
A

Monitor pressure in a circle system

95
Q

Which of the following statements is false regarding sighing of an animal?

  • In simplest terms, it is artificial breathing for the animal
  • The pop-off valve should be closed
  • Pressure should never exceed 20 cm H2O
  • Sighing should be done every 20 - 30 minutes
A

Sighing should be done every 20 - 30 minutes

95
Q

What should the anesthetist do to prevent atelectasis during anesthesia?

  • Administer IV fluids
  • Sigh the patient periodically
  • Monitor the heart rate
  • Check the body temperature
A

Sigh the patient periodically

96
Q

Alpha-2 agonists have what effect upon the heart?

  • cardiac stimulant
  • tachycardia
  • bradycardia
  • inotropic
A

bradycardia

97
Q

Acepromazine is classified as a(an)

  • Phenothiazine
  • Anticholinergic
  • Thiazine dirivative
  • Benzodiazepine
A

Phenothiazine

98
Q

The local anesthetic agent that has the longest duration of action is

  • Bupivacaine
  • Lidocaine
  • Mepivacaine
  • Tetracaine
A

Bupivacaine

99
Q

What is the effect of hypothermia on the anesthetized patient?

  • Slow recovery
  • Increased urine output
  • Increased metabolism
  • Rapid respiration
A

Slow recovery

100
Q

What is the optimal anesthetic level for a routine ovariohysterectomy?

  • stage 2, plane 3
  • stage 2, plane 2
  • stage 3, plane 1
  • stage 3, plane 2
A

stage 3, plane 2

101
Q

The combination of xylazine and butorphanol is used to

  • Cause central nervous system (CNS) excitement
  • Increase the dose of xylazine
  • Increase the dose of butorphanol
  • Provide greater analgesia and muscle relaxation than either drug can alone
A

Provide greater analgesia and muscle relaxation than either drug can alone

102
Q

All of the following are appropriate uses of anticholinergic drugs except

  • As treatment for bradycardia
  • As an aid in the treatment of corneal ulcers
  • As an antidote for organophosphate poisoning
  • As an agent to increase intestinal peristalsis
A

As an agent to increase intestinal peristalsis

Licensure Exam Comprehensive Review (13 decks)

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